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Vaccination and Women's Health Worksheet

Total questions: 135

Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 36‑month‑old child came to the hospital 4 days ago and was given amoxicillin and prednisone for 5 days. He is now due for the MMR vaccine. What should you do?

a)

Give the vaccine now

b)

Wait 1 month because he is taking amoxicillin

c)

Wait 1 month because he is taking prednisone

2.

Which statement regarding tetanus is correct?

a)

Tetanus vaccine increases the activity of diphtheria vaccine

b)

Tetanus vaccine decreases the activity of diphtheria vaccine

c)

Tetanus is exclusively an environmentally borne pathogen

d)

Tetanus is both environmental and a transmitted pathogen

3.

Which vaccine is used for emergency staff?

a)

Meningococcal conjugate vaccine (MCV)

b)

Pneumonia vaccine

4.

A patient has a history of severe HSV. Which vaccine should the patient receive to prevent shingles infection?

a)

Zoster vaccine

b)

Varicella vaccine

c)

MMR vaccine

5.

Which of the following infections is preventable by vaccination?

a)

HIV

b)

Varicella

c)

Brucellosis

d)

Hepatitis C

6.

Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?

a)

Pneumococcal vaccine

b)

Influenza type b vaccine

c)

Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)

d)

Tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis vaccine

7.

A newborn baby is about to be discharged with the mother. Which vaccine is indicated now?

a)

MMR vaccine

b)

Influenza vaccine

c)

Rotavirus vaccine

d)

Hepatitis B vaccine

8.

Vaccination case: He came to receive the MMR vaccine and has a history of taking immunoglobulin for hepatitis A last month. What should be done?

a)

Give immediately

b)

Tomorrow

c)

After 2 months after 6 months

9.

Live and inactivated vaccines: what is the correct administration strategy?

a)

Give at the same time at different sites

b)

Give at the same site at different times

c)

Give at different times at least 4 weeks apart when not coadministered

d)

Never give together under any circumstance

10.

A 20‑year‑old man with deep wounds after a serious road accident has an unknown vaccination history. Which is best to administer now?

a)

Tetanus vaccine

b)

Tetanus immune globulin (TIG)

c)

Tetanus vaccine and tetanus immune globulin

d)

Tetanus vaccine and human papillomavirus vaccine

11.

A 20‑year‑old man had a road accident with minor injuries (no deep wounds). His vaccination history is unknown. What is recommended regarding tetanus vaccination?

a)

No tetanus vaccination is needed

b)

Administer both Td and TIG

c)

Only tetanus vaccination (Td) should be administered

12.

Before 6 weeks post‑surgery, a patient is preparing for discharge. Which vaccine should be given?

a)

Meningitis vaccine

b)

Influenza vaccine

c)

Pneumococcal vaccine

13.

He came to receive the MMR vaccine and has a history of taking immunoglobulin for hepatitis A last month. What should be done?

a)

Give immediately

b)

Tomorrow

c)

After 2 months

d)

After 6 months

14.

A one‑year‑old child previously had immunodeficiency and received IVIG 4 months ago. It is now time for the MMR vaccine. What should be done?

a)

Give the vaccine now

b)

Do not give because he recently took IVIG

c)

Do not give because he has immunodeficiency

15.

Which of the following is the result of a drug interaction between birth control pills and erythromycin?

a)

The effectiveness of erythromycin may increase

b)

The effectiveness of erythromycin may decrease

c)

The effectiveness of the birth control pill may increase

d)

The effectiveness of the birth control pill may decrease

16.

Which medication promotes ripening and dilation of the cervix during labor?

a)

Atosiban

b)

Nitric oxide

c)

Misoprostol

d)

Magnesium sulfate

17.

A pregnant patient develops ductus arteriosus closure. What is the management?

a)

Indomethacin

b)

Alprostadil

c)

Misoprostol

18.

According to FDA pregnancy categories, amoxicillin is category B. What does this mean?

a)

No adequate animal or human studies have been conducted

b)

Controlled human studies show no fetal risks from amoxicillin

c)

Evidence of human fetal risk exists, but benefits may outweigh risks

d)

Animal studies show no risk to the fetus and there are no controlled human studies

19.

Which of the following best describes the content of a monophasic contraceptive?

a)

Constant dose of estrogen

b)

Variable dose of progesterone

c)

Constant dose of estrogen and progesterone

d)

Variable doses of estrogen and progesterone

20.

Which medication promotes ripening and dilation of the cervix during labor?

a)

Atosiban

b)

Nitric oxide

c)

Misoprostol

d)

Magnesium sulfate

21.

Which drug is most likely to pass into mother’s milk due to high lipid solubility?

a)

Diazepam

b)

Methyldopa

c)

Promethazine

d)

Dihydroergotamine

22.

Which of the following is most likely to inhibit lactation?

a)

Prolactin

b)

Progesterone

c)

Growth hormone

d)

Chorionic somatomammotropin

23.

Which hormone is responsible for milk production in the mammary glands?

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Prolactin

c)

Luteinizing hormone

24.

Which of the following reduces the risk of transmission of sexually transmitted diseases?

a)

Spermicide

b)

Oral contraceptive

c)

Intrauterine device

d)

Male latex condom

25.

A 20‑year‑old pregnant woman presents to the emergency department with severe vomiting. Which is the most likely safe drug?

a)

Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)

b)

Ondansetron

c)

Domperidone

d)

Promethazine

26.

Which of the following is an important counseling point for a woman starting fingolimod?

a)

Use effective contraception to avoid pregnancy during treatment and for 2 months after discontinuation

b)

Avoid pregnancy for 6 months after discontinuing treatment

c)

Use effective contraception only during treatment

d)

Fingolimod is safe during pregnancy

27.

A 30‑year‑old woman with a history of deep vein thrombosis treated a year ago wants to use birth control pills. Which contraceptive is best for her?

a)

Levonorgestrel (progestin‑only pill)

b)

Ethinyl estradiol/etonogestrel

c)

Ethinyl estradiol/norethindrone

d)

Ethinyl estradiol/norelgestromin

28.

Which statement describes a drug with pregnancy category A?

a)

Positive evidence of fetal risk

b)

Animal studies indicate no fetal risk

c)

Controlled studies in women fail to show fetal risk

d)

No available fetal risk studies in women or animals

29.

A 20‑year‑old woman is taking birth control pills. Which concurrent drug most likely reduces the efficacy of oral contraceptives?

a)

Rifampin

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Clindamycin

d)

Ciprofloxacin

30.

Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenicity?

a)

Cimetidine

b)

Finasteride

c)

Methyldopa

d)

Metoclopramide

31.

A lactating mother presents with nausea and vomiting. Which agent is most appropriate to give?

a)

Cyclizine

b)

Domperidone

c)

Dimenhydrinate

d)

Levomepromazine

32.

Which of the following drugs is pregnancy category X?

a)

Rituximab

b)

Leflunomide

c)

Ciprofloxacin

d)

Levothyroxine

33.

Which statement best describes oxytocin?

a)

High doses may lead to hypertension

b)

Steady state is reached within 5 to 10 minutes

c)

Uterine hyperstimulation is an associated adverse effect

d)

Higher doses can lead to vasopressin‑receptor–related urinary retention

34.

Which medication is an aromatase inhibitor used for the treatment of breast cancer?

a)

Flutamide

b)

Octreotide

c)

Tamoxifen

d)

Anastrozole

35.

Which statement describes a drug with pregnancy category B?

a)

No available fetal risk studies in women or animals

b)

Controlled studies in women failed to show fetal risk

c)

Animal studies indicate no fetal risk but there are no human data

d)

Positive evidence of fetal risk

36.

Which of the following medications is an anti‑progestin?

a)

Danazol

b)

Tamoxifen

c)

Finasteride

d)

Mifepristone

37.

A 23‑year‑old woman taking finasteride wishes to conceive. Why should finasteride be discontinued?

a)

It is teratogenic

b)

It is abortifacient

38.

Which of the following is a statement that describes a drug with pregnancy category X?

a)

Animal studies indicate no fetal risk

b)

No available fetal risk studies in women or animals

c)

Positive evidence of fetal risk; benefits outweigh the fetal risks

d)

Definite fetal risk in animals and humans of teratogenicity; fetal risks outweigh the benefits

39.

Which of the following vitamins is contraindicated in high doses during pregnancy?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin B6

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Vitamin B12

40.

Which property of nicotine is attributed to abortions?

a)

it is a vasodilator

b)

it is a potent vasoconstrictor

c)

it reduces uterine blood flow

d)

it reduces vascular uterine resistance

41.

A lactating mother comes to the emergency department complaining of nausea and vomiting. Which of the following agents is most appropriate to give?

a)

cyclizine

b)

domperidone

c)

dimenhydrinate

d)

levomepromazine

42.

An experiment on unknown drugs D-1, D-2, D-3 and D-4 shows the following: D-1 low lipid solubility; D-2 high molecular weight; D-3 low degree of plasma protein binding; D-4 weak acidity. Which of the following is most likely to be excreted in breast milk?

a)

D-1

b)

D-2

c)

D-3

d)

D-4

43.

Treatment of eclampsia?

a)

MgSO4

b)

diazepam

c)

labetalol

d)

nifedipine

44.

A pregnant woman with hypothyroidism takes levothyroxine and starts feeling fatigue. What is the most appropriate action?

a)

double dose

b)

discontinued

c)

refer to doctor to adjust dose according TSH

d)

continue use the same dose

45.

Woman positive hCG: which of the following drugs can be used?

a)

Levothyroxine

b)

Isotretinoin

c)

Warfarin

d)

Valproate

46.

Drug passes to mother’s milk due to which property?

a)

high lipid solubility

b)

low lipid solubility

47.

Pregnant with nausea and vomiting: which is most appropriate?

a)

cyclizine + pyridoxine

b)

pyridoxin

c)

diphenhydramine

d)

oxytocin

48.

Which contraceptive has high dose of estrogen and is contraindicated in women with DVT?

a)

Transdermal patch

b)

IUD

c)

Oral contraceptive pill

d)

Rings

49.

Warfarin is contraindicated in pregnancy because it causes which of the following?

a)

Growth restriction

b)

Genital abnormality

c)

Congenital heart diseases

d)

Craniofacial morphology defects

50.

When should Fingolimod be stopped for pregnancy?

a)

Before 2 months

b)

6 months safe for pregnancy

c)

Before 6 months

51.

Statin woman positive hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin): which medication is appropriate for her?

a)

warfarin

b)

isotretinoin

c)

tetracycline

d)

levofloxacin

52.

Which is contraindicated in pregnancy or lactation?

a)

Doxycycline

b)

Acyclovir

c)

Meloxicam

d)

Piroxicam

53.

Which contraceptive pills reduce lactation?

a)

progesterone

b)

estrogen

c)

combined

54.

What is the more effective method to prevent pregnancy?

a)

Oral contraceptives

b)

Latex condoms

c)

Spermicides

d)

Intrauterine device

55.

Antidepressants have teratogenicity effect on pregnant women: which class is implicated?

a)

SNRIs

b)

SSRIs

c)

MAOIs

d)

TCAs

56.

Which of the following committees is responsible for requests of removing a drug from the hospital formulary?

a)

Hospital Patient Safety

b)

Mortality and Morbidity

c)

Hospital Clinical Research

d)

Pharmacy and Therapeutic

57.

A physician prescribed heparin at a dose of 75 units/kg every six hours for a child weighing 15 kg. Heparin is available in a 2.5 ml vial containing 12,500 units. How many milliliters of heparin solution would be administered every day?

a)

0.5 mL

b)

0.9 mL

c)

1.5 mL

d)

1.8 mL

58.

A dermatologist prescribes hydrocortisone 1.5% w/w, cream base to make 50 g. The pharmacist has two strengths of hydrocortisone creams: 2.5% and 1%. Which of the following is the weight ratio of the two strengths that should be mixed to prepare the 1.5% cream?

a)

1:2

b)

2:1

c)

3:1

d)

5:1

59.

A pharmacist must extemporaneously prepare moxifloxacin oral suspension from 400 mg tablets at a concentration of 20 mg/mL with a total volume of 60 mL. How many 400 mg tablets are needed?

a)

2 tablets

b)

3 tablets

c)

4 tablets

d)

6 tablets

60.

Drug X has an infusion rate of 0.95 mg/kg/hr. What is the total amount of drug X (in mg) needed for a 12‑hr infusion if the patient’s weight is 70 kg?

a)

65 mg

b)

84 mg

c)

665 mg

d)

798 mg

61.

A patient is to receive 1 mg of hydromorphone hydrochloride injection for pain. Hydromorphone hydrochloride is available as 50 mg in a 50 mL vial. How many milliliters must be injected?

a)

0.1 mL

b)

0.5 mL

c)

1.0 mL

d)

2.0 mL

62.

A solution contains 2.5 mg of a drug per milliliter and is to be administered at a rate of 50 mg/hr (1 mL = 30 drops). Which of the following is the most appropriate infusion rate?

a)

5 drops/min

b)

10 drops/min

c)

20 drops/min

d)

40 drops/min

63.

A 2.5% intravenous drug is infused at a rate of 1.5 mL/min. What is the amount of the drug (in mg) infused in each hour?

a)

25 mg

b)

225 mg

c)

2000 mg

d)

2250 mg

64.

A technician is preparing 250 mL of 70% (w/v) dextrose solution. What is the total amount of dextrose (in grams) in the final preparation?

a)

125 g

b)

150 g

c)

175 g

d)

200 g

65.

How many milliliters of paracetamol syrup of 120 mg/5 mL strength could be prepared using 1.8 kg of paracetamol as active ingredient?

a)

15,000 mL

b)

30,000 mL

c)

50,000 mL

d)

75,000 mL

66.

What is the percentage w/w of a 10 mL vial that contains 50 mEq of ammonium chloride per 1 mL if 1 mEq of ammonium chloride equals 0.0535 g?

a)

0.535

b)

2.675

c)

5.350

d)

26.750

67.

One folic acid tablet contains 400 mcg of folic acid as an active ingredient. How many tablets would be required for the preparation of 30 grams of folic acid?

a)

5000 tablets

b)

7500 tablets

c)

50000 tablets

d)

75000 tablets

68.

A drug has a clearance value of 4.75 L/hour4.75\ \text{L/hour} and 65%65\% is cleared by renal excretion. Which of the following would be the non-renal clearance value?

a)

1.25 L/hrs

b)

1.66 L/hrs

c)

1.90 L/hrs

d)

2.05 L/hrs

69.

A patient is to receive 400 mL400\ \text{mL} intravenous infusion of a 1%1\% drug that will be over 1010 hours. Which of the following is the amount (milligrams) of the drug that will be delivered in 1515 minutes?

a)

100 mg

b)

150 mg

c)

200 mg

d)

400 mg

70.

Penicillin-G potassium is available in 50 mL50\ \text{mL} vial containing 20 gram20\ \text{gram} . Each milligram of penicillin-G potassium is equal to 15001500 units. How many units of penicillin G potassium are there in each vial?

a)

15,000,000

b)

20,000,000

c)

25,000,000

d)

30,000,000

71.

A physician prescribes, for a 6-year-old child 10 mg10\ \text{mg} , omeprazole daily for seven days as a syrup formulation. Omeprazole capsules strength are available in the pharmacy is 10 mg10\ \text{mg} . Which of the following is the number of capsules required to make to suffice the total doses in the prescription if the final concentration syrup should be 2 mg/mL2\ \text{mg/mL} ?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7

72.

A 35-year-old individual is receiving 20 mg20\ \text{mg} of propranolol hydro four times daily as a prophylaxis to migraine attacks. The drug 25%25\% bioavailability due to extensive first pass effect. What amount of the drug reaches the systemic circulation after dosing?

a)

2.5 mg

b)

5.0 mg

c)

7.5 mg

d)

10 mg

73.

A child weighing 25 kg25\ \text{kg} is prescribed acetazolamide 2.5 mg/kg2.5\ \text{mg/kg} every 1212 hours. Acetazolamide is available in a liquid dosage form with strength of 25 mg/mL25\ \text{mg/mL} . How many milliliters would the patient be administered per dose?

a)

2.5

b)

5.0

c)

7.5

d)

10.0

74.

The diclofenac sodium suppository is prepared according to the following formula: Diclofenac sodium; Triglyceride base to make. How many grams of diclofenac sodium should be used to prepare 24002400 suppositories?

a)

120

b)

240

c)

480

d)

600

75.

Which of the following is the amount of dextrose (in grams) that is present in 100 mL100\ \text{mL} of 10%10\% dextrose solution?

a)

1.0

b)

10

c)

100

d)

1000

76.

A 4-year-old boy is admitted with dehydration. He is started on dextrose 5%5\% and normal saline with 4040 milliequivalent potassium chloride per liter at a rate of 40 mL40\ \text{mL} per hour; weight is 16 kilograms16\ \text{kilograms} . How much potassium chloride (in milliequivalent) per kilograms per day is he receiving?

a)

2.4

b)

3.6

c)

4.5

d)

6.0

77.

Which of the following is the percentage ( %\% ) strength of ketorolac tromethamine in an ophthalmic solution if 200 micrograms200\ \text{micrograms} of the drug are present in 50 microliters50\ \text{microliters} of the solution?

a)

0.25

b)

0.40

c)

0.50

d)

0.80

78.

A 10 mL10\ \text{mL} vial contains 1 gm1\ \text{gm} of clindamycin hydrochloride. Each milligram of clindamycin hydrochloride is equivalent to 800800 micrograms (mcg) of clindamycin. How much clindamycin in micrograms (mcg) is present in 3 mL3\ \text{mL} solution?

a)

240

b)

2,400

c)

24,000

d)

240,000

79.

A solution contains 27 mg27\ \text{mg} of antipyrine per 500 microliter500\ \text{microliter} . How many grams of antipyrine are there in 3 mL3\ \text{mL} of the solution?

a)

0.162 gm

b)

0.272 gm

c)

1.62 gm

d)

7.0 gm

80.

A 4.5-year-old girl weights 16 kilograms16\ \text{kilograms} and is 95 centimeters95\ \text{centimeters} tall. Which of the following is her body surface area in squared meter ( m2\text{m}^2 )?

a)

0.4

b)

0.5

c)

0.6

d)

0.9

81.

The following prescription is received in a hospital pharmacy: Losartan 25 mg25\ \text{mg} . Sig: Take 1 tab BID ×\times 3 weeks. Which of the following instructions will be on the prescription label?

a)

Take 1 tablet once daily (21 tablets)

b)

Take 1 tablet once daily (42 tablets)

c)

Take 1 tablet twice daily (42 tablets)

d)

Take 2 tablets twice daily (48 tablets)

82.

How many milliliters are there in one table spoonful in a metric system?

a)

2.5 mL

b)

5.0 mL

c)

10 mL

d)

15 mL

83.

A solution contains 2.5 mg2.5\ \text{mg} of a drug per milliliter. The drug is to be administered at a rate of 50 mg/hr50\ \text{mg/hr} , (1 mL 30 drops). Which of the following is the most appropriate infusion rate?

a)

5 drops/min

b)

10 drops/min

c)

20 drops/min

d)

40 drops/min

84.

A patient is to receive two drops of deamethasone four times daily. The deamethasone is available as 0.15%0.15\% solution in a 5 mL5\ \text{mL} bottle with a dropper calibrated to deliver 1616 drops per mL. How many days will the bottle last?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

10

85.

What is the specific gravity of a liquid if 121.92 mL121.92\ \text{mL} of its weight is 107.56 g107.56\ \text{g} ?

a)

0.882

b)

1.885

c)

2.835

d)

8.8225

86.

A physician prescribed 50005000 units of heparin twice daily for five days. Heparin is available in a vial containing 20,00020{,}000 units/mL. How many milliliters should be given for each dose?

a)

0.25

b)

0.50

c)

0.75

d)

1.50

87.

A solution contains 5 gm5\ \text{gm} of drug per 25 mL25\ \text{mL} . Which of the following is the concentration, in mg/mL of the drug?

a)

50 mg/mL

b)

100 mg/mL

c)

200 mg/mL

d)

400 mg/mL

88.

A 20-year-old boy who weighs 10 kg10\ \text{kg} is prescribed Drug X as 1 mg/kg/hour1\ \text{mg/kg/hour} infusion. The pharmacy prepared the prescription by diluting 5 mL5\ \text{mL} of 25 mg/mL25\ \text{mg/mL} concentration to 100 mL100\ \text{mL} with normal saline. Which of the following is the rate of infusion (in mL/hour)?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

89.

A drug has a total body clearance of 2.5 L/hr2.5\ \text{L/hr} . Its hepatic metabolism accounts for 25%25\% during less blood perfusion and 40%40\% when blood perfusion is higher to the liver. What will be the hepatic clearance value in fed state of stomach?

a)

0.50 L/hr

b)

0.75 L/hr

c)

1.00 L/hr

d)

1.50 L/hr

90.

A physician ordered Labetalol hydrochloride intravenous infusion at a close of 500 micrograms/min500\ \text{micrograms/min} over an hour for a hypertensive patient. Labetalol hydrochloride is available in a 20 mL20\ \text{mL} vial containing 5 mg/mL5\ \text{mg/mL} of the drug. Which of the following is the amount (in milliliters) of labetalol hydrochloride solution that should be administered?

a)

4.5

b)

6

c)

7.5

d)

9

91.

An ointment was prepared by incorporating 15 g15\ \text{g} of a drug into 150 g150\ \text{g} of petrolatum. What would be the concentration of the drug in the ointment?

a)

0.91%

b)

1.0%

c)

10.0%

d)

100.0%

92.

A 2.5%2.5\% intravenous drug is infused at a rate of 1.5 mL/min1.5\ \text{mL/min} . Which of the amount of the drug (in mg) that is infused in each hour?

a)

25

b)

225

c)

2000

d)

2250

93.

If a pharmacist has a stock solution of D5W and D50W, How many milliliters from each solution will need in order to prepare a 450 mL450\ \text{mL} of D15W solution?

a)

D50W/D5W = 100/350

b)

D50W/D5W = 150/300

c)

D50W/D5W = 250/200

d)

D50W/D5W = 50/400

94.

How much 5%5\% w/v solution would be required to prepare 60 mL60\ \text{mL} of 0.5%0.5\% w/v solution?

a)

6 mL

b)

10 mL

c)

15 mL

d)

20 mL

95.

The pharmacy receives a prescription for labetalol 800 mg800\ \text{mg} twice daily for three days. The available strength of labetalol in the pharmacy is 200 mg200\ \text{mg} . Which of the following is the number of 200 mg200\ \text{mg} labetalol tablet needed to prepare the above prescriptions for the total duration?

a)

8

b)

12

c)

16

d)

24

96.

A drug vial contains 0.2%0.2\% of drug X. Which of the following is the amount of the drug (in mg) in a 5 mL5\ \text{mL} dose?

a)

0.1

b)

1

c)

10

d)

100

97.

A patient is to receive 25 mg25\ \text{mg} of dextromethorphan four times daily for cough. The pharmacist dispensed two 125 mL125\ \text{mL} bottles containing 10 mg10\ \text{mg} of dextromethorphan per 5 mL5\ \text{mL} . How many days will the two bottles last?

a)

3 days

b)

5 days

c)

7 days

d)

10 days

98.

A hospitalized patient with hypertension is prescribed nicardipine hydrochloride intravenous infusion at a dose of 5 mg5\ \text{mg} per hour for four hours. Nicardipine hydrochloride is available as a 10 mL10\ \text{mL} vial containing 25 mg25\ \text{mg} of nicardipine hydrochloride. How many milliliters of nicardipine should be used?

a)

2.5

b)

4.0

c)

8.0

d)

10.0

99.

A 100 mL100\ \text{mL} infusion bottle contains 2%2\% of potassium chloride (KCl). (Mol wt/valence 74.674.6 ). Which of the following is the most likely amount of KCl present in the infusion bottle?

a)

12.7 mEq

b)

20 mEq

c)

26.8 mEq

d)

78.5 mEq

100.

Heparin is prepared in a piper-bag which contains 25,00025{,}000 units in 250 mL250\ \text{mL} . How many milliliters of heparin per hour must be given to a 7070 -kilogram male patient if infusion rate is 1010 units/kg/hour?

a)

5 mL/hr

b)

7 mL/hr

c)

8 mL/hr

d)

10 mL/hr

101.

What is the weight of 60 mL of olive oil (density 0.92 g/mL)?

a)

34.66 gm

b)

55.20 gm

c)

65.30 gm

d)

65.68 gm

102.

How many grams of water are needed to make 100 grams100\ \text{grams} of 5%5\% (w/w) solution of potassium acetate?

a)

5 g

b)

35 g

c)

95 g

d)

140 g

103.

A patient is prescribed 0.25% alcaftadine ophthalmic solution, one drop for each eye per day. Alcaftadine is available in a 3 ml bottle and one ml contains 14 drops. How many days will the bottle last?

a)

6

b)

13

c)

17

d)

21

104.

A 500 ml infusion bottle contains 11.72 g of potassium chloride (KCl). The molecular weight of KCl is 74.6 grams. Which of the following is the amount of KCl, in milliequivalent (mEq), present in the bottle?

a)

0.637 mEq

b)

6.37 mEq

c)

11.72 mEq

d)

157.1 mEq

105.

A 65‑year‑old man (weight = 70 kg) with acute decompensated heart failure is to be started on dobutamine 5 μg/kg/min. The infusion bag contains dobutamine 150 mg in 100 ml of 0.9% sodium chloride. He has normal renal function. Which of the following is the rate of infusion of dobutamine?

a)

0.25 ml/hour

b)

1.3 ml/hour

c)

14 ml/hour

d)

21 ml/hour

106.

A 6‑year‑old HIV‑infected boy measuring 0.9 m^2 is to receive nevirapine 140 mg/m2140 \text{ mg/m}^2 two times daily. Nevirapine is available as 50 mg/5 ml50 \text{ mg/5 ml} suspension. How many milliliters of nevirapine suspension would be administered per dose?

a)

6.3 ml

b)

12.6 ml

c)

14.0 ml

d)

16.5 ml

107.

A patient is to receive 750 ml 5% dextrose over five hours. The intravenous infusion set delivers 20 drops/ml. Which of the following is the flow rate in ml/min to deliver the prescribed volume?

a)

1.5

b)

2.0

c)

2.5

d)

3.0

108.

A pharmacist calculates a dose of 500 μg/min for continuous infusion of dopamine based on the patient’s weight. The concentration of a premixed dopamine infusion is 400 mg/250 ml. What is the most likely amount of dopamine in ml received by the patient in the first hour of treatment?

a)

10 ml

b)

19 ml

c)

24 ml

d)

28 ml

109.

A drug was given to a patient with a constant intravenous infusion rate of 10 mg/hour. The half‑life of the drug is three hours. Which of the following is the time in hours to reach steady‑state plasma concentration?

a)

10

b)

15

c)

20

d)

30

110.

A syrup is 70% w/v solution of sucrose in water. How much sucrose is required to prepare 500 ml of this syrup?

a)

250 g

b)

300 g

c)

350 g

d)

400 g

111.

Lidocaine is commonly administered for patients exhibiting cardiac arrhythmias. Lidocaine pharmacokinetic parameters are as follows: half‑life = 2 hours, clearance = 9 ml/min/kg, and volume of distribution = 70 L. Which of the following is the time (in hours) needed to achieve 87.5% of the steady‑state concentration in a 70‑kg individual?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

112.

A 9‑year‑old child weighing 36 kg came to the clinic with chickenpox. The physician prescribed acyclovir at a dose of 20 mg/kg four times a day for five days. Acyclovir is available as 200 mg/5 ml oral suspension. How many milliliters of suspension should be dispensed?

a)

240 ml

b)

320 ml

c)

360 ml

d)

500 ml

113.

How many grams of dextrose are in a 250 ml bag of 10% dextrose?

a)

12.5 g

b)

25 g

c)

50 g

d)

100 g

114.

A water sample contains 9 ppm of magnesium. Which of the following is the percentage of magnesium in this sample?

a)

0.9%

b)

0.09%

c)

0.009%

d)

0.0009%

115.

Using the following table from a bioavailability study of an antibiotic drug: IV solution dose 0.20.2 mg/kg with cumulative urinary drug excretion 0–72 h of 2020 ; oral solution dose 44 mg/kg with excretion 380380 ; oral tablet dose 44 mg/kg with excretion 340340 ; and oral tablet dose 44 mg/kg with excretion 360360 . Which of the following is the absolute bioavailability of the tablet dose?

a)

80%

b)

85%

c)

90%

d)

95%

116.

Which of the following is the expected bioavailability (F) of drugs given by the intravenous route?

a)

Less than 25%

b)

25%–50%

c)

75%–100%

d)

100%

117.

A patient presents a prescription with the following antiviral regimen: start with 50 mg then decrease by 10 mg every 2 days until finished. Which of the following quantities of 5 mg tablets is needed to fill this prescription?

a)

20

b)

30

c)

40

d)

60

118.

Which of the following is the calculation of the apparent volume of distribution if the patient received 400 mg of intravenous medication that produced immediate blood concentration of 10μg/ml10\,\mu\text{g}/\text{ml} ?

a)

0.025 L

b)

0.4 L

c)

25 L

d)

40 L

119.

A solution contains 2.5 mg of a drug per milliliter. The drug is to be administered at a rate of 50 mg/hr. (1 ml = 30 drops). Which of the following is the most appropriate infusion rate?

a)

5 drops/min

b)

10 drops/min

c)

20 drops/min

d)

40 drops/min

120.

A 20 ml vial of penicillin‑G potassium containing 2,000,000 units is available. Each mg of the drug is equivalent to 1600 units. How many milligrams of penicillin‑G potassium are there in one ml of the solution?

a)

12.50 mg

b)

62.50 mg

c)

160 mg

d)

1250 mg

121.

A drug vial contains 0.2% of drug X. Which of the following is the amount of the drug X (in mg) in a 10 ml dose?

a)

0.1 mg

b)

1 mg

c)

10 mg

d)

20 mg

122.

The vitamin D solution is available in a 2.5 ml bottle containing 36,000 international units. The recommended daily dose for children is 400 international units. Each ml of vitamin D solution contains 36 drops. How many drops should be administered to a child per day?

a)

1 drop

b)

2 drops

c)

4 drops

d)

12 drops

123.

A pharmacist adds 2 g of potassium chloride to 1 L of D5W/1/2 normal saline. Atomic weights (Sodium 23, Potassium 39, Chloride 35.5, Dextrose 198). Which of the following is the most likely osmolality of the solution assuming the final volume as 1 L?

a)

54 mosm/L

b)

300 mosm/L

c)

405 mosm/L

d)

460 mosm/L

124.

A budesonide inhaler delivers 200 puffs and each puff contains 100 micrograms of the drug. Which of the following is the amount (in milligrams) of total budesonide present in the inhaler?

a)

10 mg

b)

20 mg

c)

10,000 mg

d)

20,000 mg

125.

A 500 ml infusion bottle contains 11.72 g of potassium chloride (KCl). The molecular weight of KCl is 74.6 grams. Which of the following is the amount of KCl in milliequivalent (mEq) present in the bottle?

a)

0.637 mEq

b)

6.37 mEq

c)

11.72 mEq

d)

157.1 mEq

126.

A 500‑mg dose of aspirin was given intravenously to a patient and produced an initial plasma concentration of 100 mg/L. If the half‑life of the drug is 6.93 hours, what was the total body clearance?

a)

50 liters/hour

b)

10 liters/hour

c)

5 liters/hour

d)

0.5 liters/hour

127.

How many grams of 5% diclofenac cream should be mixed with 100 g of 1% cream to make 2.5% diclofenac cream?

a)

30 g

b)

60 g

c)

90 g

d)

120 g

128.

If multivitamin syrup contains 150 IU of vitamin A in each milliliter, which of the following quantities of international units of vitamin A would be provided by 1 teaspoonful?

a)

500 IU

b)

750 IU

c)

1000 IU

d)

2250 IU

129.

Penicillin‑G potassium is available in a 50 ml vial containing 20 grams. Each milligram of penicillin‑G potassium is equal to 1500 units. How many units of penicillin‑G potassium are there in each vial?

a)

15,000,000

b)

20,000,000

c)

25,000,000

d)

30,000,000

130.

A physician ordered labetalol hydrochloride intravenous infusion at a dose of 500 micrograms/min over an hour for a hypertensive patient. Labetalol hydrochloride is available in a 20 ml vial containing 5 mg/ml. Which of the following is the amount (in milliliters) of labetalol hydrochloride solution that should be administered?

a)

4.5 ml

b)

6 ml

c)

7.5 ml

d)

10 ml

131.

A solution contains 448 mg of KCl (MW = 74.5) and 468 mg of NaCl (MW = 58.5) in 500 ml. Which of the following is the osmolar concentration of this solution?

a)

0.055 osmol/L

b)

0.056 osmol/L

c)

1.556 osmol/L

d)

2.556 osmol/L

132.

A 250 mg aliquot of 2.5% aminophylline hydrochloride is to be diluted with 5% dextrose to obtain a drug concentration of 1 mg/ml. How many milliliters of 5% dextrose should be used?

a)

60 ml

b)

240 ml

c)

260 ml

d)

250 ml

133.

A drug vial contains 0.4% of drug X. Which of the following is the amount of the drug X (in mg) in a 5 ml dose?

a)

0.2 mg

b)

2 mg

c)

20 mg

d)

200 mg

134.

A patient is prescribed 1.25 mg of paclitaxel by intravenous infusion. Paclitaxel is added to 5% dextrose solution. The infusion was given over two hours. Which of the following is the infusion rate?

a)

0.75 ml/min

b)

1.25 ml/min

c)

1.50 ml/min

d)

2.50 ml/min

135.

An oral elixir contains 5 mg of drug per ml. Which of the following is the amount of the drug (in micrograms) in one teaspoonful?

a)

5000 μg

b)

10,000 μg

c)

20,000 μg

d)

25,000 μg