Font size
S
M
L
XL
WorksheetsUNIT 2_ᴀʙ (HG / Ectopic Pregnancy / GTD)
Total questions: 66
Worksheet time: 33mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
This is a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that typically occurs at 5th-6th weeks AOG.
(a)
2.
What is the EXACT CAUSE of Hyperemesis Gravidarum (HG)?
a)
Unknown
b)
↑ Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
c)
↑ Human Placental Lactogen (hPL)
3.
According to research, what primary causes Hyperemesis Gravidarum (HG)?
a)
↑ Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
b)
↑ Human Placental Lactogen (hPL)
c)
↓ Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
d)
↓ Human Placental Lactogen (hPL)
4.
According to research, all of these hormones may cause Hyperemesis Gravidarum (HG) except?
a)
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
b)
Estrogen
c)
Progesterone
d)
Thyroid Hormones
e)
Human Placental Lactogen (hPL)
5.
Initially, which type of acid-base imbalance would a patient with Hyperemesis Gravidarum (HG) be experiecing?
a)
Metabolic Alkalosis
b)
Metabolic Acidosis
c)
Respiratory Alkalosis
d)
Metabolic Acidosis
6.
This is the first-line pharmacological tx given to a patient with Hyperemesis Gravidarum (HG).
a)
Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
b)
Metoclopramide (Plasil)
c)
Methotrexate (Trexall)
d)
Mifepristone (Mifeprex)
e)
Folinic Acid (Leucovorin)
7.
In a patient with Hyperemesis Gravidarum, which one blocks the nausea and vomiting center in the brain?
a)
Metoclopramide (Plasil)
b)
Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
c)
Methotrexate (Trexall)
d)
Mifepristone (Mifeprex)
e)
Folinic Acid (Leucovorin)
8.
Metoclopramide (Plasil) is a...?
a)
ANTIEMETIC = blocks the N/V center in the brain.
b)
ANTIMETABOLITE = inhibits growth of the embryo.
c)
ANTIPROGESTERONE = blocks progesterone causing uterine lining to slough off.
9.
What is the "N/V center of the brain"?
a)
Medulla Oblongata
b)
Hypothalamus
c)
Pons
d)
Cerebrum
e)
Cerebellum
10.
What is the first-line IVF for a patient with Hyperemesis Gravidarum (HG)?
a)
Isotonic
b)
Hypotonic
c)
Hypertonic
11.
What is the preferred first-line isotonic IVF for a patient with Hyperemesis Gravidarum (HG) because it effectively replaces lost electrolytes and restores blood volume?
a)
PLRS
b)
PNSS
12.
If PLRS is the preferred first-line isotonic IVF to a patient with Hyperemesis Gravidarum (HG), can PNSS be also an option?
a)
Yes
b)
No
13.
When oral feeding is not feasible in a patient with Hyperemesis Gravidarum (HG), which TYPE OF FEEDING would deliver nutrients directly into the bloodstream, bypassing the digestive system entirely?
a)
Parenteral Nutrition
b)
Enteral Nutrition
14.
Which veins are used in PPN?
a)
Metacarpal / Brachial
b)
Subclavian / Jugular
15.
Which veins are used in TPN?
a)
Metacarpal / Brachial
b)
Subclavian / Jugular
16.
How much nutrient can be given via PPN?
a)
Partial
b)
Complete
17.
How much nutrient can be given viaTPN?
a)
Partial
b)
Complete
18.
To manage nausea and vomiting, what type of meals should be encouraged?
a)
Small, frequent meals
b)
Large, infrequent meals
c)
High-fat meals
d)
Spicy meals
19.
Which of the following is an example of a bland, dry food that can be offered to a patient experiencing nausea and vomiting?
a)
Crackers
b)
Fried chicken
c)
Pizza
d)
Samgyeopsal
20.
To maintain fluid and electrolyte balance, what parameters should be monitored?
a)
I & O
b)
PR & RR
c)
BTemp & BP
d)
Pain Level
21.
To ensure adequate nutrition, what type of food/diet should be offered?
a)
↑ Carbohydrates
b)
↑ Carbohydrates / ↑ Proteins
c)
↑ Carbohydrates / ↑ Proteins / ↑ Fats
d)
Fruits & Vegestables only
22.
When is the best time to monitor weight?
a)
In the morning
b)
Berefore lunch
c)
In the evening
d)
Any time of the day
e)
Before going to bed
23.
When monitoring weight, all are important conditions except?
a)
In the morning
b)
After urinating
c)
Before breakfast
d)
At the same time each day
e)
Before urinating
24.
Which of the following conditions should be considered when weighing a patient?
a)
After emptying bladder
b)
After exercise
c)
After a large meal
d)
While wearing heavy clothing
25.
This is a pregnancy that occurs outside the uterus.
(a)
26.
At which "part" of the uterus is the DESIRED SITE OF IMPLANTATION?
a)
Fundus, posterior aspect
b)
Fundus, anterior aspect
c)
Corpus
d)
Isthmus
e)
Cervix
27.
At which "layer" of the uterus is the SITE OF IMPLANTATION?
a)
Endometrium
b)
Fundus, posterior aspect
c)
Fundus, anterior aspect
d)
Corpus
e)
Cervix
28.
What are the subsections of the fallopian tube starting from the uterus?
a)
Intramural → Isthmus → Ampulla → Infundibulum
b)
Intramural → Interstitial → Ampulla → Infundibulum
c)
Interstitial → Ampulla → Isthmus → Infundibulum
d)
Interstitial → Ampulla → Isthmus → Infundibulum
29.
IMPLANTATION happens at around how many days after fertilization?
a)
8.0
b)
7.0
c)
6.0
d)
5.0
e)
4.0
30.
The structure that implants into the endometrium is called...?
a)
Blastocyst
b)
Morulla
c)
Zygote
31.
Hemorrhage is a blood loss of approximately how many cc of blood?
a)
> 500 cc
b)
> 600 cc
c)
> 400 cc
d)
> 300 cc
e)
> 200 cc
32.
Which type of shock follows a hemorrhage?
a)
Hypovolemic Shock
b)
Anaphylactic Shock
c)
Cardiogenic Shock
d)
Neurogenic Shock
e)
Septic Shock
33.
This is a bluish or purplish discoloration of the skin around the umbilicus that is seen in a patient with ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
a)
Cullen's Sign
b)
Chadwick's Sign
c)
Hegar's Sign
d)
McDonald's Sign
e)
Goodell's Sign
34.
In a normal pregnancy, the Serial hCG Test result will show which one?
a)
the increase in hCG level DOUBLES every 48 hours
b)
the increase in hCG level is LESSER than expected
35.
In an ectopic pregnancy, the Serial hCG Test result will show which one?
a)
the increase in hCG level DOUBLES every 48 hours
b)
the increase in hCG level is LESSER than expected
36.
Which UTZ is the gold standard for diagnosing ectopic pregnancy?
a)
Transvaginal UTZ
b)
Abdominal (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Transabdominal) UTZ
37.
Which UTZ is preferred to diagnose a pregnancy at 1st trimester?
a)
Transvaginal UTZ
b)
Abdominal (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Transabdominal) UTZ
38.
Which UTZ is preferred to diagnose a pregnancy at 2nd to 3rd trimester?
a)
Transvaginal UTZ
b)
Abdominal (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Transabdominal) UTZ
39.
Which type of anemia is anticipated in a patient with ectopic pregnancy?
a)
Iron Deficiency Anemia
b)
Vitamin B9 Deficiency Anemia
c)
Vitamin B12 Deficiency Anemia
40.
In a CBC result of a patient with ruptured ectopic pregnancy, which one is expected?
a)
Microcytic / Hypochromic
b)
Microcytic / Hyperchromic
c)
Macrocytic / Hypochromic
d)
Macrocytic / Hyperchromic
e)
Microcytic / Normochromic / Megaloblastic
41.
In a CBC result of a patient with ruptured ectopic pregnancy, which one is expected?
a)
↓ Hgb / ↓ Hct / ↓ MCV / ↓ MCHC
b)
↓ Hgb / ↓ Hct / ↑ MCV / ↑ MCHC
c)
↑ Hgb / ↑ Hct / ↓ MCV / ↓ MCHC
d)
↑ Hgb / ↑ Hct / ↓ MCV / ↓ MCHC
e)
↑ Hgb / ↑ Hct / ↑ MCV / ↑ MCHC
42.
What is the patient position in a Transvaginal UTZ?
a)
Lithotomy 𝚘𝚛 Dorsal Recumbent
b)
Supine
43.
What is the patient position in a Abdominal (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Transabdominal) UTZ?
a)
Lithotomy 𝚘𝚛 Dorsal Recumbent
b)
Supine
44.
What is the patient preparation in a Transvaginal UTZ?
a)
Advise to EMPTY BLADDER 𝚘𝚛 urinate.
b)
Advise to FULL BLADDER 𝚘𝚛 drink water.
45.
What is the patient preparation in a Abdominal (𝚊𝚔𝚊 Transabdominal) UTZ?
a)
Advise to EMPTY BLADDER 𝚘𝚛 urinate.
b)
Advise to FULL BLADDER 𝚘𝚛 drink water.
46.
Which drug is the gold-standard pharmacological tx for a patient with ectopic pregnancy?
a)
Methotrexate (Trexall)
b)
Mifepristone (Mifeprex)
c)
Folinic Acid (Leucovorin)
d)
Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
e)
Metoclopramide (Plasil)
47.
Which drug should be made available on-hand in case of Methotrexate (Trexall) toxicity?
a)
Folinic Acid (Leucovorin)
b)
Mifepristone (Mifeprex)
c)
Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
d)
Metoclopramide (Plasil)
48.
Which drug is the gold-standard for therapeutic abortion?
a)
Mifepristone (Mifeprex)
b)
Methotrexate (Trexall)
c)
Folinic Acid (Leucovorin)
d)
Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
e)
Metoclopramide (Plasil)
49.
Methotrexate (Trexall) is a...?
a)
ANTIMETABOLITE = inhibits growth of the embryo.
b)
ANTIPROGESTERONE = blocks progesterone causing uterine lining to slough off.
50.
Mifepristone (Mifeprex) is a...?
a)
ANTIMETABOLITE = inhibits growth of the embryo.
b)
ANTIPROGESTERONE = blocks progesterone causing uterine lining to slough off.
51.
Which SURGICAL APPROACH (how surgeons get in) is used in an UNRUPTURED ectopic pregnancy?
a)
Laparoscopy
b)
Laparotomy
52.
Which SURGICAL APPROACH (how surgeons get in) is used in a RUPTURED ectopic pregnancy?
a)
Laparoscopy
b)
Laparotomy
53.
Which SURGICAL PROCEDURE is used in an UNRUPTURED ectopic pregnancy?
a)
Salpingostomy
b)
Salpingectomy
54.
Which SURGICAL PROCEDDURE is used in a RUPTURED ectopic pregnancy?
a)
Salpingostomy
b)
Salpingectomy
55.
Which SURGICAL PROCEDURE +approach is commonly used in an UNRUPTURED ectopic pregnancy?
a)
Salpingostomy via Laparoscopy
b)
Salpingectomy via Laparotomy
c)
Salpingostomy via Laparotomy
d)
Salpingectomy via Laparoscopy
56.
Which SURGICAL PROCEDURE +approach is commonly used in a RUPTURED ectopic pregnancy?
a)
Salpingostomy via Laparoscopy
b)
Salpingectomy via Laparotomy
c)
Salpingostomy via Laparotomy
d)
Salpingectomy via Laparoscopy
57.
This is a group of rare tumors that develop during pregnancy, arising from the abnormal growth of trophoblast cells.
(a)
58.
Gestational Trophoblastic Disease (GTD) arises abnormal proliferation of which part of a blastocyst?
a)
Trophoblast
b)
Embryoblast
59.
There are TWO ⑵ CLASSIFICATION of Gestational Trophoblastic Disease (GTD). Which one are benign tumors?
a)
Hydatidiform Mole (H-Mole)
b)
Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia (GTN)
60.
There are TWO ⑵ CLASSIFICATION of Gestational Trophoblastic Disease (GTD). Which one are malignant tumors?
a)
Hydatidiform Mole (H-Mole)
b)
Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia (GTN)
61.
There are TWO ⑵ SUBTYPES of Hydatidiform Mole (H-Mole). What is the genetic makeup of Partial H-Mole?
a)
Mother = 23 / Father = 23+23
b)
Mother = 0 / Father = 23+23
62.
There are TWO ⑵ SUBTYPES of Hydatidiform Mole (H-Mole). What is the genetic makeup of Complete H-Mole?
a)
Mother = 23 / Father = 23+23
b)
Mother = 0 / Father = 23+23
63.
Is there a fetus in Partial H-Mole?
a)
YES. But non-viable and has severe abnormalities.
b)
NONE. No fetus or placenta.
64.
Is there a fetus in Complete H-Mole?
a)
YES. But non-viable and has severe abnormalities.
b)
NONE. No fetus or placenta.
65.
Which H-Mole has LOWER RISK developing into malignant tumor.
a)
Partial H-Mole
b)
Complete H-Mole
66.
Which H-Mole has HIGHER RISK developing into malignant tumor.
a)
Partial H-Mole
b)
Complete H-Mole
Reset
