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Worksheets

Worksheet Questions

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When collecting a sample for a rapid strep screen, two swabs are often collected. The second swab may be used for a(an) ____________ to confirm the presence of Streptococcus sp.

a)

COVID-19 test

b)

Influenza test

c)

Mono spot

d)

Throat culture

2.

What are the CLIA '88 recommendations for QC when patient samples are tested?

a)

At least once per day using two levels of control material

b)

At least two times per day using two levels of control material

c)

One time per week using two levels of control material

d)

With each patient sample using two levels of control material

3.

What is the best resource to determine how to safely clean up a small spill of a commercially prepared chemical and assess any hazards created by the spill?

a)

Bill of Lading

b)

GHS pictogram

c)

NFPA Hazard Communication

d)

SDS for the specific chemical

4.

Streptococcus sp. can be identified with a positive:

a)

COVID-19 test

b)

Mono spot

c)

RSV test

d)

Throat culture

5.

Why is it important to monitor the temperature and humidity in the laboratory setting?

a)

To ensure the accuracy of the test, calibrators, and controls

b)

To maintain a comfortable room temperature for the employees in the laboratory

c)

To prevent the analyzer from overheating

d)

To watch for fluctuations in the temperature on each shift

6.

Which of the following is true regarding the GHS system?

a)

This system allows for consistency in hazard identification in the U.S. only

b)

This system allows for consistency in hazard identification internationally

c)

This system uses pictograms only to communicate hazards

d)

This system uses SDSs as the only tool for identifying hazards

7.

Which infection control practice breaks the chain of infection by preventing contamination of the surrounding area by an infected host?

a)

Antimicrobial stewardship

b)

Disinfecting laboratory benchtops

c)

Vaccination

d)

Wearing a surgical mask

8.

A medical laboratory assistant has orders to collect a sample by venipuncture in an isolation room. Which of the following should be the medical laboratory assistant's first step?

a)

Call for assistance

b)

Find the correct size gown

c)

Read the posted isolation requirements

d)

Retrieve a respirator

9.

The SOP for a pregnancy test says to read results between 3-10 minutes. The medical laboratory assistant gets distracted and reads the test results after 20 minutes. Can they report the results?

a)

No, only a negative result can be reported at 20 minutes

b)

No, the results are invalid

c)

Yes, a positive result at 20 minutes is accurate

d)

Yes, if the test line is dark

10.

A waived COVID-19 test instructs incubation for 15 minutes, but the lab technician only incubated the COVID-19 test for 5 minutes. What should the medical laboratory assistant do?

a)

Let the manager of the laboratory decide based on the patient's symptoms

b)

Perform a new test following the manufacturer's instructions

c)

Process the test, because a positive result is still accurate

d)

Report the negative result because a negative result wouldn't be affected by a short incubation

11.

Which category of laboratory testing is exempt from proficiency testing?

a)

Basic tests

b)

Complex test

c)

Mandatory tests

d)

Waived tests

12.

What is the name for the guidelines that preceded standard precautions and focused on limiting healthcare workers' exposure to blood and other potentially infectious materials (OPIM)?

a)

Chemical Hygiene Plans

b)

Contact Precautions

c)

Electrical Hazards Plan

d)

Universal Precautions

13.

The square root of the variance of values in a series of test results is known as the:

a)

confidence interval.

b)

normal value.

c)

reference range.

d)

standard deviation.

14.

Which of the following infection control practices for venipuncture breaks the chain of infection by disrupting contact transmission?

a)

Antimicrobial stewardship

b)

Disinfecting surface

c)

Vaccination

d)

Washing hands

15.

Which of the following employer plans mandated by OSHA standards serves to protect laboratory workers from chemical hazards?

a)

Chemical hygiene plan

b)

Emergency action plan

c)

Exposure control plan

d)

Fire prevention plan

16.

Which of the following is a federally mandated law that medical laboratories must comply with?

a)

CLSI Standards for the Collection of Blood by Venipuncture

b)

NAACLS Accreditation Standards

c)

OSHA Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Program

d)

Westgard Rules

17.

What hazard does the health hazard pictogram indicate?

a)

Acute toxicity

b)

Carcinogen

c)

Minor irritation

d)

Pyrophoric

18.

To determine the acceptable control range, an aliquot of the control should be tested daily for:

a)

6–10 days

b)

10–15 days

c)

15–25 days

d)

50–100 days

19.

How are transmission-based precautions different from standard precautions?

a)

Standard precautions apply to all patients and patient samples while transmission-based precautions may not

b)

Standard precautions are written into law while transmission-based precautions are recommendations from the CDC

c)

Standard precautions have been replaced by transmission-based precautions and are now considered best practice

d)

Standard precautions recommend additional protective measures when handling patients with particular illnesses while transmission-based precautions do not

20.

Which document provides the chemical properties of a reagent used in the laboratory?

a)

Exposure control plan

b)

Laboratory policy

c)

Safety Data Sheet

d)

Standard operating procedure

21.

The environment or habitat that a pathogen may occupy is best described by which component of the chain of infection?

a)

Mode of transmission

b)

Portal of entry

c)

Portal of exit

d)

Reservoir or source

22.

What is the technique of killing or destroying all microorganisms including bacterial spores?

a)

Antisepsis

b)

Disinfection

c)

Filtration

d)

Sterilization

23.

The mathematical average of a set of values is called the:

a)

mean value

b)

median quantity

c)

middle denomination

d)

mode number

24.

Which of the following transmission-based precautions would be applied to a hospital inpatient with an infection that could be transmitted from skin to skin?

a)

Airborne

b)

Contact

c)

Droplet

d)

Reverse

25.

Five consecutive control results fall on the same side of the mean. This suggests the:

a)

control is working properly

b)

mean should be recalculated

c)

reagent may be deteriorating

d)

value was plotted on the wrong chart

26.

Which of the following changes a waived COVID-19 test designed for use in adults to a high-complexity test?

a)

Performing multiple tests at the same time

b)

Performing the test on a large sample volume

c)

Performing the test on a pediatric patient

d)

Performing the test on a symptomatic patient

27.

Exposure control plans, employee training, and provision of hepatitis B vaccine are all components of which OSHA Standard?

a)

Bloodborne pathogens standard

b)

Fire protection standard

c)

Hazard communication standard

d)

Laboratory safety standard

28.

Which of the following is an accepted practice for a medical laboratory assistant to use when collecting a sample by venipuncture from a patient under protective isolation precautions?

a)

Bring a well-stocked phlebotomy tray into the patient room

b)

Remove PPE before leaving the patient room

c)

Wear chemically cleaned, but not sterile, PPE

d)

Wear the provided sterile PPE into the patient room

29.

Which entity identifies companies that meet the criteria needed for being a provider of proficiency testing?

a)

CAP

b)

CMS

c)

FDA

d)

TJC

30.

What statistical method should be used to assess the difference in precision between two similar assays?

a)

Calculation of the coefficient of variance

b)

Calculation of the mean value

c)

Calculation of the standard deviation

d)

Measurement of the SD index

31.

Biohazards can be defined as:

a)

corrosive chemicals

b)

explosive gases

c)

flammable substances

d)

potentially infectious agents

32.

How often should the glucose analyzer be calibrated?

a)

Annually to maintain testing integrity

b)

Based on the manufacturer’s recommendations or at least once every six months

c)

Daily or prior to running patient samples

d)

On the first day of the month for consistency

33.

Which of the following statements is true regarding standard precautions?

a)

They are applied based on a patient’s known condition

b)

They are dated guidelines that have been replaced by Universal Precautions

c)

They are observed when handling all patients and specimens

d)

They are currently mandated by a program administered by the CDC

34.

Which of the following is considered off-label use of a waived urine pregnancy test?

a)

Testing expired urine

b)

Testing multiple urine samples at once

c)

Testing patient serum

d)

Testing refrigerated urine

35.

Which of the following is a comprehensive set of policies, procedures, and practices that ensures a laboratory’s results are reliable?

a)

Quality affirmation

b)

Quality assurance

c)

Quality control

d)

Quality guarantee

36.

The accuracy of an obtained result describes how:

a)

close the result is to the actual value

b)

precise the result is to the actual value

c)

repeatable the result is to the actual value

37.

When performing morning QC, the Level 1 control value is outside the established range while the Level 2 control value is in range. What is the next step?

a)

Perform patient testing if the Level 1 QC material from yesterday was acceptable

b)

Perform patient testing since Level 2 QC values are in range

c)

Repeat both Level 1 and Level 2 QC material prior to testing patient samples

d)

Repeat Level 1 QC before testing the patient samples

38.

Which organization offers guidelines and regulations that provide the framework for a healthcare facility’s exposure control plan?

a)

DOT

b)

GHS

c)

NFPA

d)

OSHA

39.

Which of the following best describes the definition of a standard deviation?

a)

The difference of an observed value in relation to the mean value

b)

The measure of the variability in a given data set

c)

The percent variation of a given data set

d)

The value that occurs most frequently in a given data set

40.

A COVID-19 test kit directions says to use a nasopharyngeal swab. Can a throat swab be used as a substitute?

a)

No, because a throat swab would have too much saliva

b)

No, the specimen indicated in the manufacturer’s directions must be used

c)

Yes, a throat swab is virtually the same as a nasopharyngeal swab

d)

Yes, if the test is positive, it does not matter where the specimen came from

41.

Seminal fluid collected in sterile or chemically clean containers must be:

a)

added to a preservative immediately after collection.

b)

frozen immediately after collection.

c)

kept warm and protected from light.

d)

refrigerated until the laboratory is ready to test.

42.

A patient brought a urine sample in a plastic container from home for urine culture and sensitivity. What action should the CMLA take?

a)

Accept the sample and pour it into a labeled sterile urine container

b)

Accept the sample and make a note about the container in the LIS

c)

Reject the sample and give the patient a sterile urine container and collection instructions

d)

Reject the sample and make a note about the container in the LIS

43.

A CMLA needs to collect a capillary blood sample, but the patient has cold fingers. To get a good sample, the CMLA should:

a)

apply pressure to the fingertip before the puncture.

b)

massage the entire hand to improve circulation.

c)

have the patient clench and unclench their fist repeatedly.

d)

warm the fingertip to increase blood flow.

44.

To prepare slides for Gram stain, make a smear on a glass slide and then ________ the smear.

a)

blot

b)

fix

c)

rinse

d)

wash

45.

Should a CMLA accept or reject a half-full light blue top tube with an order for a Prothrombin Time (PT)?

a)

Accept the sample because an improper sample-to-anticoagulant ratio is no concern for PT testing

b)

Accept the sample, regardless of volume, because it was difficult to draw blood from the patient

c)

Reject the sample because blood in a light blue tube does not yield the correct sample type for PT testing

d)

Reject the sample because an improper sample-to-anticoagulant ratio will alter the PT results

46.

Plasma contains ________________, serum does not.

a)

Clot activators

b)

Clotting factors

c)

Red blood cells

d)

White blood cells

47.

The __________________ is considered the vein of choice for venipuncture.

a)

basilic

b)

median cubital

c)

radial

d)

subclavian

48.

According to CLSI guidelines, blood must be centrifuged to separate the serum/plasma from the cells within _____ hours to prevent some analyte values from being affected.

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

five

49.

Venipuncture order of draw is used to prevent:

a)

additive carryover between evacuated tubes.

b)

hemoconcentration that can alter test results.

c)

insufficient samples for coagulation testing.

d)

repeat collections from clots.

50.

Some winged infusion sets come with Luer adapters for multisample draws. The CMLA could remove the multisample adapter to use the winged infusion set with a(n):

a)

evacuated tube adapter

b)

lancet

c)

syringe

d)

transfer device