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Page 1

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

_____ methods can be used to drive validations tests

a)

Yellow-box testing

b)

Black-box testing

c)

White-box testing

d)

All of the mentioned

2.

A predicate expression associated with an event is known as

a)

Transition

b)

Class

c)

Guard

d)

None of the above

3.

Testing of nested loops were suggested by

a)

Littlewood

b)

Beizer

c)

Boehm

d)

None of the above

4.

A powerful technique to use any time a system presents a small input domain with a large number of permutations is known as

a)

Regression testing

b)

Object oriented testing

c)

Orthogonal array testing

d)

None of the above

5.

What is the normal order of activities in which traditional software testing is organized? Select the correct sequence.

a)

Unit testing → Integration testing → System testing → Validation testing

b)

Integration testing → Unit testing → System testing → Validation testing

c)

System testing → Integration testing → Validation testing → Unit testing

d)

Validation testing → System testing → Integration testing → Unit testing

6.

Which of the following need to be assessed during unit testing?

a)

Algorithmic performance

b)

Code stability

c)

Execution paths

d)

Both c and c

7.

Top-down integration testing has as its major advantage(s) that

a)

Low level modules never need testing

b)

Major decision points are tested early

c)

No drivers need to be written

d)

Both b and c

8.

Bottom-up integration testing has as its major advantage(s) that

a)

Major decision points are tested early

b)

No drivers need to be written

c)

No stubs need to be written

d)

Regression testing is not required

9.

The OO testing integration strategy involves testing

a)

Groups of classes that collaborate or communicate in some way

b)

Single operations as they are added to the evolving class implementation

c)

Operator programs derived from use-case scenarios

d)

None of the above

10.

Acceptance tests are normally conducted by the

a)

Developer

b)

End users

c)

Test team

d)

Systems engineers

11.

Testing OO class operations is made more difficult by

a)

Encapsulation

b)

Inheritance

c)

Polymorphism

d)

Both b and c

12.

Scenario-based testing

a)

Concentrates on actor and software interaction

b)

Misses errors in specifications

c)

Misses errors in subsystem interactions

d)

Both a and b

13.

Deep structure testing is not designed to

a)

Examine object behaviors

b)

Exercise communication mechanisms

c)

Exercise object dependencies

d)

Exercise structure observable by the user

14.

Which of these techniques is not useful for partition testing at the class level?

a)

Attribute-based partitioning

b)

Category-based partitioning

c)

Equivalence class partitioning

d)

State-based partitioning

15.

Tests derived from behavioral class models should be based on the

a)

Data flow diagram

b)

Object-relation diagram

c)

State diagram

d)

Use-case diagram

16.

______ is the least effective method in isolating the cause of software errors.

a)

Algorithmic Bugs

b)

Brute Force Approach

c)

Cause Elimination Approach

d)

Backtracking Approach

17.

The major disadvantage of top-down approach is need for ______.

a)

Critical module

b)

Skeleton

c)

Stub

d)

Project

18.

______ couples top-down, bottom-up for upper and subordinate levels.

a)

Alpha testing

b)

Unit testing

c)

Sandwich testing

d)

Performance testing

19.

What are the types of Integration Testing?

a)

Big Bang Testing

b)

Bottom up Testing

c)

Top Down Testing

d)

All of the above

20.

Which of the following testing strategy is applicable at all three levels of testing

a)

White box testing

b)

Mutation testing

c)

Regression testing

d)

None of the above

21.

Alpha testing involves

a)

Customers

b)

Testers

c)

Developers

22.

Site for Alpha testing is

a)

Software development company

b)

Installation site

c)

Anywhere

d)

None of the above

23.

Site of Beta testing is

a)

Software organization

b)

Customer’s site

c)

Anywhere

d)

All of the above

24.

Testing and subsequent debugging can account for ________ software development effort.

a)

5–10%

b)

10–20%

c)

30–40%

d)

80–90%

25.

Integration testing techniques are

a)

Top down

b)

Bottom up

c)

Sandwich

d)

All of the above

26.

Top-down approach is used for

a)

Development

b)

Identification of faults

c)

Validation

d)

Functional testing

27.

Which of the following validation activities belong to low-level testing?

a)

Unit testing

b)

Integration testing

c)

Performance testing

d)

Both (a) and (b)

28.

Debugging is a two-step process that begins when you find an error as a result of a successful test case. Step 1 is the determination of the exact nature and location of the suspected error within the program. Step 2 consists of _________

a)

Viewing the error

b)

Locating the error

c)

Fixing the error

d)

Filing the error

29.

______ establishes the existence of errors ______ locates and corrects the errors.

a)

Debugging, testing

b)

Testing, Debugging

c)

Testing, Verifying

d)

Testing, Validation

30.

What is the relationship between testing and quality assurance?

a)

QA is part of a complete testing process

b)

Testing and QA are two terms for the same thing

c)

Testing is part of a complete QA process

d)

When Testing is over it becomes QA

31.

The Pareto analysis is most effective for ____________

a)

Showing relationships between items

b)

Measuring the impact of identified items

c)

Ranking items by importance

d)

None of the above

32.

ITG stands for

a)

Instantaneous test group

b)

Integration testing group

c)

Individual testing group

d)

Independent test group

33.

By collecting ______ during software testing, it is possible to develop meaningful guidelines to halt the testing process.

a)

Failure intensity

b)

Testing time

c)

Metrics

d)

All of the mentioned

34.

Which of the following issues must be addressed if a successful software testing strategy is to be implemented?

a)

Use effective formal technical reviews as a filter prior to testing

b)

Develop a testing plan that emphasizes “rapid cycle testing.”

c)

State testing objectives explicitly

d)

All of the mentioned

35.

Test cases should uncover errors like

a)

Nonexistent loop termination

b)

Comparison of different data types

c)

Incorrect logical operators or precedence

d)

All of the mentioned

36.

Which of the following is not regression test case?

a)

A representative sample of tests that will exercise all software functions

b)

Additional tests that focus on software functions that are likely to be affected by the change

c)

Tests that focus on the software components that have been changed

d)

Low-level components are combined into clusters that perform specific software sub-function

37.

The object of ______ within an OO system is to design tests that have a high likelihood of uncovering plausible bugs.

a)

Fault-based testing

b)

Integration testing

c)

Use-based testing

d)

Scenario-based testing

38.

What refers to the externally observable structure of an OO program?

a)

Deep structure

b)

Surface structure

c)

Core structure

d)

All of the above

39.

______ categorizes class operations based on the generic function that each performs

a)

Category-based partitioning

b)

Attribute-based partitioning

c)

State-based partitioning

40.

Which chart is a tool that depicts a project as a network diagram capable of graphically representing main events of a project in both parallel banal and consecutive way?

a)

PERT chart

b)

Gantt chart

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

41.

User Acceptance testing is

a)

White box testing

b)

Black box testing

c)

Gray box testing

d)

None of the above

42.

Error guessing is a

a)

Test verification technique

b)

Test execution technique

c)

Test control management technique

d)

Test data management technique

43.

The testing done to make sure existing features are not affected by new changes is called

a)

Recursive testing

b)

White box testing

c)

Unit testing

d)

Regression testing

44.

According to Pareto’s principle, x% of defects can be traced to y% of all causes. What are the values of x and y?

a)

60, 40

b)

70, 30

c)

80, 20

45.

Which of the following is the primary goal of a software testing process?

a)

To fix bugs

b)

To ensure software meets user requirements

c)

To write code

d)

To develop software faster

46.

In software quality, which of the following is the most critical factor for success?

a)

Software design

b)

Test planning

c)

Customer satisfaction

d)

Cost management

47.

Which of the following tools is commonly used for software test management?

a)

Jira

b)

Eclipse

c)

NetBeans

d)

Visual Studio

48.

What is the main focus of 'Agile testing'?

a)

Reducing testing efforts

b)

Testing software at the end of development

c)

Iterative testing and continuous feedback

d)

Using automation tools exclusively

49.

Controlling and monitoring in testing ensures:

a)

Bugs are hidden

b)

Testing stays on track

c)

Requirements are removed

d)

Developers do testing

50.

Which of the following is used to track test progress?

a)

Test metrics

b)

Storyboards

c)

Encryption keys

d)

UI design

51.

A milestone in test management is:

a)

A runtime error

b)

A significant event in test progress

c)

A code bug

d)

A data record

52.

Status meetings are conducted to:

a)

Assign UI tasks

b)

Update testing progress

c)

Hire new testers

d)

Install software

53.

Measurements in testing are used to:

a)

Evaluate test effectiveness

b)

Modify product prices

c)

Delete design documents

d)

Change user requirements

54.

Test completion criteria defines:

a)

When coding starts

b)

When testing can stop

c)

When marketing begins

d)

When installation is complete

55.

Exit criteria may include:

a)

Minimum test coverage

b)

Maximum test cases

c)

Coding standards

d)

Database size

56.

SCM stands for:

a)

Software Component Management

b)

Software Configuration Management

c)

Secure Code Monitoring

d)

Software Cost Monitoring

57.

SCM ensures:

a)

Version control

b)

Code rewriting

c)

UI improvement

d)

Customer support

58.

Which of the following is NOT part of SCM?

a)

Change tracking

b)

Version control

c)

Defect prevention

d)

Sales tracking

59.

Reviews help in:

a)

Identifying problems early

b)

Speeding up marketing

c)

Replacing customers

d)

Changing UI theme

60.

Which review is performed informally?

a)

Walkthrough

b)

Inspection

c)

Audit

61.

Inspection is usually:

a)

Formal

b)

Casual

c)

Optional

d)

Unstructured

62.

Peer review involves:

a)

Managers only

b)

Review by colleagues

c)

Customers only

d)

Government auditors

63.

The purpose of a review plan is to:

a)

Schedule review activities

b)

Test the database

c)

Rewrite test cases

d)

Execute regression test

64.

Review components include:

a)

Objective

b)

Entry criteria

c)

Reviewers

d)

All of the above

65.

A defect detected during review is called:

a)

Review bug

b)

Static defect

c)

Regression issue

d)

None

66.

Reporting review results should be:

a)

Confidential

b)

Timely and clear

c)

Delayed

d)

Optional

67.

Monitoring involves:

a)

Track progress against plan

b)

Adding new features

c)

Writing design patterns

d)

Running acceptance test only

68.

Corrective action is taken when:

a)

Goals are met early

b)

Testing deviates from plan

c)

No bugs are found

d)

Customer requests a feature

69.

A major purpose of controlling testing is:

a)

Ensuring quality targets are met

b)

Reducing hardware cost

c)

Updating software license

d)

Enhancing UI

70.

Trend analysis helps in:

a)

Predicting future test progress

b)

UI prototyping

c)

Sales forecasting

d)

Product branding

71.

A good report must include:

a)

Summary of results

b)

Defect details

c)

Test coverage

d)

All of the above

72.

Review activities improve:

a)

Development and testing quality

b)

Office interior design

c)

Hardware performance

d)

Social media reach

73.

A walkthrough is usually led by:

a)

Developer

b)

Reviewer

c)

Moderator

d)

Client

74.

Inspection teams typically include:

a)

Analysts, testers, moderators

b)

Government officials

c)

Sales team

d)

End users

75.

Review feedback helps in:

a)

Improving documentation and code

b)

Stopping testing

c)

Increasing cost

d)

Reducing automation

76.

Change request tracking is part of:

a)

SCM

b)

Review system

c)

Test execution

d)

Report writing

77.

Baseline in SCM refers to:

a)

Approved version of a document

b)

Test script

c)

UI sketch

d)

User feedback

78.

Configuration items include:

a)

Source code

b)

Test cases

c)

Requirement documents

d)

All of the above

79.

Monitoring tools are used to:

a)

Track progress and performance

b)

Install OS

c)

Test UI elements only

d)

Improve documentation style

80.

Progress report must include:

a)

Completed tasks

b)

Pending tasks

c)

Issues and risks

d)

All of the above

81.

Test effectiveness can be measured by:

a)

Number of detected defects

b)

Execution speed

c)

Design style

d)

Tester skill

82.

Defect leakage indicates:

a)

Bugs missed in earlier test stages

b)

All bugs detected

c)

Test summary

d)

Customer satisfaction

83.

Metrics collection begins during:

a)

Test execution

b)

Test planning

c)

Deployment

d)

Maintenance

84.

A retrospective meeting is conducted:

a)

After project completion

b)

Before development

c)

During coding

d)

During unit test only

85.

Quality audit ensures:

a)

Process compliance

b)

Product redesign

c)

The UI is aesthetic

d)

Testing stops

86.

Test control decisions are based on:

a)

Metrics and progress

b)

Guesswork

c)

Customer emotions

d)

Team workload alone

87.

Test schedule variance indicates:

a)

Schedule difference from plan

b)

UI changes

c)

Customer opinion

d)

Software size

88.

Milestones act as:

a)

Progress checkpoints

b)

Deployment reports

c)

Test failures

89.

A defect summary report shows:

a)

Defect distribution and status

b)

UI feedback

c)

Sales reports

d)

Security breaches

90.

Which type of review checks compliance to standards?

a)

Formal review

b)

Inspection

c)

Audit

d)

Walkthrough

91.

Control issues may involve:

a)

Lack of resources

b)

Testing delays

c)

Poor communication

d)

All of the above

92.

Testing is considered complete when:

a)

Exit criteria are met

b)

Developer approves

c)

No defects remain

d)

Customer stops calling

93.

A configuration audit ensures:

a)

All approved versions are stored correctly

b)

Automation is removed

c)

Testers debug the code

d)

Deployment stops

94.

Defect priority indicates:

a)

How quickly it should be fixed

b)

Who introduced the error

c)

User impact

d)

Code complexity

95.

Review metrics measure:

a)

Review effort and defect rate

b)

UI theme

c)

Code architecture

d)

Software installation

96.

Monitoring improves:

a)

Control and decision-making

b)

Social marketing

c)

UI animation

d)

Hardware updates

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