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Progression work in progress

Total questions: 173

Worksheet time: 1hrs 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Who is responsible for providing you with Personal Protective Equipment?

a)

Your employer

b)

Your supervisor

c)

Your co-worker

d)

Yourself

2.

Personal Protective Equipment is required when

a)

Employers suffer an injury

b)

The employees suffer an injury

c)

An employee asks for it

d)

Engineering, work practice, and administrative controls do not provide sufficient protection against hazards

3.

Once your employer has provided you with PPE, you must use it whenever you are at work, even if your job changes.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Who is responsible for maintaining PPE?

a)

Your employer

b)

Yourself

c)

Your co-worker

d)

A and b

e)

A, b and c

5.

What type of protection is needed when you are exposed to hazards from flying particles?

a)

Eye protection

b)

Face protection

c)

Head protection

d)

Both a and b

6.

When working in areas where there is a potential for head injury from falling objects, you should...

a)

Look to the sky every 2 minutes for flying and falling objects

b)

Ask a colleague to give you a heads up when an object is about to fall

c)

Wear head protection

d)

Appoint yourself a personal superhero to whisk you away from falling objects

7.

If you wear prescription lenses, you do not need additional eye protection against occupational eye hazards.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Eye protection is required for which of the following hazards?

a)

Flying particles

b)

Molten metal

c)

Liquid chemicals, acids or caustic liquids

d)

Chemical gases or vapors

e)

All of the above

9.

Welding shields primarily protect against...

a)

Dust

b)

Metal splatter

c)

Splashes

d)

Flying particles

10.

It is still okay to use a hard hat with a minor crack in its shell.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

When should safety footwear be inspected?

a)

Every week

b)

Every 15 days

c)

Every month

d)

Every Year

e)

Prior to each use

12.

Hearing protection is required when you are exposed to a noise level of 85 decibels or higher.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Respirators are not considered PPE.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

You have been given a dust mask to protect against hazardous fumes. What should you do?

a)

Do the job but work quickly

b)

Do not start work until you have the correct Respiratory Protective Equipment

c)

Start work but take a break now and again

d)

Wear a second dust mask on top of the first one

15.

If you drop your safety helmet from height on to a hard surface, you should:

a)

Repair any cracks then carry on wearing it

b)

Make sure there are no cracks then carry on wearing it

c)

Work without a safety helmet until you can get a new one

d)

Stop work and get a new safety helmet

16.

What should you do if your safety boots get damaged?

a)

Attempt to fix it

b)

Replace it with your trainers

c)

Continue working until the end of your shift

d)

Stop all work until you get a replacement

17.

If your dust mask does not fit correctly what should you do?

a)

Carry on working and keep adjusting it

b)

Stop at regular intervals to adjust it

c)

Take it off and carry on working

d)

Replace it immediately with one that fits securely

18.

Wearing a safety helmet in hot weather can be uncomfortable, which of these is true about wearing a safety helmet in hot weather?

a)

You can drill small holes in your helmet to increase airflow and keep you cool

b)

You can take it off for short periods of time while you're working

c)

You can wear it sideways if it's more comfortable this way

d)

You must keep it on at all times and ensure you're wearing it correctly

19.

Using eye protection is vital for onsite safety, when should you wear eye protection?

a)

Only when you're working with hazardous chemicals

b)

When the task has a potential for eye injury and if the site rules demand it

c)

Only when you're working with power tools

d)

Only when you're working with hammers

20.

Hazardous substances can be identified by?

a)

The colour of the substance

b)

It will have a blue label on the container

c)

The colour of the container

d)

The symbol on the label

21.

What is the main colour of a Prohibition sign?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Yellow

22.

What is the main colour of a mandatory sign?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Yellow

23.

What is the main colour of a warning sign?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Yellow

24.

What is the main colour of a information sign?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Yellow

25.

What does the sign in the picture depict?

a)

Warning

b)

Prohibition

c)

Information

d)

Mandatory

26.

What does the sign in the picture depict?

a)

Warning

b)

Mandatory

c)

Information

d)

Prohibition

27.

What does the sign in the picture depict?

a)

Warning

b)

Prohibition

c)

Mandatory

d)

Information

28.

What does the sign in the picture depict?

a)

Information

b)

Prohibition

c)

Mandatory

d)

Warning

29.

Signs would need to be placed out by the tradespeople in situations like?

a)

When digging holes or trenches

b)

Where there are wet or slippery surfaces

c)

When working at heights

d)

To highlight any trip hazards

e)

All of the above

30.

What does the sign in the picture tell us?

a)

Ear protection must be worn

b)

No music

c)

Your workmates are too loud

d)

Cold outside, Keep your ears warm

31.

What does the sign in the picture tell us?

a)

No matches

b)

No naked flames

c)

No smoking

d)

Risk of fire

32.

What does the sign in the picture tell us?

a)

No access

b)

Do not walk

c)

No dancing

d)

No clothing

33.

What does the sign in the picture tell us?

a)

Emergency eye wash

b)

Emergency shower

c)

Sweeping brushes here

d)

Look this way

34.

What does the sign in the picture tell us?

a)

Warning 'Flammable'

b)

Warning 'Explosive'

c)

Warning 'Bad hair'

d)

Warning 'Trolls'

35.

What does the sign in the picture tell us?

a)

Warning 'Electricity'

b)

Warning 'Lightning'

c)

Warning 'Disco'

d)

Warning 'Broken spear'

36.

What does the sign in the picture tell us?

a)

Take care when opening door

b)

2 Way Door

c)

Emergency exit

d)

Way out

37.

What does the sign in the picture tell us?

a)

Warning 'Bright light'

b)

Warning 'Explosive'

c)

Warning 'Messy'

d)

Warning 'Spillage'

38.

What does the sign in the picture tell us?

a)

Warning 'Corrosive'

b)

Warning 'Melting'

c)

Warning 'Water dripping'

d)

Warning 'Acid'

39.

What does the sign in the picture tell us?

a)

Warning 'Falling objects'

b)

Warning 'Drop your tools immediately'

c)

Warning 'Do not drop tools'

d)

Warning 'Raining hammers and bricks'

40.

What does the sign in the picture tell us?

a)

First aid point

b)

Nurse

c)

Hospital

d)

Fire alarm

41.

What is a 'Hazard'

a)

A type of bird

b)

Something that could cause harm

c)

The risk of something causing harm

d)

A type of sign

42.

What is a 'Risk'

a)

The chance that a 'Hazard' will cause harm

b)

Something that could cause harm

c)

A type of sign

d)

The regulations to prevent injury

43.

What does 'HASAWA' stand for?

a)

The 'Health and Safety at Work Act 1974'

b)

The 'Health at Some area Works Act 1974'

c)

The 'Health and Social at Work Act 1974'

d)

The 'Happy and Satisfied at Work All 1974'

44.

What do we call the process of identifying and reducing Hazards and Risks?

a)

Risk assessment

b)

Risk analysis

c)

Hazard perception

d)

Hazard guessing

45.

When undergoing a 'Risk Assessment' What are the two main point to identify?

a)

Likelihood & Severity

b)

High & Weight

c)

Where & When

d)

Cause & Effect

46.

After completing what level is a Plumbing apprentice regarded as an 'Oprative'?

a)

Level 1

b)

Level 2

c)

Level 3

d)

Level 4

47.

At what level does an electrician become fully qualified?

a)

Level 1

b)

Level 2

c)

Level 3

d)

Level 4

48.

Who must you be registered with before you can legally work on gas?

a)

Gas safe register

b)

The gas board

c)

British Gas

d)

The gas association of Wales

49.

What does the 'CSCS' card mean?

a)

Construction safety certification scheme

b)

Construction safety card scheme

c)

Construction sign cover scheme

d)

Construction sign certification scheme

50.

What tradespeople are responsible for installing hot and cold water systems?

a)

Plumbers

b)

Carpenters

c)

Bricklayers

d)

Plasterers

51.

What tradespeople are responsible for installing data cables?

a)

Electricians

b)

Plumbers

c)

Carpenters

d)

Bricklayers

52.

These tradespeople can also be known as 'Joiners'

a)

Carpenters

b)

Plumbers

c)

Electricians

d)

Bricklayers

53.

What tradespeople would render external walls?

a)

Plasterer

b)

Plumber

c)

Bricklayer

d)

Carpenter

54.

What tradesperson would use the tool in the picture?

a)

Bricklayer

b)

Plumber

c)

Carpenter

d)

Electrician

55.

A sole trader is known as what type of business?

a)

A medium company

b)

A large company

c)

A lone company

d)

A small company

56.

What organisation supports just plumbers?

a)

APHC

b)

ECA

c)

IET

d)

JIB

57.

The person who is responsible for sourcing materials at competative prices is know as the ?

a)

Buyer

b)

Estimator

c)

Source

d)

Coster

58.

What does the IET stand for?

a)

Institute of engineering and technology

b)

Institute of electrical technicians

c)

Institute of environmental technologies

d)

Institute of early training

59.

Who is the local water authority in this area?

a)

Welsh Water

b)

Water wales

c)

Cearphilly water works

d)

Rhymney valley water supply

60.

Which organisation has the responsibility for the electrical wiring regulations?

a)

IET

b)

Gas Safe

c)

APHC

d)

CSCS

61.

List 2 things the local water authority has responsibility for?

a)

The supply of clean drinking water

b)

The repair of mains supply pipework

c)

The local pond

d)

The nearest beach

62.

What does APHC stand for?

a)

Association of plumbing and heating contractors

b)

Association of plumbers and hotwater contractors

c)

Association of pipework and heat contractors

d)

Assembly of pipework and hotworks contractors

63.

What does ECA stand for?

a)

Electrical contractors association

b)

Electrical circuits association

c)

Electrical controls assembly

d)

Engineering contractors association

64.

How many weeks notice do you need to give to someone who has been employed for 12 years or more?

a)

12 weeks

b)

6 weeks

c)

1 week

d)

1 month

65.

What are the maximum hours you can be made to work in a week?

a)

48

b)

40

c)

37

d)

24

66.

What does ACAS stand for?

a)

Advisory conciliation and arbitration service

b)

Advisory company advise service

c)

Arbitration and company advise service

d)

Advise on construction safety

67.

Which of the following are recognised as types of discrimination?

a)

Age,Sexual orientation, Disability

b)

Hair colour, clothing, type of car

c)

Colour of eyes, where you live, name

d)

Height, weight, shoesize

68.

What name is given to time off when a parent has a child?

a)

Maternity

b)

Matrimony

c)

Care leave

d)

Child benifit

69.

What trades are most likely to be exposed to solvents and vapours?

a)

Plumbers and carpenters

b)

Bricklayers and plasterers

c)

Electricians and engineers

d)

Site managers and buyers

70.

Which trade is most at risk by working at heights for long periods of time?

a)

Bricklayers

b)

Carpenters

c)

Plumbers

d)

Electricians

71.

Which trade is most likely to suffer from burns?

a)

Plumbers

b)

Plasterers

c)

Bricklayers

d)

Carpenters

72.

What item of PPE would need to be provided to bricklayers in the summer months?

a)

Ice

b)

Bathing costumes

c)

Sunscreen

d)

Sun glasses

73.

At what level does noise cause damage to someones hearing?

a)

85db

b)

75db

c)

65db

d)

50db

74.

Which of the following materials is used for its ductile properties?

a)

Cast-iron

b)

Ceramic

c)

PVC

d)

Copper

75.

During electrolytic action, which one of the following would occur?

a)

Anode will gradually destroy the cathode

b)

Electrolyte will destroy the cathode

c)

Electrolyte will be used up and disappear

d)

Cathode will gradually destroy the anode

76.

Pitting is a form of Corrosion?

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Which one of the following materials will reflect the greatest amount of radiant heat?

a)

Oxidised copper

b)

Cast iron

c)

Galvanised steel

d)

Polished aluminium

78.

An alloy is a mixture of two of more metals?

a)

True

b)

False

79.

Which one of the following identifies a method of increasing hot water system efficiency?

a)

Increasing system flow rate

b)

Increasing system pressure

c)

Adding pipe insulation

d)

Adding corrosion inhibitor

80.

Which of the following has a combustion temperature of 1930°C?

a)

Natural gas

b)

Acetylene

c)

Propane

d)

Butane

81.

273K is the equivalent of how many °C?

a)

-10

b)

0

c)

10

d)

100

82.

One Pascal is equal to one

a)

1 Bar

b)

1 Gauge

c)

1 N/m2

d)

1 Kg/m2

83.

The formula to calculate total pressure is intensity of pressure × base area. What is the approximate total pressure acting on the base of a cistern that measures 0.5m × 1.0m, if the intensity of pressure on the base is 19.62 kPa/m2?

a)

19.62kPa

b)

9.81kPa

c)

4.90kPa

d)

39.24kPa

84.

Which one of the following pipework materials has the greatest frictional resistance?

a)

Copper

b)

PVC-U

c)

Low Carbon Steel

d)

Polybutylene

85.

What is the density of water at 4°C

a)

1 Kg/m3

b)

10 kg/m3

c)

100 kg/m3

d)

1000 kg/m3

86.

Which one of the following can be used to soften water?

a)

Sodium chloride

b)

Calcium carbonate

c)

Acetic acid

d)

Sodium sulphate

87.

Heat loss should be avoided in which of the following situations?

a)

From pipework in a ceiling void

b)

From a coil within a cylinder

c)

In the heat exchanger of a boiler

d)

In the battery of an air handling unit

88.

Which one of the following states the relative density of natural gas?

a)

0.5

b)

0.7

c)

1.1

d)

1.5

89.

Pure metals are described as metals derived directly from the ore

a)

True

b)

False

90.

Which of the following is required for combustion to occur? A fuel supply, oxygen plus a

a)

Source of light

b)

Source of ignition

c)

Supply of gas

d)

Supply of air

91.

The rate at which an object changes its position. This statement best describes which one of the following principles

a)

Flow rate

b)

Velocity

c)

Force

d)

Acceleration

92.

A property is supplied with hard water. What will be the direct effect of the limescale deposits on the plumbing system?

a)

Water hammer

b)

Faulty WC flushing mechanisms

c)

Decrease in system efficiency

d)

corrosion of the copper pipework

93.

What is the SI unit for Force?

a)

Newton

b)

Watt

c)

Pascal

d)

Litre

94.

Which one of the following components would be installed into a sealed central heating system to prevent explosion?

a)

Pressure reducing valve

b)

Expansion relief valve

c)

Non-return valve

d)

Gate valve

95.

When water freezes, its volume increases by approximately

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

20%

d)

50%

96.

'Condensation' is best described as which of the following?

a)

Liquid turning into a gas

b)

Liquid turning into a solid

c)

Gas turning into a liquid

d)

Gas turning into a solid

97.

During electrolytic reaction, brass fittings can suffer from which one of the following?

a)

Plumbo-solvency

b)

Cupro-solvency

c)

Dezincification

d)

Anodic protection

98.

At what temperature does evaporation of water occur?

a)

0°C

b)

4°C

c)

10°C

d)

100°C

99.

The relative density of a solid is determined by comparing it to the same volume of which other substance?

a)

Water

b)

Lead

c)

Iron

d)

Mercury

100.

When substances change state, the energy released or absorbed is best described as which one of the following?

a)

Sensible heat

b)

Latent heat

c)

Kinetic heat

d)

Specific heat

101.

Which one of the following methods of heat transfer occurs between two bodies (surface) with no material medium between them?

a)

Radiation

b)

Convection

c)

Conduction

d)

Percolation

102.

Which one of the following is the unit of measurement for resistance?

a)

Ohm

b)

Watt

c)

Volts

d)

Amps

103.

Which one of the following solid materials conducts heat the least?

a)

Low carbon steel

b)

Copper

c)

Polyurethane

d)

Brass

104.

Refer to the following equation: Original length × temperature rise × coefficient of expansion. Which one of the following does the equation relate to?

a)

Pressure exerted

b)

Linear expansion

c)

Expansion within a system

d)

Expansion in a vessel

105.

Which one of the following relates specifically to heat capacity?

a)

Kilojoules, kilograms and degrees kelvin

b)

Kilojoules, kilograms and degrees celsius

c)

Kilojoules, seconds and degrees kelvin

d)

Kilojoules, seconds and degrees celsius

106.

Which of the following pipes, each measuring 6m in length, will offer the greatest resistance to the flow of water?

a)

15mm pipe with four elbows

b)

15mm pipe with four machine bends

c)

22mm pipe, which reduces down to 15mm halfway along its length

d)

15mm pipe with two machine bends and two elbows

107.

What is the intensity of pressure acting at the base of a 7m long pipe, which has a head height of 3 meters (Gravity = 9.81 kn/m2)?

a)

19.81kPa

b)

24.67kPa

c)

29.43kPa

d)

32.49kPa

108.

Conduction occurs by:

a)

Heat travelling in a straight line through the air

b)

Heat travelling through or along a solid material

c)

Heat travelling via a chemical reaction

d)

Heat travelling via the motion of a fluid

109.

What is this symbol for? (A circular electrical symbol with a sine-wave inside and a straight line lead on each side.)

a)

DC electricity

b)

System circulator

c)

Electrical resistance

d)

AC electricity

110.

Which of the following will cause siphonage to occur? Refer to the diagram showing a U-shaped tube between two open containers, with points A (left side near the surface), B (top of the right downleg), and C (bottom of the right container) labelled.

a)

Suction at point C

b)

Increase in pressure at point B

c)

Suction at point A

d)

Atmospheric pressure in the tube

111.

What is the freezing point of water at sea level?

a)

100C

b)

75C

c)

25C

d)

0C

112.

Which of the following materials is the best conductor of heat?

a)

Lead

b)

Low carbon steel

c)

Copper

d)

Cast iron

113.

What would the fuse size be for a domestic appliance that has a power rating of 3kW?

a)

13 amp

b)

10 amp

c)

5 amp

d)

3 amp

114.

Which of the following values reflects the pH value for pure water?

a)

1

b)

4

c)

7

d)

11

115.

The limescale build-up in systems is caused by:

a)

Soft water

b)

Acidic water

c)

Temporary hard water

d)

Permanently hard water

116.

This form of corrosion is generally caused by: (Image shows pitting on a metal surface.)

a)

Flux left in the tube after flushing out

b)

The inhibitor in the system being too strong

c)

Position of the electrolytic series table

d)

Bad manufacture

117.

A change of state may occur when water is heated to:

a)

25 C

b)

50 C

c)

75 C

d)

100 C

118.

The SI unit for measuring electrical current is:

a)

Watt

b)

Ampere

c)

Joule

d)

Ohm

119.

Specific heat capacity is measured in:

a)

N/m2

b)

⁰C or ⁰K

c)

KJ/Kg/⁰C

d)

Amperes

120.

What has a sinusoidal wave form?

a)

DC electricity

b)

AC electricity

c)

Convection heat transfer

d)

Conductive heat transfer

121.

If a customer painted their central heating pipework, what would that protect it from?

a)

Pitting

b)

Electrolytic corrosion

c)

Atmospheric corrosion

d)

UV corrosion

122.

On an incoming mains, which of the following would have the lowest pressure?

a)

The cold water tap at the kitchen sink

b)

The float-operated valve to the cold water storage cistern in the loft

c)

The first floor basin cold tap

d)

The downstairs WC float-operated valve

123.

The build-up of limescale in a hot water system could be noticed by:

a)

The hot water temperature being hotter

b)

The hot water temperature being cooler

c)

The hot water flow rate increasing

d)

The hot water recovery time decreasing

124.

Which one of the following is an underground water source?

a)

Lake

b)

River

c)

Borehole

d)

Stream

125.

Which one of the following must only be provided from a wholesome water source?

a)

Drinking water

b)

WC flushing

c)

Garden irrigation water

d)

Washing machine water

126.

What is the minimum dimension (shown as X) to the outer wall surface in the following diagram of a supply pipe entering through a solid floor into a property?

a)

250mm

b)

400mm

c)

750mm

d)

900mm

127.

What is the name of the cold water system shown in the following diagram?

a)

Pressurised system

b)

Indirect system

c)

Direct system

d)

Sealed system

128.

An indirect cold water system is most likely to be selected when:

a)

There is a high incoming mains flow rate

b)

There is a low incoming mains flow rate

c)

A reduction in system pipework is required

d)

Water storage needs to be kept to a minimum

129.

Which British Standard details the type of pipework materials that can be used in a cold water system?

a)

BS 5440

b)

BS 6700

c)

BS EN 12056

d)

BS EN 12983

130.

What is the minimum recommended size of a cold water distributing pipe feeding a bath tap outlet in an indirect cold water system?

a)

10mm

b)

15mm

c)

22mm

d)

28mm

131.

Which of the following provides protection against backflow at a wash basin tap in a dwelling?

a)

A service valve

b)

An air gap

c)

A single check valve

d)

A pressure‑relief valve

132.

Component X in the following drawing is a?

a)

Rubber washer

b)

Wedge‑shaped gate

c)

Ceramic disc

d)

Fibre washer

133.

Which one of the following must be fitted to the overflow (warning pipe) in a protected cold water storage cistern?

a)

Insect screen

b)

Double check valve

c)

Service valve

d)

Baffle plate

134.

Which of the following health and safety dangers is most likely to be present when using dust sheets as a protective walkway on a laminated timber floor?

a)

Dirt penetration through the sheets

b)

Slippage of the sheets on the floor surface

c)

Fire risk due to contact of the flammable materials

d)

Toxic smells due to contact of the two materials

135.

Which one of the following jointing methods can be used on underground MDPE cold water service pipework?

a)

Capillary soldering

b)

Compression

c)

Pressfit

d)

Capillary end feed

136.

Which one of the following would normally be used to tighten a tap connector to a bath pillar tap?

a)

Screwdriver

b)

Box spanner

c)

Basin wrench

d)

Stillson wrench

137.

Which one of the following is an unsuitable type of joint to be used on cold water pipework?

a)

Lead wiped joint

b)

Lead propriety joint

c)

Pushfit joint

d)

Capillary joint

138.

The water regulations state that a service valve must be fitted before:

a)

A single check‑valve

b)

A bath tap outlet

c)

A sink tap outlet

d)

A water heater inlet

139.

Which of the following should be used to make a hole in a plastic feed and expansion cistern?

a)

Pad saw

b)

Heated copper tube

c)

Hole saw

d)

Heated compression fitting

140.

Which one of the following requirements should be applied to a cold water distributing pipe, laid in a sleeve, in a solid floor without an accessible cover?

a)

The pipe must be capable of being easily withdrawn for repair or renewal

b)

The pipe must be fitted with trace heating to guard against freezing

c)

The sleeve must be fitted with a connection to the drain

d)

The sleeve must feature a self‑collapsing design

141.

Which one of the following is normally required when fixing sink pillar taps to a stainless steel sink top?

a)

Top‑hat washers

b)

Silicone sealant

c)

Putty and jointing paste

d)

Fibre washers

142.

When making a capillary‑soldered tee joint to an existing painted copper pipe the:

a)

Paint must be removed from the pipe after jointing

b)

Olives should be expanded before the joint is made

c)

Paint must be removed from the pipe before jointing

d)

‘O’ ring must be fully lubricated in order to pass the paint

143.

A cistern is insulated in a building with a ‘warm roof’ to provide protection against?

a)

Freezing

b)

Corrosion

c)

The growth of legionella bacteria

d)

The production of salmonella bacteria

144.

Which one of the following would normally form part of a routine maintenance inspection (periodic service) of a cold water system?

a)

The replacement of pipework clips and brackets

b)

The opening/closing of service valves to check for correct operation

c)

The opening/closing of double‑check valves to check for correct operation

d)

The replacement of plastic cold water storage cisterns

145.

'White dots' on the outside surface of a galvanised cold water storage cistern are a sign of?

a)

corrosion

b)

hard water

c)

contamination

d)

pure water

146.

Which one of the following is most likely to be listed in the schedule of activities to be carried out on a cold water system maintenance record?

a)

Check/adjustment of the water level in cisterns

b)

Replacment of the olives in compression fittings

c)

Replacment of the gate mechanism in a fullway gate valves

d)

Check/adjustment of disinfectant level in the system.

147.

Which one of the following could be used when connecting an outside tap into an existing cold water supply pipe when the stop valve fails to isolate the supply?

a)

Hydraulic test kit

b)

Backflow prevention device

c)

Float-operated valve

d)

pipe freezing kit

148.

The cold water supply to a wash hand basin fed from an indirect cold water system is normally isolated at the:

a)

service valve on the distributing pipe from the cold water storage cistern

b)

service valve on the cold feed pipe to the hot water storage cylinder

c)

supply stopvalve under kitchen sink

d)

stop valve to the WC flushing cistern

149.

The main risk when leaving open ends connected to a 'Live' cold water system when work is taking place is?

a)

flooding

b)

fire

c)

theft

d)

contamination

150.

A visual inspection of a cold water system is normally carried out:

a)

after filling before soundness-testing a system

b)

after soundness-testing a system

c)

before filling a system

d)

before soundness-testing but after performance-testing a system

151.

Which one of the following can be used to establish the soundness test pressure in a cold water system?

a)

Pipe freezing kit

b)

Manometer

c)

Multi-meter

d)

Hydraulic test kit

152.

Which one of the following could be the possible cause of a vibration noise heard from the pipework near to a cold water storage cistern?

a)

Poorly supported pipework

b)

Very hard water

c)

Badly corroded pipework

d)

Lack of earth protection

153.

Water to a farmhouse supplied from a moorland collection tank can be identified as:

a)

a mains supply

b)

a private supply

c)

a public supply

d)

a multi-purpose supply

154.

When installing a new indirect cold water system, which of the following should happen, according to the Water Regulations?

a)

One tap, normally the kitchen sink, should be drawn directly from the supply pipe

b)

One tap, normally the kitchen sink, should have a dedicated distribution pipe from the storage cistern

c)

Mixer taps will require double check valve

d)

Mixer taps should never be installed due to the pressure differences.

155.

According to BS6700 and the Water Regulations, a drain off valve should be installed:

a)

At every draw off point

b)

At every high point in the system

c)

At every low point in the system

d)

Above the cold water storage cistern

156.

Pin holing in copper pipework is commonly caused by:

a)

Hard water

b)

Acidic water

c)

Alkaline water

d)

Pure water.

157.

While installing pipework in a property, you are called off site to another job. What would be the correct course of action with any open-ended pipework?

a)

Place a warning label on every open end

b)

Cap off with a push fit fitting

c)

Warn the customer not to interfere with any pipework

d)

Be as quick as you can to return.

158.

One of the major problems when leaving a dead leg in a cold water pipe is:

a)

Electrolytic corrosion

b)

Pitting of pipework

c)

Reduction in water flow

d)

Possible bacterial growth.

159.

The use of WRAS approved fittings when installing cold water pipework is

a)

A legal requirement

b)

To be corrosion resistant

c)

To avoid contamination

d)

All of the above

160.

On the completion of a new cold water installation, the system has been proven sound. What would the next course of action be?

a)

Visual inspection with the customer

b)

Flush the pipework out then hand over to the customer

c)

Prepare the benchmark certificate

d)

Hand over to the customer.

161.

What is the most cost effective way to repair a stop valve that has the head gear jammed open?

a)

Replace the head gear only

b)

Replace the whole valve

c)

Leave in position, and install a new stop valve upstream

d)

Repack the glands around the spindle.

162.

When decommissioning a system, the correct procedure is to:

a)

Turn off the water quickly to save any wasted water

b)

Drain the system down then inform the customer

c)

Inform the customer first then drain the system

d)

Use a pump to drain down quickly.

163.

What is this item?

a)

Fullway gate valve

b)

Drain off valve

c)

Stop valve

d)

Spherical ball valve

164.

What type of valve is shown in this diagram?

a)

Spherical ball valve

b)

Fullway gate valve

c)

Stop valve

d)

Drain off valve

165.

When installing a new water service pipe to a property, it should normally be buried between what depths?

a)

135mm to 1,750mm

b)

350mm to 750mm

c)

1,350mm to 1,750mm

d)

750mm to 1,350mm

166.

Identify item C in the diagram

a)

Warning pipe

b)

Grommet for open vent

c)

Screened vent

d)

Inspection flap

167.

Which of the following materials is not allowed to be installed on new cold water systems?

a)

Copper

b)

Stainless steel

c)

MDPE

d)

Lead.

168.

What type of valve is designed to shut off the supply of water in a cistern at a predetermined level?

a)

Stop valve

b)

Fullway gate valve

c)

Float operated valve

d)

Isolation valve

169.

The fluid category that offers a slight health risk to a customer is:

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

170.

The correct back flow protection device that would be installed prior to a shower mixer valve would be

a)

Single check valve

b)

Double check valve

c)

RPZ valve

d)

Type AG air gap

171.

To protect category 1 water from category 3 water, what would need to be installed, according to the Water Regulations?

a)

Single check valve

b)

Double check valve

c)

RPZ valve

d)

Type AG air gap

172.

What would this item be used to test?

a)

Pressure

b)

Category of water

c)

Flow rate

d)

pH valve

173.

If a customer’s tap is dripping, what tool can be used to correct the situation?

a)

Club hammer

b)

Stillsons

c)

Bradawl

d)

Re-seating tool