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Earth and Space Science Mega Midterm Review

Total questions: 226

Worksheet time: 5hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What evidence best supports that the universe is expanding from an initial event like the Big Bang?

a)

Comets increasingly appear from the Oort Cloud annually

b)

Stars within the Milky Way rotate faster near the center

c)

Planet orbits slowly drift farther from the Sun over time

d)

Most galaxies show redshifted spectra indicating recession

2.

Which statement correctly compares inner and outer planets in our solar system?

a)

Inner planets are large and gaseous with many rings

b)

Inner planets are dense and rocky with few moons

c)

Outer planets orbit closer and complete years more quickly

d)

Outer planets are small and metallic with thin atmospheres

3.

Astronomers use stellar spectra primarily to determine a star’s

a)

apparent magnitude from observed brightness

b)

distance from Earth using parallax shift

c)

atmospheric composition from absorption lines

d)

luminosity class from clustering patterns

4.

A star’s color is most directly related to its

a)

surface temperature of the stellar photosphere

b)

distance from Earth along the line of sight

c)

chemical age within its life cycle stage

d)

rotation speed around the galactic center

5.

New stars typically form in which type of region?

a)

Magnetic sunspot fields on stellar surfaces

b)

Solid planetary rings around gas giants

c)

Hot, empty voids between galactic arms

d)

Cold, dense nebulae rich in gas and dust

6.

If a star’s light is shifted toward longer wavelengths, the star is most likely

a)

rotating slowly with little differential motion

b)

cooling rapidly after a recent nova event

c)

orbiting perpendicular to the observer’s line

d)

moving away from the observer due to redshift

7.

Which planet has the shortest orbital period around the Sun?

a)

Mercury completes an orbit in about 88 days

b)

Earth completes an orbit in about 365 days

c)

Mars completes an orbit in about 687 days

d)

Jupiter completes an orbit in about 12 years

8.

The primary reason seasons occur on Earth is because

a)

Ocean currents redistribute global heat

b)

The Sun’s energy output varies each year

c)

Earth’s elliptical orbit changes distance

d)

Earth’s axis is tilted about 23.5 degrees

9.

During winter in the Northern Hemisphere, the hemisphere is

a)

tilted away from the Sun receiving lower angles

b)

tilted toward the Sun receiving higher angles

c)

closest to the Sun at perihelion distance

d)

far from the Sun due to aphelion distance

10.

How long does the Moon take to orbit Earth once relative to the stars, and how long is a full cycle of lunar phases?

a)

About 14 days for orbit; about 28 days for phases

b)

About 27 days for orbit; about 29–30 days for phases

c)

About 29–30 days for orbit; about 27 days for phases

d)

About 31 days for orbit; about 31 days for phases

11.

A lunar eclipse occurs when

a)

Earth’s shadow sweeps across part of the Sun

b)

The Moon passes through its first quarter

c)

The Moon moves between the Sun and Earth

d)

Earth moves between the Sun and the Moon

12.

Greatest tidal ranges (spring tides) most commonly occur when

a)

local winds reinforce coastal currents

b)

Earth is closest to the Sun in January

c)

the Moon is at first or third quarter

d)

the Sun, Moon, and Earth are aligned

13.

Ocean tides on Earth are caused primarily by the

a)

solar wind pressure pushing surface waters

b)

heat expansion of equatorial ocean waters

c)

gravitational pull of the Moon on Earth’s oceans

d)

rotation of Earth creating centrifugal forces

14.

On a sundial, the changing position of the shadow throughout a day is mainly due to

a)

Earth’s rotation about its axis

b)

Seasonal tilt of Earth’s axis

c)

Earth’s orbit around the Sun

d)

The Moon’s revolution around Earth

15.

Which observation would most strongly indicate a planet is an outer planet rather than an inner planet?

a)

Rocky surface, thin atmosphere, and craters

b)

High density, few moons, and short year

c)

Low density, many moons, and greater distance

d)

Small size, fast rotation, and closer orbit

16.

Which Earth layer is the outermost solid layer where humans live?

a)

Mantle of plastic-like rock

b)

Crust as the solid surface

c)

Inner core with dense metals

d)

Outer core of liquid metal

17.

What primarily drives the movement of tectonic plates?

a)

Wind stress on the oceans

b)

Convection currents in the mantle

c)

Ocean tides from the Moon

d)

Gravity pulling continents only

18.

At a divergent plate boundary, which landforms most commonly develop?

a)

Wide plains and shield volcanoes

b)

Deep trenches and island arcs

c)

Rift valleys and mid-ocean ridges

d)

Folded mountains and high plateaus

19.

When two continental plates converge, what is the most likely result?

a)

Sea-floor basalt forming ridges

b)

Subducted slab forming trenches

c)

Uplifted mountains from collision

d)

Transform motion causing faults

20.

Oceanic-continental convergence typically produces which features?

a)

Island arcs and deep trenches

b)

Rift valleys and normal faults

c)

Plateaus with thick sediments

d)

Mid-ocean ridges with vents

21.

Transform plate boundaries are strongly associated with which hazard?

a)

Tsunamis from tidal forcing

b)

Explosive volcanism from melting

c)

Frequent earthquakes from sliding

d)

Landslides from heavy rainfall

22.

Which evidence supports the idea of continental drift across oceans?

a)

Similar cloud patterns every season

b)

Equal day length at all latitudes

c)

Matching ocean salinity worldwide

d)

Identical fossils on separate continents

23.

Sea-floor spreading means that the farther ocean floor is from a mid-ocean ridge, the rock is generally

a)

Older and more deeply buried

b)

Hotter and newly formed crust

c)

Younger with fewer minerals

d)

Thinner with bigger crystals

24.

Which statement best describes the Coriolis effect on moving air on Earth?

a)

Rotation causes winds to curve paths

b)

Solar heating makes winds blow east

c)

Mountains block winds uniformly

d)

Gravity pulls winds straight south

25.

Earth’s earliest atmosphere most likely formed primarily through which process?

a)

Volcanic outgassing during eruptions

b)

Photosynthesis by complex plants

c)

Comet impacts delivering oxygen

d)

Weathering of continental rocks

26.

The high percentage of free oxygen in the modern atmosphere developed mainly because early life performed

a)

Photosynthesis producing oxygen gas

b)

Chemosynthesis consuming oxygen gas

c)

Fermentation releasing methane gas

d)

Respiration releasing nitrogen gas

27.

A geologist compares two basalt samples. Sample A lies near a mid-ocean ridge, and Sample B lies far from the ridge on the same plate. Which conclusion is most reasonable?

a)

Sample A cooled earlier in time

b)

Sample B has higher eruption rate

c)

Sample B formed more recently

d)

Sample A is younger basalt rock

28.

Does this star contain Element X?

a)

Yes

b)

No

29.

Where would you expect to find a Star that is very bright and very hot? (Select ONE answer)

30.
Question Image

Match the following for an AVERAGE star like our Sun:

a)

Nebula

1.

cloud of dust of gas

b)

Main sequence

2.

adult life: burning: light and heat

c)

Red Giant

3.

begins to die and expands

d)

Planetary nebula

4.

outer layers break down and leave core

e)

White dwarf

5.

Last stage: core emits very little light

31.

The closest star to the Earth is ​ (a)   .

Choose from the below words
the Sun
Polaris
Orion
Sirius
32.

What DECREASES eccentricity?

a)

A decrease in the distance between the foci

b)

An increase in the distance between the foci

33.

What INCREASES as the distance between a planet and the sun DECREASES?

a)

Gravitational Attraction

b)

Mass

34.

What is Earth's eccentricity?

a)

0.206

b)

0.017

c)

0.093

d)

0.007

35.

What is the relationship between a planet's distance from the sun and the velocity of that planet around the sun?

a)

As the distance increases, the velocity decreases

b)

As the distance increases, the velocity increases

36.

[Select all that apply] What are characteristics that are TRUE about terrestrial planets?

a)

High density

b)

Low period of revolution

c)

Closer to the sun

d)

Eccentricity of one

37.

[Select all that apply] What are characteristics that are true about Jovian planets?

a)

High mass

b)

Low period of rotation

c)

High density

d)

Close to the sun

38.

Which two factors caused Earth to have different layers?

a)

Density

b)

Distance from the moon

c)

Gravity

d)

Distance from the sun

39.

Which planet from below has a higher density than water?

a)

Neptune

b)

Saturn

40.

Which of the following is a rocky object that is orbiting the Sun between Mars and Jupiter?

a)

Comet

b)

Meteor

c)

Crater

d)

Asteroid

41.

Which of the following is rock and ice orbiting from the outer solar system to near the Sun?

a)

Asteroid

b)

Comet

c)

Meteor

42.

What are the heavier elements found in Earth's core?

a)

oxygen and potassium

b)

aluminum and silicon

c)

carbon and sulfur

d)

iron and nickel

43.

How many million kilometers is one astronomical unit?

a)

149.6 million km

b)

227.9 million km

c)

377.5 million km

d)

108.2 million km

44.

What are TWO pieces of evidence for the universe's expansion?

a)

Coriolis Effect

b)

Foucault Pendulum

c)

Red-Shift of light from distant stars

d)

Cosmic background radiation

45.

Match the description to the planet.

46.
According to the plate tectonics theory, the Peru-Chile Trench and the Andes Mountains formed along the west coast of South American because the South American Plate
a)
collided with the Nazca Plate
b)
collided with the North American Plate
c)
slid away from the Nazca Plate
d)
slid away from the North American Plate
47.
The movement of tectonic plates is inferred by many scientists to be driven by
a)
tidal motions in the hydrosphere
b)
density differences in the troposphere
c)
convection currents in the asthenosphere
d)
solidification in the lithosphere
48.
Which features are commonly formed at the plate boundaries where continental crust converges with oceanic crust?
a)
large volcanic mountain ranges parallel to the coast at the center of the continents
b)
A deep ocean trench and a continental volcanic mountain range near the coast
c)
An underwater volcanic mountain range and rift valley on the ocean ridge near the coast
d)
Long chains of mid-ocean volcanic islands perpendicular to the coast
49.
The crust and uppermost part of the mantle make up which layer of Earth?
a)
inner core
b)
asthenosphere
c)
lithosphere
d)
upper mantle
50.
At what type of boundary is a subduction zone formed?
a)
transform
b)
convergent
c)
divergent
d)
strike-slip
51.
The San Andreas fault formed due to a ___ boundary.
a)
transform
b)
convergent
c)
divergent
d)
subduction
52.
An example of a hot spot is ___
a)
Appalachian Mountains
b)
San Andreas Fault
c)
Hawaii
d)
Mid-Ocean Ridge
53.
What feature is labeled B in Figure 9-1?
a)
trench
b)
ocean ridge
c)
Volcanic Island Arc
d)
Continental Volcanic Arc
54.
Use the latitude/longitude map below to answer the next few questions.

What is the location of point B?
a)
60° W, 120° N
b)
60° N, 120°E
c)
60° N, 120° W
d)
60° S, 120° N
55.

Compared to oceanic crust, continental crust is...

a)

thicker, with a less dense granitic composition

b)

thicker, with a more dense basaltic composition

c)

thinner, with a less dense granitic composition

d)

thinner, with a more dense basaltic composition

56.
Why do ice cubes float in a  glass of water?
a)
the ice cubes are more dense than the water
b)
the water is more dense than the ice cubes
c)
the water is more dense than the glass
d)
the ice is more dense than the glass
57.
Frank has an eraser. It has a mass of 4g, and a volume of 2cm3. What is its density?
a)
8 g/cm3
b)
2 g/cm3
c)
1/2 g/cm3
d)
24 g/cm3
58.

Why does hot air RISE?

a)

The molecules are spread farther apart and are LESS dense

b)

The molecules are spread farther apart and are MORE dense

c)

The molecules are close together and are LESS dense

d)

The molecules are close together and are MORE dense

59.

Why does cold air sink?

a)

The molecules are spread farther apart and are LESS dense

b)

The molecules are spread farther apart and are MORE dense

c)

The molecules are close together and are LESS dense

d)

The molecules are close together and are MORE dense

60.

What is the time in Boston when it is 11 a.m. in San Diego?

a)

8 a.m.

b)

2 p.m.

c)

3 p.m.

d)

noon

61.

The timeline below represents the entire geologic history of Earth. The lettered dots on the timeline represent events in Earth's history. Which lettered dot best indicates the geologic time when humans first appeared on Earth?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

62.

What is the approximate location of the Tasman Hot Spot in the Pacific Ocean?

a)

36° N 160° W

b)

36° S 160° E

c)

160° N 36° W

d)

160° S 36° E

63.

The Coriolis effect, which causes the curving of planetary winds, is a direct result of the...?

a)

distance between Earth and the Sun

b)

inclination of Earth's axis

c)

orbiting of Earth around the Sun

d)

spinning of Earth on its axis

64.

Earth's crustal bedrock at the Mid-Atlantic Ridge is composed mostly of...?

a)

basalt, with a density of 2.7 g/cm3

b)

basalt, with a density of 3.0 g/cm3

c)

granite, with a density of 2.7 g/cm3

d)

granite, with a density of 3.0 g/cm3

65.

The diagram represents Earth orbiting the Sun. Four positions of Earth in its orbit are labeled A, B, C, and D. Letter N represents the North Pole. During which season in the Northern Hemisphere of Earth when the Earth is in its farthest position from the Sun?

a)

winter

b)

spring

c)

summer

d)

fall

66.

What is the tilt of Earth's rotational axis relative to a line perpendicular to the plane of Earth's orbit?

a)

15°

b)

23.5°

c)

66.5°

d)

90°

67.

Which type of plate boundary is represented at point A?

a)

divergent

b)

convergent

c)

transform

d)

complex

68.

The data table shows the projected percentages of radioactive isotope X remaining and its disintegration product Z forming over 6.5 billion years. Identify radioactive isotope X.

(a)  

69.

The data table shows the projected percentages of radioactive isotope X remaining and its disintegration product Z forming over 6.5 billion years. Calculate the amount, in grams, of an original 300-gram sample of radioactive isotope X remaining after 3.9 billion years.

(a)  

70.

The Foucault pendulum and the Coriolis effect both provide evidence of Earth's

a)

revolution

b)

rotation

c)

tilted axis

d)

elliptical orbit

71.

Which statement provides the best evidence that Earth revolves around the Sun?

a)

The Sun follows an apparent daily path, rising in the east and setting in the west.

b)

A Foucault pendulum appears to shift its direction of swing in a predictable manner.

c)

The stars appear to follow circular paths around the North Star (Polaris).

d)

The seasons of spring, summer, fall, and winter repeat in a pattern.

72.

Which motion is responsible for this changing appearance of the Moon?

a)

The Moon moves into the shadow of Earth.

b)

The Moon moves into the shadow of the Sun.

c)

The Sun moves into the shadow of Earth.

d)

The Sun moves into the shadow of the Moon.

73.

4.The diagram below shows Earth's orbit around the Sun. Locations A, B, C, and D represent Earth on the first day of each season.

Which location represents March 21?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

74.

The apparent rising and setting of the Sun, as viewed from Earth, is caused by...

a)

Earth’s rotation

b)

Earth’s revolution

c)

the Sun’s rotation

d)

the Sun’s revolution

75.

In the Northern Hemisphere, planetary winds are deflected to the right due to the...

a)

Doppler effect

b)

Coriolis effect

c)

tilt of Earth's axis

d)

uneven heating of Earth's surface

76.

Base your answer to the following question on the graph below, which shows the maximum altitude of the Moon, measured by an observer located at a latitude of 43° N during June in a particular year. The names and appearance of the four major Moon phases are shown at the top of the graph, directly above the date on which the phase occurred.

Which diagram best represents the Moon’s phase observed on June 11?

a)
b)
c)
d)
77.

. Base your answer to the following question on the world map below, which shows regions of Earth where a solar eclipse was visible on May 20, 1947. Location A, B, C, and D are on Earth's surface.

a)
b)
c)
d)
78.

Base your answer to the following question on the diagram below, which represents latitude and longitude lines on Earth. Points A through E represent locations on Earth. Arrows represent direction of rotation.

When the local time at location C is 3 p.m., the local time at location D is

a)

1 p.m.

b)

5 p.m.

c)

3 p.m.

d)

3 a.m.

79.

The diagram below represents a plastic hemisphere upon which lines have been drawn to show the apparent paths of the Sun at a location in New York State on the first day of each season. Letters A through I represent points on the paths.

Which point represents the sunrise location on the first day of winter?

a)

G

b)

F

c)

E

d)

D

80.

Most asteroids in our solar system are located in the asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. What is the approximate distance from the Sun to the asteroid belt?

a)

129 million km

b)

210 million km

c)

403 million km

d)

1103 million km

81.

The table below shows tide data for a location on the north shore of Long Island, in New York State.

Based on these data, what is the most likely time of the next high tide?

a)

1:53 a.m.

b)

1:53 p.m.

c)

7:40 a.m.

d)

7:40 p.m.

82.

Which planet takes longer to complete one rotation on its axis than it does to complete one orbit of the Sun?

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Earth

d)

Mars

83.

The entire constellation of Orion is visible in the night sky in January to an observer in New York State. Which statement explains why this constellation is not visible in the night sky to this observer in June?

a)

Earth rotates on its axis.

b)

Earth revolves around the Sun.

c)

The constellation Orion orbits the Sun

d)

The tilt of Earth’s axis changes throughout the year.

84.

The red shift in light from stars located in very distant galaxies suggests that these stars are

a)

decreasing in temperature

b)

increasing in temperature

c)

moving toward the Milky Way

d)

moving away from the Milky Way

85.

Most of the electromagnetic energy radiated from Earth's surface is in the form of

a)

ultraviolet rays

b)

infrared rays

c)

gamma rays

d)

x-rays

86.

A theory that says the universe began as a small point that expanded rapidly about 13.7 billion years ago.

a)

Big Bang Theory

b)

Singularity Theory

c)

Galaxy Theory

87.

​ (a)   the process by which rock material moves under Earth’s outer layer and into the mantle due to plate motion

Choose from the below words
subduction
uplift
weathering
sediment
88.

According to the graph, how many kilometers from the Mid-Atlantic Ridge are rock samples that are 75 million years old? ​

​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
1,150 Km
3 Km
1,300 Km
800 Km
1,000 Km
89.

Which process is primarily responsible for the movement of tectonic plates on Earth's surface?

a)

Evaporation of ocean water

b)

Magnetic field reversal

c)

Solar radiation

d)

Convection currents in the mantle

90.

Which process is responsible for the recycling of Earth's crust at convergent plate boundaries?

a)

Deposition

b)

Condensation

c)

Evaporation

d)

Subduction

91.

During the waxing stage of the moon cycle, _____________.

a)

we gradually see more of the moon.

b)

we gradually see less of the moon.

92.

Blue stars are the _____.

a)

Coolest

b)

Hottest

93.

For the Southern Hemisphere, the seasons are the opposite of the Northern Hemisphere.

a)

True

b)

False

94.
Use the latitude/longitude map below to answer the next few questions.

What is the location of point B?
a)
60° W, 120° N
b)
60° N, 120°E
c)
60° N, 120° W
d)
60° S, 120° N
95.
Which planet has a density that is less than the density of liquid water?
a)
Mercury
b)
Earth
c)
Mars 
d)
Saturn 
96.
Which diagram best represents the relative wavelengths of visible light, ultraviolet energy, and infrared energy?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
97.
A major piece of evidence supporting the Big Bang Theory and the expansion of the universe is the observation of wavelengths of stars in distant galaxies show a
a)
red shift and are moving away
b)
red shift and moving towards
c)
blue shift and moving away
d)
blue shift and moving towards
98.
The modern heliocentric model of planetary motion states that the planets travel around
a)
the Sun in slightly elliptical orbits
b)
the Sun in circular orbits
c)
Earth is slightly elliptical orbits
d)
Earth in circular orbits
99.
At which location is the altitude of Polaris approximately 42°?
a)
Niagara Falls
b)
Elmira
c)
Watertown
d)
Massena
100.
At which latitude is the Sun directly overhead on certain days of the year?
a)
23.5° N
b)
66.5° N
c)
42° N
d)
90° N
101.
a)

Changing phases of the Sun

b)

Changing phases of the Moon

c)

Stages in an eclipse of the Sun

d)

Stages in the eclipse of the Moon

102.

The diagrams below represent Earth’s ocean tides at four different positions of the Moon. Which diagram shows the Moon position that will produce the highest high tides and the lowest iow tides? (The diagrams are not drawn to scale.)

a)
b)
c)
d)
103.

According to the pattern shown on the given graph, the next high tide will occur on the following day at approximately:

a)

12:30 am

b)

4:00 am

c)

2:00 am

d)

3:13 am

104.
For a solar eclipse to occur, what has to happen?
a)
The sun must be directly between Earth and the moon.
b)
The moon must be directly between Earth and the Sun.
c)
Earth must be directly between the Sun and the moon.
105.

The diagram below represents the light spectra given off by the same element as observed under two different conditions. Spectrum A was observed when that element was heated in a laboratory. Spectrum B shows the same element as seen in the light from a distant star.

The light spectrum observed from this distant star shows a

a)

red shift, which indicates that the star is moving away from Earth

b)

red shift, which indicates that the star is moving toward the Earth

c)

blue shift, which indicates that the star is moving away from Earth

d)

blue shift, which indicates that the star is moving toward Earth

106.
What kind of heat transfer?
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
107.
Convection takes place because
a)
warm air is more dense than humid air
b)
warm and cold air have the same density
c)
cold air is less dense than warm air
d)
cold air is more dense than warm air
108.
Which comes first in the following sequence of stars?
a)
Main Sequence Star
b)
Red Giant
c)
White Dwarf
d)
Black Dwarf
109.
How do stars generate energy?
a)
Fusion of hydrogen and helium atoms
b)
Fission of hydrogen and helium atoms
c)
Burning hydrogen
d)
Burning helium
110.
Which category is our Sun located in?
a)
White Dwarfs
b)
Supergiants
c)
Main Sequence
d)
Giants
111.
What has an eccentricity of zero
a)
a straight line
b)
a large ellipse
c)
a circle
d)
a small ellipse
112.

What table correctly matches each type of eclipse with the orbital position of the Moon and cause of each eclipse?

a)

b)

c)

d)

113.

Compared to our solar system, the universe is

a)

younger, smaller, and contains fewer stars

b)

younger, larger, and contains more stars

c)

older, smaller, and contains fewer stars

d)

older, larger, and contains more stars

114.

The solid part of the earth is known as the

a)

Atmoshpere

b)

Lithosphere

c)

Biosphere

d)

Hydrosphere

115.
As depth increases below the Earth's surface, pressure __________.
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
remains the same
116.
What is the range of density values for the outer core?
a)
2.7 - 3.0 g/cm3
b)
3.4 - 5.6 g/cm3
c)
9.9 - 12.2 g/cm3
d)
12.8 - 13.1 g/cm3
117.
What is the range of density values for the outer core?
a)
2.7 - 3.0 g/cm3
b)
3.4 - 5.6 g/cm3
c)
9.9 - 12.2 g/cm3
d)
12.8 - 13.1 g/cm3
118.
Which layer of the Earth's interior is composed of liquid material?
a)
crust
b)
mantle
c)
inner core
d)
outer core
119.
What is the depth of the interface between the mantle and core?
a)
1400 km
b)
2900 km
c)
5000 km
d)
6000 km
120.
Which of the following is NOT a layer of the Earth's interior?
a)
rigid mantle
b)
atmosphere
c)
asthenosphere
d)
inner core
121.

 What caused the interior of Earth to separate

into layers?

a)

a decrease in the rate of rotation of Earth

b)

the gravitational pull on materials of varying

densities

c)

variations in heating by the Sun due to

Earth’s tilt

d)

collisions with meteors and comets

122.

Which layer of Earth’s interior is inferred to be

composed of solid iron and nickel?

a)

asthenosphere

b)

outer core

c)

stiffer mantle

d)

inner core

123.

On the winter solstice, which latitude receives the vertical ray?

a)

90 degrees North

b)

23.5 degrees South

c)

0 degrees

(the equator)

d)

23.5 degrees North

124.

On the spring and fall equinoxes, which latitude receives the vertical ray?

a)

90 degrees North

b)

23.5 degrees North

c)

0 degrees

(the equator)

d)

23.5 degrees South

125.

How many degrees do the stars appear to move around Polaris in 3 hours?

a)

15 degrees

b)

30 degrees

c)

45 degrees

d)

60 degrees

126.

Why is the earth's shape slightly flattened at the Poles and slightly bulging at the equator?

a)

its rotation

b)

the pull of the sun and moon

c)

storms on the sun's surface

d)

its molten core

127.

As you travel towards the East, the time will

a)

get earlier

b)

get later

c)

remain the same

128.

Transfer of heat energy through direct contact

a)

Convection

b)

Conduction

c)

Radiation

d)

Heat

129.

Transfer of heat energy in fluid (liquid or gas) by currents

a)

Convection

b)

Conduction

c)

Radiation

d)

Heat

130.

The process plants use to make food using light, energy, carbon dioxide, and water

a)

Photosythesis

b)

Respiration

c)

outgassing

d)

radiation

131.

Energy transmitted as rays or waves without the need of a substance to conduct the energy

a)

Convection

b)

Conduction

c)

Radiation

d)

Heat

132.

Which element in Earth’s atmosphere, essential for human life, is extremely rare in the atmospheres of other planets in our solar system?

a)

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Oxygen

133.

Volcanic eruptions release large quantities of gases into Earth’s early atmosphere.  This process is called –

a)

Stromatolites

b)

Outgassing

c)

Banded-iron

d)

radiation

134.

Most of the oxygen in Earth’s early atmosphere was produced by —

a)

wind

b)

photosynthesis by blue-green algae

c)

release of gas by volcanic eruptions

d)

the effects of the sun

135.

11What is the name of the process that causes Venus’s surface temperature to be so high?

a)

The blanketing process

b)

the ceiling effect

c)

the insulation process

d)

the greenhouse effect

136.

The youngest rocks on the ocean floor are located ____.

a)

near continents

b)

at mid-ocean ridges

c)

far from mid-ocean ridges

d)

near Asia

137.

In sea-floor spreading, molten material rises from the mantle and erupts

a)

in deep-ocean trenches

b)

along the edges of all the continents

c)

along mid-ocean ridges

d)

at the north and south plate

138.
True or False : Sea-floor Spreading adds new material to the ocean floor?
a)
True
b)
False
139.

_______ are mountain chains on the ocean floor.

a)

Sea-floor ridges

b)

Mid-ocean ridges

c)

Tectonic plates

d)

Photosynthesis

140.

Mid-ocean ridges are the sites of intense _________ activity.

a)

emotional

b)

volcanic

c)

earthquake

d)

mathematical

141.

___________ is the hypothesis that states that the continents once formed a single landmass, broke up, and drifted to their present locations.

a)

Continental drift

b)

Sea-floor spreading

c)

Plate tectonics

d)

Mid-ocean range

142.

Old oceanic crust is more dense than new oceanic crust because it is _______________.

a)

hot

b)

moving toward a deep-ocean trench

c)

cool

d)

closer to the mid-ocean ridge

143.

What words describe M? choose all

a)

deep ocean trench

b)

mid ocean ridge

c)

sea floor spreading

d)

subduction

144.

What feature is at C?

a)

Deep ocean trench

b)

Mid ocean ridge

c)

sea floor spreading

d)

subduction

145.

What is the process happening at R?

a)

Deep ocean trench

b)

mid ocean ridge

c)

subduction

d)

sea floor spreading

146.

What evidence supported the Theory of Continental Drift?

a)

Fossils

b)

Land Features

c)

climate Change

d)

All three

147.

What was the name of the Super continent?

a)

Eurasia

b)

Pangaea

c)

America

d)

Colonies

148.

Why are fossils a good type of evidence for Continental Drift?

a)

They were organisms that lived a long time.

b)

They were many types of fossils

c)

They were very old

d)

They were organisms that could not swim over the ocean

149.

What is the land feature called where subduction takes place in the ocean?

a)

ridge

b)

volcano

c)

trench

d)

mountain

150.

The molten material that comes up through the ridge to create new ocean floor

a)

comes from the core

b)

comes from the continental crust

c)

comes from the mantle

d)

all three

151.

What is NOT evidence that supports seafloor spreading -

a)

fossils

b)

relative age of rocks (youngest/oldest)

c)

reversal of magnetism in rocks

d)

strange shape of rocks by ridge

152.

Is the inner core

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

¯\_(ツ)_/¯

153.

What type of features occur at Divergent Plate Boundaries?

a)

Earthquakes.

b)

Volcanoes or volcanic activity.

c)

Mid-Ocean Ridges & Rift Valleys.

d)

All of the above.

154.

What type of features occur at Convergent Boundaries?

a)

Volcanoes.

b)

Mountain Building.

c)

Earthquakes.

d)

All of the Above.

155.

What features are most common with Transform Plate Boundaries?

a)

Earthquakes.

b)

Volcanoes.

c)

Both A & B.

d)

None of these.

156.

This map & picture shows the large amounts of Earthquakes, Volcanoes, & Tectonic Plate Activity in the Pacific Ocean region is know as what?

a)

Lord of the Rings.

b)

The Ring of Destruction.

c)

The Ring of Fire.

d)

The King of the Ring.

157.

What is the distance light travels in one year?

a)

Parsec

b)

Light-year

c)

Parallax

d)

milo-mile

158.

An astronomical unit is...

a)

The average distance between the Earth and the Sun

b)

The average distance between the Sun and Neptune

c)

The diameter of the sun

d)

The time it takes light to travel across our solar system

159.

In comparison to other stars in the sky, the Sun appears brighter because it is–

a)

Bigger

b)

Smaller

c)

Nearer

d)

Further

160.
Identify the different types of stars based on their position on the graph.
161.

Where would you expect to find a star that is very bright but cool in temperature?

162.

At which location on the diagram does a star spend most of its life (fusing hydrogen into helium)?

163.

Great amounts of energy are released in the core of a star as lighter elements combine and form heavier elements during the process of

a)

compaction

b)

condensation

c)

fission

d)

fusion

164.

Which of the following sequences best describes the formation and evolution of stars with masses similar to the Sun?

a)

Protostar, white dwarf, main sequence, red giant

b)

Main sequence, protostar, white dwarf, red giant

c)

Red giant, main sequence, black dwarf

d)

Protostar, main sequence, red giant, white dwarf

165.

What causes clouds of dust and gas to form a protostar?

a)

magnetism

b)

gravity

c)

expansion of matter

d)

cosmic background radiation

166.

Which star has a lower temperature than our sun, but is brighter?

a)

Alderbaran

b)

Barnard's Star

c)

Sirius

d)

Rigel

167.

What is the color of star with the lowest temperatures?

a)

blue

b)

orange

c)

red

d)

yellow

168.

According to the Characteristics of Stars graph, what is the general relationship between temperature and luminosity?

a)

The higher the surface temperature, the less luminous a star.

b)

The higher the surface temperature, the brighter the star.

c)

The lower the surface temperature, the brighter the star.

d)

There is no correlation that can be made between temperature and brightness on the Characteristics of Stars graph.

169.

What DECREASES eccentricity?

a)

A decrease in the distance between the foci

b)

An increase in the distance between the foci

170.

What is Earth's eccentricity?

a)

0.206

b)

0.017

c)

0.093

d)

0.007

171.
Terrestrial planets are usually:
a)
closer to their star than gas giants.
b)
less dense than ice giants.
c)
larger than gas giants.
d)
older than ice giants.
172.
One major difference between the Earth and the Moon is:
a)
the Earth does not have an atmosphere.
b)
The Earth is much smaller than the Moon.
c)
The Moon is much older than the Earth.
d)
The Moon does not have plate tectonics.
173.
What celestial body eventually evolved into our modern solar system?
a)
a nebula
b)
a supernova
c)
a quasar
d)
a galaxy
174.
The group of inner planets are known as:
a)
The Terrestrial Planets
b)
The Gas Giants
c)
The Outer Planets
d)
The Hallow Planets
175.

During the formation of Earth, small space rocks are attracted to each other by

a)

gravitational forces

b)

light forces

c)

solar eclipses

d)

white dwarfs

176.

Which of these orbits is the most eccentric?

a)

Yellow

b)

Pink

c)

Red

d)

Green

177.

Which of these options is most likely to happen at a planet's perihelion? Select all that apply.

a)

The sun will appear the smallest in the sky.

b)

The planet will be moving its fastest.

c)

The planet will be moving its slowest.

d)

The planet will be experiencing its strongest gravitational attraction to the Sun.

e)

The sun will appear biggest in the sky.

178.

Kepler's 1st Law states that planets orbit their home stars in paths called

a)

Circles

b)

Ovals

c)

Ellipses

d)

Ecliptics

179.

Which group of planets are referred to as "jovian"?

a)

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars

b)

Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune

180.

Which planets have a longer period of revolution?

a)

Inner planets (planets closer to the Sun)

b)

Outer planets (planets farther from the Sun)

181.

Which list of three planets and Earth’s Moon, are listed in order of increasing equatorial diameter?

a)

Earth's Moon, Venus, Mars, Mercury

b)

Earth's Moon, Mercury, Mars, Venus

c)

Venus, Earth's Moon, Mercury, Mars

d)

Mars, Mercury, Venus, Earth's Moon

182.

This planet has a higher period of rotation than period of revolution.

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Earth

d)

Mars

183.
Which planet has the shortest day? (HINT: Period of Rotation)
a)
Jupiter
b)
Saturn
c)
Uranus
d)
Neptune
184.

Compared to planet A, planet B has a

a)

weaker gravitational attraction to the star and a shorter period of revolution

b)

weaker gravitational attraction to the star and a longer period of revolution

c)

stronger gravitational attraction to the star and a shorter period of revolution

d)

stronger gravitational attraction to the star and a longer period of revolution

185.

These planets are referred to as the "inner" planets

a)

Terrestrial

b)

Jovian

186.

What spiral galaxy do we live in?

a)

Andromeda Galaxy

b)

Dwarf Galaxy Saggitarius

c)

Milky Way Galaxy

d)

Snickers Galaxy

187.
The bulge of water on the side of the Earth closest to the moon produces ___________.
a)
high tide
b)
low tide
c)
neap tide
d)
spring tide
188.
Which body has the greater effect on Earth's tides?
a)
Sun
b)
Saturn
c)
Moon 
d)
Venus
189.
The Moon has a greater influence on Earth tides than the Sun because...
a)
it is smaller than the Sun
b)
it revolves around the Earth
c)
it is closer to the Earth
190.

During which moon phases will Earth experience the strongest, or greatest difference between high and low tides?

a)

First Quarter and Full Moon

b)

First Quarter and Last Quarter

c)

New Moon and Full Moon

d)

New Moon and Last Quarter

191.
Which positions on Earth would give low tides?
a)
Z & X
b)
W & Y
192.
Which type of eclipse is shown in this picture?
a)
Solar Eclipse
b)
Orbit
c)
Lunar Eclipse
d)
Total Eclipse
193.
Which type of eclipse is shown in the diagram?
a)
Solar Eclipse
b)
Lunar Eclipse
c)
Total Eclipse
d)
Partial Eclipse
194.

The diagram below represents the sun's path at equinox. According to the position of the Sun below, what is a possible time of the location?

a)

9 am

b)

12 noon

c)

6 pm

d)

3 pm

195.

When the sun gets higher in the sky, shadows get ______.

a)

longer

b)

gone

c)

shorter

d)

darker

196.

When the sun gets lower in the sky, shadows get______.

a)

longer

b)

gone

c)

shorter

d)

darker

197.

The sun's path hits 90 degrees during the summer solstice in New York

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Sometimes

198.

What is the shadow direction when the Sun is at location C

a)

East

b)

Northwest

c)

Northeast

d)

West

199.
During which month does the Sun rise north of due east in New York State?
a)
February
b)
October
c)
July
d)
December
200.
Which of the following best describes the tilt of the earth when it is summer in the southern hemisphere?
a)
The northern hemisphere is tilted toward the sun
b)
The northern hemisphere is tilted away from the sun
c)
The norther hemisphere is tilted neither toward or away from the sun
d)
Why are you talking about the northern hemisphere when you asked about the southern hemisphere?
201.

Which date is represented by the diagram?

a)

March 21

b)

June 21

c)

September 21

d)

December 21

202.
The term equinox means....
a)
equal amount of day light and equal amount of night
b)
Equal amount of winter and summer
c)
Equal amounts of hot dogs for everyone
d)
The longest day of the year
203.

In which direction on the horizon does the Sun appear to rise on July 4th in New York State?

a)

due north

b)

due south

c)

north of due east

d)

south of due east

204.

What do shadows on Earth help show?

a)

Earth's rotation

b)

Earth's revolution

c)

Earth's equator

d)

Earth's axis

205.

When the sun rises in the morning, your shadow is _______ and points ________

a)

short, west

b)

long, west

c)

short, east

d)

long, east

206.

A sundial is used to ...

a)

tell the time of day

b)

measure temperature

c)

tell the day of the year

d)

measure the tenths of objects

207.

What is this tool called?

a)

Compass

b)

Sundial

c)

Timer

d)

Telescope

208.

Stars and galaxies release energy. We see this energy as ...

a)

visible light (colors)

b)

mechanical sound waves

c)

heat

d)

satellites

209.

A sample of gas is analyzed, producing the spectrograph in the image. Identify which element the sample is mostly made-up of?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Helium

c)

Neon

d)

Mercury

210.
All stars begin their life in a
a)
Main Sequence
b)
Nebula
c)
Protostar
d)
Black Dwarf
211.
Most of the sun’s energy is a result of
a)
nuclear fusion  
b)
nuclear fission
c)
atomic reactions
d)
coronal mass ejection
212.

Which element(s) are found in the star's spectra below?

a)

Hydrogen only

b)

Hydrogen & Helium

c)

Calcium only

d)

Hydrogen & Calcium

213.
Put the visible light colors in order from longest wavelength to shortest wavelength
a)
Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Orange, Yellow, Red
b)
Red, Yellow, Green, Orange, Violet, Blue, Indigo
c)
Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue, Indigo, Violet
214.

Stars are made of mostly which two gases?

a)

Hydrogen and Helium

b)

Hydrogen and Oxygen

c)

Hydrogen and Nitrogen

d)

Hydrogen and Carbon

215.

How can the composition of a star be determined?

a)

By its brightness

b)

By its distance from Earth

c)

By its absorption spectrum

d)

By its size and shape

216.

The process of fusion happens in a star's

a)

Corona

b)

Convection Zone

c)

Radiative Zone

d)

Core

217.

What force creates the environment needed for nuclear fusion reactions to happen in stars?

a)

Star Wars Force

b)

Gravity

c)

Friction

d)

Normal Force

218.

Main Sequence stars can only fuse up to this element on the periodic table

a)

Gold

b)

Carbon

c)

Helium

d)

Iron

219.

The largest element that any "star" can create is.

a)

Helium

b)

Carbon

c)

Iron

d)

Uranium

220.

Why can't our sun fuse elements together to form Calcium (Ca?)

a)

Because it hasn't enough neutrinos

b)

The temperature of the core will not be hot enough.

c)

Because it's not massive enough and lacks the gravitational force needed

d)

Wait, I think it can

221.

The age of the universe is measured in 10 to 20

a)

thousands of years

b)

millions of years

c)

billions of years

d)

trillions of years

222.

Background radiation detected in space is believed to be evidence that

a)

the universe began with an explosion

b)

the universe is contracting

c)

all matter in the universe is stationary

d)

galaxies are unevenly spaced throughout the universe

223.

Studies of the universe generally indicate that

a)

almost all galaxies appear to be moving away from Earth at tremendous velocities

b)

few galaxies other than our own exist

c)

all galaxies are approximately the same size

d)

all galaxies are spiral shape

224.

Each element on the periodic table can be identified by its

a)

classification as a solid, liquid or gas.

b)

location on the table.

c)

ability to react to form compounds.

d)

unique spectral "fingerprint."

225.

The unknown emissions spectra belongs to the element

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Mercury

c)

Neon

d)

Helium

226.

Spectral Lines

Spectral lines are unique patterns of light that are emitted or absorbed by atoms and molecules when they transition between different energy levels. Each element or compound produces its own distinctive set of spectral lines, often observed in the form of bright lines in emission spectra or dark lines in absorption spectra. These lines occur at specific wavelengths corresponding to the energy differences between electron orbits within atoms. Spectral lines serve as powerful tools for identifying elements in distant stars and galaxies, as well as understanding the physical properties of matter, such as temperature and density.

What is the most likely composition of the unknown star?

a)

Oxygen and Silicon

b)

Helium and Carbon

c)

Carbon and Oxygen

d)

Just Hydrogen