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DUMSA_4.1

Total questions: 62

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Security GateWay by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is _______.

a)

Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.

b)

Sent to the Security Administrator.

c)

Stored on the Security Management Server.

d)

Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.

2.

Which type of attack can a firewall NOT prevent?

a)

Network Bandwidth Saturation

b)

Buffer Overflow

c)

SYN Flood

d)

SQL Injection

3.

R80 is supported by which of the following operating systems:

a)

Windows only

b)

Gaia only

c)

Gaia, SecurePlatform, and Windows

d)

SecurePlatform only

4.

What Check Point technologies deny or permit network traffic?

a)

Application Control, DLP

b)

Packet Filtering, Stateful Inspection, Application Layer Firewall

c)

ACL, SandBlast, MPT

d)

IPS, Mobile Threat Protection

5.

How do you manage Gaia?

a)

Through CLI and WebUI

b)

Through CLI only

c)

Through SmartDashboard only

d)

Through CLI, WebUI, and SmartDashboard

6.

What licensing feature is used to verify licenses and activate new licenses added to the License and Contracts repository?

a)

Verification tool

b)

Verification licensing

c)

Automatic licensing

d)

Automatic licensing and Verification tool

7.

The “Hit count” feature allows tracking the number of connections that each rule matches. Will the Hit count feature work independently from logging and track the hits even if the Track option is set to “None”?

a)

No, it will not work independently. Hit Count will be shown only for rules with Track options set as Log or alert

b)

Yes, it will work independently as long as “analyze all rules” tick box is enabled on the Security Gateway

c)

No, it will not work independently because hit count requires all rules to be logged

d)

Yes, it will work independently because when you enable Hit Count, the SMS collects the data from supported Security Gateways

8.

How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?

a)

2

b)

7

c)

6

d)

4

9.

In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and virtual network components and also some logical components. These objects are divided into several categories. Which of the following is NOT an objects category?

a)

Limit

b)

Resource

c)

Custom Application / Site

d)

Network Object

10.

Which of the following is used to enforce changes made to a Rule Base?

a)

Publish database

b)

Save changes

c)

Install policy

d)

Activate policy

11.

What is UserCheck?

a)

Messaging tool used to verify a user’s credentials

b)

Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access

c)

Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network

d)

Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created

12.

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

a)

None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

b)

SmartConsole

c)

SecureClient

d)

SmartEvent

13.

Fill in the blank: An Endpoint identity agent uses a __________ for user authentication.

a)

Shared secret

b)

Token

c)

Username/password or Kerberos Ticket

d)

Certificate

14.

What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?

a)

A rule used to hide a server's IP address from the outside world.

b)

A rule that allows administrators to access SmartDashboard from any device.

c)

To drop any traffic destined for the firewall that is not otherwise explicitly allowed.

d)

A rule at the end of your policy to drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.

15.

To view the policy installation history for each gateway, which tool would an administrator use?

a)

Revisions

b)

Gateway installations

c)

Installation history

d)

Gateway history

16.

Which SmartConsole tab shows logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?

a)

Gateway and Servers

b)

Logs and Monitor

c)

Manage Seeting

d)

Security Policies

17.

Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

a)

All-in-one (stand-alone)

b)

Log server

c)

SmartEvent

d)

Multi-domain management server

18.

You have created a rule at the top of your Rule Base to permit Guest Wireless access to the Internet. However, when guest users attempt to reach the Internet, they are not seeing the splash page to accept your Terms of Service, and cannot access the Internet. How can you fix this?

a)

Right click Accept in the rule, select "More", and then check "Enable Identity Captive Portal"

b)

On the firewall object, Legacy Authentication screen, check "Enable Identity Captive Portal"

c)

In the Captive Portal screen of Global Properties, check "Enable Identity Captive Portal"

d)

On the Security Management Server object, check the box "Identity Logging"

19.

Identity Awareness allows the Security Administrator to configure network access based on which of the following?

a)

Name of the application, identity of the user, and identity of the machine

b)

Identity of the machine, username, and certificate

c)

Network location, identity of a user, and identity of a machine

d)

Browser-Based Authentication, identity of a user, and network location

20.

Which option will match a connection regardless of its association with a VPN community?

a)

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

b)

Accept all encrypted traffic

c)

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

d)

Specific VPN Communities

21.

Which of the following is NOT a tracking log option in R80.x?

a)

Log

b)

Full Log

c)

Detailed Log

d)

Extended Log

22.

Which information is included in the "Extended Log" tracking option, but is not included in the "Log" tracking option?

a)

file attributes

b)

application information

23.

Where is the “Hit Count” feature enabled or disabled in SmartConsole?

a)

On the Policy Package

b)

On each Security Gateway

c)

On the Policy layer

d)

In Global Properties for the Security Management Server

24.

Which tool is used to enable cluster membership on a Gateway?

a)

SmartUpdate

b)

cpconfig

c)

SmartConsole

d)

sysconfig

25.

Which key is created during Phase 2 of a site-to-site VPN?

a)

Pre-shared secret

b)

Diffie-Hellman Public Key

c)

Symmetrical IPSec key

d)

Diffie-Hellman Private Key

26.

Each cluster, at a minimum, should have at least _________ interfaces.

a)

Five

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

27.

Examine the sample Rule Base. What will be the result of a verification of the policy from SmartConsole?

a)

No errors or Warnings

b)

Verification Error. Empty Source-List in Rule 5 (Mail Inbound)

c)

Verification Error. Rule 4 (Web Inbound) hides Rule 6 (Webmaster access)

d)

Verification Error. Rule 7 (Clean-Up Rule) hides Implicit Clean-up Rule

28.

You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp. You received a call that one of the users is unable to browse the Internet on their new tablet which is connected to the company wireless, which goes through a Check Point Gateway. How would you review the logs to see what is blocking this traffic?

a)

Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the wireless controller

b)

Open SmartEvent to see why they are being blocked

c)

Open SmartDashboard and review the logs tab

d)

From SmartConsole, go to the Log & Monitor and filter for the IP address of the tablet.

29.

What is a role of Publishing?

a)

The Publish operation sends the modifications made via SmartConsole in the private session and makes them public

b)

The Security Management Server installs the updated policy and the entire database on Security Gateways

c)

The Security Management Server installs the updated session and the entire Rule Base on Security Gateways

d)

Modifies network objects, such as servers, users, services, or IPS profiles, but not the Rule Base

30.

Which software blade enables Access Control policies to accept, drop, or limit web site access based on user, group, and/or machine?

a)

Application Control

b)

Data Awareness

c)

Identity Awareness

d)

Threat Emulation

31.

__________ is the Gaia command that turns the server off.

a)

sysdown

b)

exit

c)

halt

d)

shut-down

32.

Which option in a firewall rule would only match and allow traffic to VPN gateways for one Community in common?

a)

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

b)

Accept all encrypted traffic

c)

Specific VPN Communities

d)

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

33.

Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?

a)

Manage & Settings

b)

Security Policies

c)

Gateway & Servers

d)

Logs & Monitor

34.

Which of the following is NOT a policy type available for each policy package?

a)

Threat Emulation

b)

Access Control

c)

Desktop Security

d)

Threat Prevention

35.

An administrator is creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN between his corporate office and branch office. Both offices are protected by Check Point Security Gateway managed by the same Security Management Server (SMS). While configuring the VPN community to specify the pre-shared secret, the administrator did not find a box to input the pre-shared secret. Why does it not allow him to specify the pre-shared secret?

a)

The Gateway is an SMB device

b)

The checkbox “Use only Shared Secret for all external members” is not checked

c)

Certificate based Authentication is the only authentication method available between two Security Gateway managed by the same SMS

d)

Pre-shared secret is already configured in Global Properties

36.

Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

a)

INSPECT Engine

b)

Next-Generation Firewall

c)

Packet Filtering

d)

Application Layer Firewall

37.

What object type would you use to grant network access to an LDAP user group?

a)

Access Role

b)

User Group

c)

SmartDirectory Group

d)

Group Template

38.

View the rule below. What does the pen-symbol in the left column mean?

a)

Those rules have been published in the current session.

b)

Rules have been edited by the logged in administrator, but the policy has not been published yet.

c)

Another user has currently locked the rules for editing.

d)

The configuration lock is present. Click the pen symbol in order to gain the lock.

39.

What data MUST be supplied to the SmartConsole System Restore window to restore a backup?

a)

Server, Username, Password, Path, Version

b)

Username, Password, Path, Version

c)

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Destination Path

d)

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path

40.

Which repositories are installed on the Security Management Server by SmartUpdate?

a)

License and Update

b)

Package Repository and Licenses

c)

Update and License & Contract

d)

License & Contract and Package Repository

41.

Which back up method uses the command line to create an image of the OS?

a)

System backup

b)

Save Configuration

c)

Migrate

d)

snapshot

42.

To quickly review when Threat Prevention signatures were last updated, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?

a)

Protections

b)

IPS Protections

c)

Profiles

d)

ThreatWiki

43.

Which of the following is considered to be the more secure and preferred VPN authentication method?

a)

Password

b)

Certificate

44.

When a Security Gateway sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

a)

Distributed

b)

Standalone

c)

Bridge Mode

d)

Targeted

45.

In ____________ NAT, the ____________ is translated.

a)

Hide; source

b)

Static; source

c)

Simple; source

d)

Hide; destination

46.

An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls. However they allow users to use company issued or personal laptops. Since the administrator cannot manage the personal laptops, which of the following methods would BEST suit this company?

a)

AD Query

b)

Browser-Based Authentication

c)

Identity Agents

d)

Terminal Servers Agent

47.

Which of the following situations would not require a new license to be generated and installed?

a)

The Security Gateway is upgraded.

b)

The existing license expires.

c)

The license is upgraded.

d)

The IP address of the Security Management or Security Gateway has changed.

48.

When should you generate new licenses?

a)

Before installing contract files.

b)

After a device upgrade.

c)

When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address associated with the license changes.

d)

Only when the license is upgraded.

49.

Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

a)

All-in-one (stand-alone)

b)

CloudGuard

c)

Distributed

d)

Bridge Mode

50.

Which backup utility captures the most information and tends to create the largest archives?

a)

backup

b)

snapshot

c)

Database Revision

d)

migrate export

51.

Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members in CLI?

a)

show cluster state

b)

show active cluster

c)

show clusters

d)

show running cluster

52.

When enabling tracking on a rule, what is the default option?

a)

Accounting Log

b)

Extended Log

c)

Log

d)

Detailed Log

53.

Gaia includes Check Point Upgrade Service Engine (CPUSE), which can directly receive updates for what components?

a)

The Security Gateway (SG) and Security Management Server (SMS) software and the CPUSE engine.

b)

Licensed Check Point products for the Gaia operating system and the Gaia operating system itself.

c)

The CPUSE engine and the Gaia operating system.

d)

The Gaia operating system only.

54.

Name the file that is an electronically signed file used by Check Point to translate the features in the license into a code?

a)

Both License (.lic) and Contract (.xml) files

b)

cp.macro

c)

Contract file (.xml)

d)

license File (.lic)

55.

Can you use the same layer in multiple policies or rulebases?

a)

Yes - a layer can be shared with multiple policies and rules.

b)

No - each layer must be unique.

c)

No - layers cannot be shared or reused, but an identical one can be created.

d)

Yes - but it must be copied and pasted with a different name.

56.

Security Gateway software blades must be attached to what?

a)

Security Gateway

b)

Security Gateway container

c)

Management server

d)

Management container

57.

Which tool allows you to monitor the top bandwidth on smart console?

a)

Logs & Monitoring

b)

Smart Event

c)

Gateways & Severs Tab

d)

SmartView Monitor

58.

A security zone is a group of one or more network interfaces from different centrally managed gateways. What is considered part of the zone?

a)

The zone is based on the network topology and determined according to where the interface leads to.

b)

Security Zones are not supported by Check Point firewalls.

c)

The firewall rule can be configured to include one or more subnets in a zone.

d)

The local directly connected subnet defined by the subnet IP and subnet mask.

59.

When comparing Stateful Inspection and Packet Filtering, what is a benefit that Stateful Inspection offers over Packer Filtering?

a)

Stateful Inspection offers unlimited connections because of virtual memory usage.

b)

Stateful Inspection offers no benefits over Packet Filtering.

c)

Stateful Inspection does not use memory to record the protocol used by the connection.

d)

Only one rule is required for each connection.

60.

Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using ______ the ______.

a)

Command line interface; WebUI

b)

Gaia Interface; GaiaUI

c)

WebUI; Gaia Interface

d)

GaiaUI; command line interface

61.

An administrator can use section titles to more easily navigate between large rule bases. Which of these statements is FALSE?

a)

Section titles are not sent to the gateway side.

b)

These sections are simple visual divisions of the Rule Base and do not hinder the order of rule enforcement.

c)

A Sectional Title can be used to disable multiple rules by disabling only the sectional title.

d)

Sectional Titles do not need to be created in the SmartConsole.

62.

A stateful inspection firewall works by registering connection data and compiling this information. Where is the information stored?

a)

In the system SMEM memory pool.

b)

In State tables.

c)

In the Sessions table.

d)

In a CSV file on the firewall hard drive located in $FWDIR/conf/.