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Worksheets

ECG CH 9 & 10 Wayground Review

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Where are the ventricular pacemaker cells found?

a)

At the SA node

b)

At the Purkinje fibers

c)

At the AV node

d)

At the bundle of His

2.

What is the inherent rate of the Purkinje network?

a)

100 to 150 bpm

b)

60 to 100 bpm

c)

20 to 40 bpm

d)

40 to 60 bpm

3.

In all ventricular dysrhythmias, which of the following qualities describes P-P intervals?

a)

Biphasic

b)

Missing

c)

Regular

d)

Irregular

4.

QRS complexes that measure 0.12 seconds (120 ms) or greater and a heart rate between 20 and 40 bpm indicate that the impulses causing ventricular depolarization are coming from which location?

a)

Purkinje fibers

b)

Interatrial pathways

c)

SA node

d)

AV node

5.

What is the term for ventricular rhythms that originate in the Purkinje network?

a)

Junctional escape rhythms

b)

Ventricular escape rhythms

c)

Asystole rhythms

d)

Agonal rhythms

6.

Why do ventricular rhythms occur?

a)

Because the rate impulses from the SA node are too fast for ventricular response

b)

Because higher pacemaker sites within the heart have failed

c)

Because the ventricular impulses are stronger than the atrial impulses

d)

Because a first-degree AV block prevents atrial impulses from reaching the ventricles

7.

What is the typical heart rate with accelerated idioventricular rhythm?

a)

Less than 20 bpm

b)

20 to 40 bpm

c)

40 to 100 bpm

d)

100 to 150 bpm

8.

What percentage of patients with ventricular tachycardia become unconscious immediately?

a)

10%

b)

30%

c)

50%

d)

75%

9.

Which of the following statements about PVCs is true?

a)

PVCs can only originate from one site in the ventricles.

b)

PVCs may be unifocal or multifocal in origin.

c)

PVCs will not lead to ventricular tachycardia.

d)

PVCs never have an effect on the conduction of normal impulses.

10.

Which of the following rhythms does NOT necessarily require immediate emergency interventions?

a)

Asystole

b)

Ventricular fibrillation

c)

Ventricular tachycardia

d)

Premature ventricular complexes

11.

What is the term for PVCs that occur during the normal R-R interval and do not interrupt the normal cycle?

a)

Occasional PVCs

b)

Interpolated PVCs

c)

Coupling

d)

Frequent PVCs

12.

What is it called when more than six PVCs occur per minute?

a)

Occasional PVCs

b)

Ventricular tachycardia

c)

Ventricular fibrillation

d)

Frequent PVCs

13.

What is the cause of agonal rhythms?

a)

Failure of the SA node

b)

Failure of all pacemakers of the heart

c)

Blocked conduction at the AV node

d)

Loose electrode wires

14.

Which ventricular dysrhythmia has a heart rate between 20 and 40 bpm?

a)

Asystole

b)

Agonal rhythm

c)

Accelerated idioventricular rhythm

d)

Idioventricular rhythm

15.

What is the primary difference between idioventricular rhythm and accelerated idioventricular rhythm?

a)

Heart rate

b)

QRS complex

c)

P wave

d)

R-R interval

16.

In which ventricular dysrhythmia do three or more PVCs occur in a row with a ventricular rate greater than 100 bpm?

a)

Ventricular tachycardia

b)

Ventricular fibrillation

c)

Accelerated idioventricular rhythm

d)

SVT

17.

Which of these terms applies specifically to PVCs that occur in varied shapes and forms?

a)

Unifocal PVCs

b)

Interpolated PVCs

c)

Multifocal PVCs

d)

Bigeminy PVCs

18.

How is ventricular fibrillation typically described?

a)

Wide and bizarre rhythm

b)

Organized rhythm

c)

Absence of rhythm

d)

Chaotic, asynchronous rhythm

19.

Which of the following is an ectopic impulse that occurs early in the cycle and originates from the ventricles?

a)

PAC

b)

PJC

c)

SVT

d)

PVC

20.

Which of the following signs and symptoms are characteristic of every patient experiencing ventricular fibrillation?

a)

Unconsciousness, apneic, and pulseless

b)

Dizziness, chest pain, and cough

c)

Talkativeness, hypertension, and tachycardia

d)

Shortness of breath, hypotension, and bradycardia

21.

What is the difference between ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation?

a)

Ventricular tachycardia has three or more PVCs and a heart rate greater than 100 bpm; ventricular fibrillation is chaotic electrical activity with only fibrillatory waves.

b)

Ventricular tachycardia has three or more PVCs and a heart rate greater than 100 bpm; ventricular fibrillation has no P wave and an early QRS complex that is wide and bizarre in appearance.

c)

Ventricular fibrillation is chaotic in appearance; ventricular tachycardia has an absence of P waves, a heart rate of 40-100 bpm, and a wide and bizarre QRS complex.

d)

Ventricular fibrillation is chaotic electrical activity with only fibrillatory waves; ventricular tachycardia has an absence of P waves, a heart rate less than 20 bpm, and wide and bizarre QRS complexes.

22.

Which ventricular dysrhythmia is sometimes referred to as "straight-line" or "flat-line"?

a)

Agonal

b)

Sinus bradycardia

c)

Asystole

d)

Ventricular fibrillation

23.

Which ventricular dysrhythmia has a heart rate less than 20 bpm?

a)

Ventricular fibrillation

b)

Idioventricular rhythm

c)

Asystole

d)

Agonal rhythm

24.

Which of the following statements about agonal rhythm and asystole is FALSE?

a)

Both rhythms demonstrate mild bradycardic arrhythmias

b)

Both rhythms are life threatening and require basic and advanced life support

c)

Both rhythms have an absence of P waves

d)

In both rhythms, the patient will be unconscious

25.

What is the term for two PVCs back to back?

a)

Bigeminy

b)

Coupling

c)

Frequent PVCs

d)

Occasional PVCs

26.

What symptoms would a patient in asystole exhibit?

a)

Difficulty breathing and bradycardia

b)

Unconsciousness and apnea

c)

Chest pains and palpitations

d)

Alert and oriented

27.

Which of the following is absent with apnea?

a)

Pulse

b)

Electrical activity

c)

Blood pressure

d)

Breathing

28.

In which ventricular dysrhythmia do the ventricle walls quiver, preventing any movement of blood out of the ventricles and resulting in no cardiac output?

a)

Ventricular tachycardia

b)

Ventricular flutter

c)

Supraventriculartachycardia

d)

Ventricular fibrillation

29.

Which of the following is a characteristic of an idioventricular rhythm?

a)

Heart rate of 40 to 100 bpm

b)

Wide QRS complexes

c)

Upright P waves

d)

Constant P–R intervals

30.

What is the term for a PVC that occurs on the T wave or during the vulnerable period of the ventricular refractory period?

a)

Trigeminy

b)

T-on-R PVC

c)

Bigeminy

d)

R-on-T PVC

31.

Choose the correct responses.

32.

Which is the right atrium?

33.

Click on the:

right ventricle

34.

You are recording an ECG; a portion of the tracing is shown here. Your patient is pale and tells

you that she is a little dizzy. Which of the following is the least likely reason for the tracing?

a)

Poorly attached or dried-out electrodes

b)

Excessive patient movement

c)

Broken lead wires

d)

Ventricular fibrillation

35.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the R-R interval in an idioventricular rhythm?

a)

It depends on the pattern of PVCs.

b)

It is regular.

c)

It is usually irregular due to ectopic beats.

d)

It cannot be determined.

36.

You have been asked to perform an ECG on a hospital patient who was admitted to the cardiac

care unit this morning. When you review the ECG tracing from the emergency department

before the patient was admitted, you notice that the patient had an idioventricular rhythm. As

you prepare to enter the patient's room, you will not be surprised to find the patient in what

state?

a)

Unconscious

b)

Alert and oriented

c)

Hypertensive

d)

Combative

37.

In accelerated idioventricular rhythm, how do the QRS complexes appear?

a)

They have a classic wide and bizarre appearance.

b)

They cannot be distinguished because the heart rate is too rapid.

c)

They fall within the normal range of 0.12 to 0.20 seconds due to the heart rate.

d)

They are irregular because of multifocal ventricular impulses.

38.

What is the condition in which impulses generated in the atria are delayed because of damage

in the ventricular electrical pathways?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

First-degree AV block

c)

Bundle branch block

d)

Idioventricular rhythm

39.

Which of the following rhythms might a patient be able to tolerate without signs of low cardiac

output?

a)

Ventricular fibrillation

b)

Accelerated idioventricular rhythm

c)

Idioventricular rhythm

d)

Ventricular tachycardia

40.

Accelerated idioventricular rhythm

36

a)

Ventricular tachycardia

b)

Ventricular fibrillation

c)

Idioventricular rhythm

d)

Accelerated idioventricular rhythm

41.

An accident victim is being treated in the emergency department. A friend who was present at

the time of the accident is in the patient's cubicle when the patient’s ECG monitor sounds an

alarm and shows a flat-line pattern. The patient's friend becomes frantic. What should you do?

a)

Calmly escort the patient's friend out of the immediate area.

b)

Tell the patient's friend to get out of the way so the medical team can work

c)

Tell the patient's friend to go to the desk and ask that the physician be notified.

d)

Ask the patient's friend to begin CPR while you get the emergency cart.

42.

In a right bundle branch block (RBBB), how does the QRS appear?

a)

Taller and deeper than normal

b)

Positively deflected

c)

Negatively deflected

d)

Normal in length

43.

What is the ventricular rate in asystole?

(a)  

44.

Where can right and left bundle branch blocks be differentiated?

a)

In the bipolar leads

b)

In the limb leads

c)

In the precordial leads

d)

In the augmented leads

45.

To rule out fine ventricular fibrillation, asystole must be confirmed in at least how many leads?

(a)  

46.

The patient on which you are about to perform an ECG tells you that she sometimes feels an

occasional "thumping" in her chest. Which of the following might you expect to see on the ECG

tracing?

a)

Ventricular tachycardia

b)

Idioventricular rhythm

c)

Ventricular fibrillation

d)

Premature ventricular complexes

47.

Why can't the atrial rate be determined in idioventricular rhythms?

a)

The wide and bizarre QRS complex masks the P waves.

b)

Atrial depolarization is absent.

c)

The atrial rate is too irregular to be determined.

d)

The P waves are buried in the QRS complexes.

48.

What happens when one or both of the ventricular pathways are not functioning properly due

to damage or a delay from cardiac disease, drugs, or other conditions?

a)

The patient never experiences PVCs

b)

A bundle branch block occurs

c)

An idioventricular rhythm occurs

d)

A second degree AV heart block, type I occurs

49.

What additional patient information is needed on the ECG tracing when a bundle branch block

is discovered?

a)

Patient’s symptoms

b)

Patient’s cardiac history

c)

Patient’s blood pressure reading

d)

Patient’s underlying rhythm

50.

A bundle branch block must be considered when the QRS complex measures what length?

a)

0.06 to 0.10 seconds

b)

Less than 0.06 seconds

c)

Greater than 0.12 seconds or 120 milliseconds

d)

0.04 to 0.08 seconds

51.

A patient’s dysrhythmia originates from above the ventricles and you notice QRS complexes on

the ECG tracing measuring 0.12 second or greater. What could be the cause of this abnormal

morphology?

a)

Supraventriculartachycardia

b)

Bundle branch block

c)

Third-degree AV block

d)

Atrial fibrillation

52.

How is a right bundle branch block (RBBB) distinguished from a left bundle branch block

(LBBB)?

a)

Monitor lead V1. If the majority of the ventricular depolarization is positively deflected,

it is LBBB; if the QRS is negative, it is RBBB

b)

Monitor leads V1 to V6 and measure the PR interval

c)

Monitor lead V1. If the majority of the ventricular depolarization is positively deflected,

it is RBBB; if the QRS is negative, it is LBBB

d)

Monitor leads I, II, and III and observe the P wave configuration

53.

Bundle branch block rhythm is similar to a sinus rhythm but has what distinguishing

characteristic?

a)

QRS duration less than 0.12 seconds

b)

QRS duration greater than 0.12 seconds

c)

PR interval less than 0.12 seconds

d)

PR interval greater than 0.20 seconds

54.

You observe a wide QRS complex in lead II. Which lead should you check to evaluate the

location of the bundle branch block?

(a)  

55.

What measurement on the ECG tracing represents how long it takes for the current to travel

through the ventricular myocardial tissue?

a)

PR interval

b)

QRS duration

c)

P-P interval

d)

R-R interval

52

Multiple

56.

A bundle branch block has which of the following characteristics?

a)

It occurs when a bundle branch fail to conduct impulses.

b)

It causes narrowed QRS complexes to appear on the ECG.

c)

It causes a prolonged PR interval.

d)

It accelerates depolarization of the ventricle it supplies.

57.

Which of the following statements about bundle branch block is true?

a)

Bundle branch block overrides the patient’s underlying heart rhythm.

b)

If the patient has a bundle branch block, no P wave will be seen on the ECG tracing.

c)

Bundle branch block is a life-threatening condition.

d)

Any sinus, atrial, or junctional rhythm can be affected by bundle branch block.

58.

You are about to perform an ECG on a patient known to have sinus tachycardia with right

bundle branch block. Which of the following signs and symptoms would you be likely to find in

this patient?

a)

Congestive heart failure

b)

Hypertension

c)

Unconsciousness

d)

Rapid heart rate

59.

Which of the following is a characteristic of left bundle branch block?

a)

The right ventricle depolarizes normally, but conduction through the left ventricle is

slowed.

b)

Neither ventricle depolarizes normally because the impulse is not conducted through

the left bundle branch.

c)

The left ventricle depolarizes normally, but the impulse is not spread to the right

ventricle.

d)

Neither ventricle depolarizes normally because the impulse is not conducted through

the right bundle branch.

60.

Neither ventricle depolarizes normally because the impulse is not conducted through

the right bundle branch.

a)

Lead I

b)

aVF

c)

V1

d)

V6

61.

What is the term for PVCs that all have a similar shape on a tracing?

(a)  

62.

In a left bundle branch block (LBBB), how does the QRS appear?

a)

Positively deflected

b)

Taller and deeper than normal

c)

Normal in length

d)

Negatively deflected

63.

When analyzing V1 to determine the presence of a bundle branch block, what should you look

for?

a)

A QRS complex that measures less than 0.12 seconds with no P wave

b)

An inverted T wave and ST segment depression

c)

A QRS complex that measures 0.12 seconds or greater and a P wave

d)

ST segment elevation and a pathologic Q wave

64.

What is a QS complex?

a)

An inverted QRS complex

b)

A deep Q/S wave with no preceding R wave

c)

A QRS complex with no preceding P wave

d)

A QRS complex in which the R wave is buried in the Q wave

65.

What is a QS complex?

a)

A QRS complex in which the R wave is buried in the Q wave

b)

A QRS complex with no preceding P wave

c)

A deep Q/S wave with no preceding R wave

d)

An inverted QRS complex

66.

You have run a 12-lead ECG on Mrs. Simmons. In lead V1, you notice that the QRS is positive

and has a “bunny ears” appearance. What does Mrs. Simmons most likely have?

a)

Left bundle branch block

b)

Right bundle branch block

c)

Complete AV block

d)

Left ventricular hypertrophy

67.

Identify the following rhythm:

(a)  

68.

Identify the following rhythm:

(a)  

69.

Identify the following rhythm:

(a)  

70.

The V1 tracing shown here is from a 12-lead ECG performed on a 36-year-old male patient as

part of a yearly physical examination. The patient appears to be in good general health. What

does this tracing show?

(a)  

71.

Identify the following rhythm:

(a)  

72.

Identify the following rhythm:

(a)  

73.

What rhythm is shown in this ECG tracing?

(a)  

74.

You have run a 12-lead ECG on Ms. Reilly, a patient in the cardiac care unit of the hospital

where you work. A portion of the V1 tracing is shown here. What cardiac condition would you

suspect based on this tracing?

a)

Right bundle branch block

b)

Complete AV block

c)

Left ventricular hypertrophy

d)

Left bundle branch block