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ADVANCE 1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Step 1: Online contract — Entity M sells anti-virus subscriptions online. Customers click “Buy now”, enter card details, tick “I agree to the terms and conditions”, are charged immediately and receive a confirmation email granting access. Under IFRS 15, can this arrangement be treated as a contract with a customer?

a)

No, because contracts entered into via a website are outside the scope of IFRS 15

b)

No, because revenue cannot be recognised until the customer has used the software for a minimum period

c)

No, because a contract is valid under IFRS 15 only when signed physically by both parties

d)

Yes, because the arrangement creates enforceable rights and obligations and there is evidence of the customer’s approval

2.

Step 1: Collectability — Entity X sells equipment for CU 800,000 to a customer with severe financial difficulties and a history of non‑payment. The goods have been delivered. Under IFRS 15, which statement best explains why X may conclude that a contract does not exist for revenue recognition purposes?

a)

IFRS 15 automatically prohibits contracts with customers that have low credit ratings

b)

Revenue cannot be recognised simply because the goods were delivered close to the year‑end

c)

A contract only exists under IFRS 15 if it is collateralised by bank guarantees

d)

If it is not probable that X will collect the consideration to which it is entitled, the arrangement fails the contract existence criteria in IFRS 15

3.

Step 1: Commercial substance in a group transaction — Parent P “sells” a licence to internally developed software to its wholly‑owned subsidiary S for CU 10 million. Similar licences to independent customers are priced at around CU 1 million. The sale is financed by an intercompany loan from P to S, and immediately after the sale P formally forgives the loan balance. Apart from this transaction, there is no change in the amount, timing or risk of P’s cash flows. Under IFRS 15, why might P conclude that the arrangement does not give rise to revenue in its separate financial statements?

a)

Because intra‑group transactions are eliminated on consolidation, so revenue should not be recognised in the separate financial statements

b)

Because the transaction lacks commercial substance; it does not result in a meaningful change in the amount, timing or risk of P’s cash flows

c)

Because licences of internally developed software are always outside the scope of IFRS 15

d)

Because S is a related party and revenue can never be recognised from related parties

4.

Step 1: Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) — Entity T signs an MoU with a potential customer, stating an intention to cooperate on a future ERP implementation project. The MoU does not specify the detailed scope of work, pricing or payment terms, and is not legally enforceable. Under IFRS 15, how should T treat this MoU?

a)

T cannot treat the MoU as a contract with a customer because enforceable rights and obligations, and payment terms, have not yet been agreed

b)

If T receives any deposit, this automatically creates a contract for IFRS 15 purposes

c)

T can treat the MoU as a contract once it begins preliminary design work

d)

As long as both parties have signed the MoU, IFRS 15 always treats it as a contract

5.

Step 2: Machine plus user training — Entity A sells a machine together with a one‑day user training session. The customer could operate the machine using the user manual without attending the training. The training is scheduled a few weeks after delivery. Under IFRS 15, which statement is most appropriate?

a)

The training is not a performance obligation because it is required to make the machine functional

b)

The training must be combined with the machine in a single performance obligation because they are delivered under one contract

c)

The training is an assurance‑type warranty and should be accounted for under IAS 37 instead of IFRS 15

d)

The training is a separate performance obligation because the customer can benefit from it together with the machine and it is separately identifiable in the context of the contract

6.

Step 2: Software licence plus support — Entity B sells a right‑to‑use software licence plus 12 months of technical support for a single fixed price. The licence provides a functional, stand‑alone version of the software and the support is routinely sold separately to customers. Under IFRS 15, how should the promised goods and services be identified?

a)

As a single performance obligation, because the support is required for the software to be within the scope of IFRS 15

b)

As no performance obligation, because software licences are outside the scope of IFRS 15

c)

As two separate performance obligations: the licence and the support, because each is capable of being distinct and is separately identifiable

d)

As a single performance obligation, because any bundle of goods and services in a contract must be accounted for together

7.

Step 2: Turnkey contract — Entity C enters into a contract to design, build and install a highly customised wastewater treatment plant at a customer’s site. The individual tasks are highly interdependent, and Entity C provides a significant service of integrating them into a single combined output. In identifying performance obligations, how should Entity C treat the promises in the contract?

a)

Only the construction work is a performance obligation; design and installation are pre‑contract activities

b)

None of the promises are performance obligations because the plant is being built on the customer’s site

c)

As a single performance obligation, because the tasks are highly interrelated and Entity C provides a significant integration service

d)

As three separate performance obligations (design, build, install) because they are different types of tasks

8.

Step 2 and Step 5: Customer loyalty points — Entity D operates a supermarket and grants loyalty points when customers buy goods. Each point gives the customer a discount on future purchases that is significant compared with the normal selling price. Under IFRS 15, how should these points be treated?

a)

As part of the cost of inventory sold, with no separate identification

b)

As a separate performance obligation, because the points give the customer a material right to future goods at a discount

c)

As a short‑term payable, but not as part of the contract accounting

d)

As a marketing expense recognised when the points are granted, with no impact on revenue

9.

Step 3: Variable consideration (expected value) — Entity E enters into a consulting contract with a fixed fee of CU 400,000 plus a performance bonus of CU 80,000 if a milestone is achieved before 30 June. At contract inception, Entity E estimates a 70% probability of receiving the bonus. Entity E chooses to use the expected value method to estimate variable consideration and concludes that it is highly probable that including this estimate will not result in a significant revenue reversal. What is the transaction price at contract inception?

a)

CU 480,000, because Entity E should use the most likely amount method

b)

CU 440,000, as IFRS 15 requires a mid‑point estimate for variable consideration

c)

CU 400,000

d)

CU 456,000 (CU 400,000 + CU 80,000 × 70%)

10.

Step 3: Early payment discount — Entity F sells goods with a list price of CU 500,000 and offers a 4% discount if customers pay within 10 days. Based on past experience, Entity F expects that customers will almost always take the discount. Under IFRS 15, what is the most appropriate transaction price at contract inception?

a)

CU 500,000, because the list price is fixed in the contract

b)

CU 480,000, reflecting the discount that Entity F expects customers to take

c)

CU 500,000, with any discount recognised later as a finance cost

d)

CU 480,000, but only once the customer actually pays within 10 days

11.

Step 3: Significant financing component — Entity G sells equipment for CU 1.2 million, payable in a single instalment three years after delivery. The prevailing market interest rate for a similar credit arrangement is 9% per year. The payment terms give rise to a significant financing component. Under IFRS 15, how should Entity G account for the consideration?

a)

Recognise revenue of CU 1.2 million at the date of delivery; the time value of money is ignored

b)

Recognise revenue at the present value of CU 1.2 million at the date of delivery, and recognise the difference as interest income over three years

c)

Recognise revenue of CU 1.2 million evenly over the three years

d)

Recognise revenue only when the cash is collected in three years’ time

12.

Step 3: Non-cash consideration (crypto) — Entity H designs and builds a website for a start-up in exchange for a fixed number of units of a listed cryptocurrency. Control of the service transfers to the customer over a short period, and the fair value of the cryptocurrency can be measured reliably on the date when control transfers. Under IFRS 15, how should Entity H determine the transaction price initially?

a)

Based on the carrying amount of the costs incurred to develop the website

b)

Based on the average of the cryptocurrency’s market price over the entire contract term

c)

Based on the cryptocurrency’s market price at the end of the reporting period

d)

Based on the cryptocurrency’s fair value at the date when control of the service transfers to the customer

13.

Step 4: Allocation using stand-alone selling prices — Entity J sells a package comprising a perpetual software licence and one year of maintenance for a total price of CU 132,000. The stand-alone selling prices are CU 100,000 for the licence and CU 60,000 for the maintenance. How should Entity J allocate the transaction price?

a)

Licence CU 82,500; maintenance CU 49,500

b)

Licence CU 66,000; maintenance CU 66,000

c)

Licence CU 132,000; maintenance CU 0

d)

Licence CU 100,000; maintenance CU 32,000

14.

Step 4: Estimating stand-alone selling price (cost-plus) — Entity K sells a machine plus a three-year maintenance service for a total contract price of CU 400,000. The machine has a stand-alone selling price of CU 350,000. The maintenance service is not sold separately, but expected costs are CU 30,000 per year and Entity K normally applies a 25% margin to similar services. Under IFRS 15, how should Entity K determine the allocation of the transaction price?

a)

Recognise revenue for the machine only; recognise the maintenance as an expense when costs are incurred

b)

Allocate CU 200,000 to the machine and CU 200,000 to the maintenance, because there are two promised goods/services

c)

Estimate the stand-alone selling price of the maintenance using a cost-plus approach, then allocate CU 400,000 between the machine and the maintenance based on relative stand-alone selling prices

d)

Allocate the entire CU 400,000 to the machine because its stand-alone selling price is known

15.

Step 4: Faithful representation and bias — A company sells a machine together with a long-term maintenance contract. To reduce current-period revenue and “smooth” profits, management deliberately allocates most of the transaction price to the maintenance service, even though this allocation does not reflect the relative stand-alone selling prices. Which statement best reflects IFRS 15?

a)

This is acceptable if the auditor agrees with the allocation and documents the judgement

b)

This is acceptable as long as the allocation does not reduce taxable income

c)

This is acceptable if the customer agrees to the allocation in the contract

d)

This is not acceptable because the allocation does not faithfully represent the substance of the transaction and is biased

16.

Step 5: Subscription service — over time — Entity L sells 12-month access to an online learning platform. Customers pay the full subscription fee in advance, and Entity L’s performance obligation is to provide access throughout the 12-month period. Under IFRS 15, how should revenue be recognised?

a)

Recognise revenue only at the end of the 12-month period

b)

Recognise revenue over time, typically on a straight-line basis over the 12 months

c)

Recognise all revenue when the cash is received at the start of the subscription

d)

Recognise revenue when the customer first logs in to the platform

17.

Step 5: Construction on customer’s land — over time — Entity M constructs a factory building on land owned by a customer. The building has no alternative use to Entity M, and the contract gives Entity M an enforceable right to payment for performance completed to date if the customer cancels the contract. Under IFRS 15, how should Entity M recognise revenue?

a)

Recognise revenue at a point in time when the building is completed and handed over

b)

Recognise revenue over time by measuring progress towards completion, for example using a cost-to-cost method

c)

Recognise revenue only when the customer has paid the full contract price

d)

Do not recognise revenue because the building is located on the customer’s land

18.

Step 5: Consignment arrangement — Entity N ships goods to a dealer under a consignment arrangement. Legal title and the majority of risks and rewards remain with Entity N until the dealer sells the goods to an end customer. The dealer may return unsold goods to Entity N. Under IFRS 15, when should Entity N recognise revenue?

a)

As soon as the dealer obtains the right to return unsold goods to Entity N

b)

When the dealer sells the goods to an end customer, because control of the goods passes to a customer at that point

c)

When the dealer signs a goods receipt note acknowledging physical delivery

d)

When the goods leave Entity N’s warehouse and are delivered to the dealer

19.

Step 5: Bill-and-hold — Entity O manufactures specialised equipment for a customer. At the customer’s request, Entity O invoices the customer but retains physical possession of the equipment for several months because the customer’s warehouse is not yet ready. The equipment is identified separately as belonging to the customer, is ready for physical transfer, cannot be redirected to another customer, and the customer has an unconditional right to call for delivery at any time. When may Entity O recognise revenue under IFRS 15?

a)

Only when the equipment is physically delivered to the customer’s warehouse

b)

Never, because physical possession is a necessary condition for control

c)

When the customer pays the invoice, regardless of other conditions

d)

When the bill-and-hold criteria in IFRS 15 are met and control of the equipment has transferred to the customer, even though physical possession remains with Entity O

20.

Step 5: Installation and testing are critical

Entity P sells a production line that must be installed and tested by Entity P before it can operate as intended by the customer. Entity P delivers the equipment to the customer’s site near year-end but has not yet performed the installation or testing. Under IFRS 15, how should Entity P treat revenue from this contract at the reporting date?

a)

Entity P should not recognise revenue for the production line until the installation and testing – which are critical to the customer’s ability to obtain control and use the asset as intended – have been completed

b)

Entity P may recognise the full contract price as revenue when the equipment arrives at the customer’s site, because the physical risks of ownership have transferred

c)

Entity P must always recognise revenue from such contracts over time, irrespective of the contract terms and facts

d)

Entity P may recognise revenue equal to the cost of the equipment on delivery and recognise the remaining margin after installation and testing

21.

IFRS 15: Specific Arrangements (Right of return)

An entity sells goods with a 30-day right of return (for reasons other than defects). Under IFRS 15, at the time of sale the entity should:


a)

Recognise revenue in full and recognise an expense when returns occur

b)

Recognise revenue for goods not expected to be returned, recognise a refund liability, and recognise an asset for the right to recover products

c)

Recognise no revenue until the return period ends

d)

Recognise revenue net of returns but never recognise any liability

22.

A start-up retailer offers a right of return but has no history and cannot reasonably estimate returns. Returns are expected to be highly volatile. Which approach is most consistent with IFRS 15?

a)

Always recognise revenue in full because the customer paid

b)

Recognise revenue only after management approves a return estimate

c)

Recognise revenue and record no refund liability until returns exist

d)

Apply the constraint on variable consideration and recognise revenue only to the extent it is highly probable there will be no significant reversal (possibly very little/none initially)

23.

(Right of return—measurement of return asset)

The “asset for the right to recover products from customers” is initially measured at:

a)

The former carrying amount of inventory (adjusted for expected recovery costs and any expected reduction in value)

b)

The forecast selling price of returned goods

c)

The contract selling price of the goods

d)

Fair value less costs to sell

24.

(Right of return vs defective goods)

A customer may return goods only if defective. Which statement is most appropriate under IFRS 15?

a)

This is a right of return; recognise a refund liability

b)

This creates a separate performance obligation

c)

This is generally an assurance-type warranty situation (not a right of return for convenience)

d)

Revenue must be deferred until the warranty period ends

25.

(Right of return—concept test)

Which statement best describes IFRS 15’s view of a general right of return?

a)

 It is a form of variable consideration, not a separate performance obligation

b)

 It is always a separate performance obligation

c)

It is always accounted for under IAS 37

d)

It automatically prevents contract existence

26.

(Repurchase—financing arrangement)

Entity A “sells” equipment for CU 1,000,000 and simultaneously enters a forward to repurchase it after 2 years for CU 1,150,000. Under IFRS 15, this arrangement is most likely:

a)

Two separate contracts (sale + derivative) with revenue at sale date

b)

A financing arrangement (customer does not obtain control)

c)

A sale with a right of return

d)

A lease

27.

(Repurchase—lease)

Updated for precision: Entity B sells equipment for CU 1,000,000 and retains a call option to repurchase it after 3 years for CU 800,000. The expected market value at that time is CU 1,200,000. Because the repurchase price is lower than the original selling price, this arrangement is most likely:

a)

A lease (customer obtains the right to use, while control does not fully transfer)

b)

A completed sale (control transfers)

c)

A sale with a right of return

d)

A financing arrangement

28.

(Repurchase—put option, customer incentive)

Updated for precision: Entity C sells an asset for CU 1,000,000 and grants the customer a put option to sell it back for CU 1,100,000 (which is higher than the expected market value of CU 900,000 at the option date). The customer has a significant economic incentive to exercise the put. This is most likely:

a)

A financing arrangement

b)

A bill‑and‑hold sale

c)

A consignment arrangement

d)

A normal sale

29.

(Repurchase—put option, no incentive)

Updated for precision: Entity D sells an asset for CU 1,000,000 and grants a put option at a repurchase price of CU 800,000 (which is lower than the expected market value of CU 900,000). The customer has no significant economic incentive to exercise the put option. This arrangement is most likely:

a)

A financing arrangement

b)

A lease

c)

Not a contract under IFRS 15

d)

A sale with a right of return (i.e., treat like variable consideration/returns-style accounting)

30.

Which statement is most accurate about repurchase agreements (forward/call) in IFRS 15?

a)

Control always transfers on delivery because legal title transfer

b)

Repurchase agreements are always accounted for as derivatives under IFRS 9

c)

Control always transfers because the customer can physically use the asset

d)

The customer generally does not obtain control if the entity has an obligation/right to repurchase; classification depends on repurchase pricing (lease vs financing)

31.

(Bill-and-hold—criteria)

Revenue may be recognised in a bill-and-hold arrangement only if:

a)

The customer has paid and legal title transferred

b)

The customer signed the invoice and the goods are insured

c)

The reason for bill-and-hold is substantive, the goods are separately identified, the goods are ready for physical transfer, and the entity cannot redirect the goods

d)

The goods remain in the entity’s warehouse for less than 30 days

32.

Entity E invoices a customer for goods, identifies them as the customer’s goods, but final testing is incomplete. Under IFRS 15, revenue recognition is:

a)

Appropriate if the customer paid

b)

Not appropriate because the goods are not ready for physical transfer

c)

Appropriate if legal title transferred

d)

Appropriate because billing occurred

33.

In a bill-and-hold request, the seller can still substitute the goods and deliver the same product to another customer if needed. Under IFRS 15, this most likely means:

a)

Revenue must be recognised because risks have transferred

b)

The bill-and-hold criteria are not met because the seller can redirect the goods

c)

Revenue must be split 50/50 between delivery and storage

d)

The arrangement is automatically a consignment

34.

Entity F sells goods and, at the customer’s request, stores them for 6 months. Storage is separately priced and represents a distinct service that can be provided by other warehousing companies. Under IFRS 15, the best view is:

a)

Storage is never a performance obligation

b)

Storage is a warranty

c)

There are two performance obligations; recognise goods revenue when control transfers and recognise storage revenue over time

d)

Storage is always included in the sale of goods

35.

Under a consignment arrangement, Entity G ships goods to a dealer; the dealer may return unsold goods and does not have an unconditional obligation to pay. Revenue should be recognised:

a)

When the end customer places an order

b)

When the dealer signs the delivery note

c)

When the dealer sells the goods to an end customer

d)

On shipment to the dealer

36.

Which combination most strongly indicates a consignment arrangement (not a sale to the dealer)?

a)

Dealer pays upfront and earns a fixed commission

b)

Entity controls the goods until a specified event (sale to end customer); dealer can return goods; dealer has no unconditional obligation to pay

c)

Dealer sets its own price and bears all inventory risk

d)

Legal title transfers to dealer; dealer cannot return; dealer must pay within 30 days

37.

Entity H has transferred goods/services and satisfied its performance obligation, but cannot issue an invoice until the customer signs a non-substantive acceptance certificate. Prior to signature, the right to consideration is conditional. How should Entity H present the right to consideration?

a)

As a contract asset (right to consideration is still conditional on something other than the passage of time)

b)

As a receivable

c)

As inventory

d)

As revenue (already earned) with no asset

38.

Entity I receives payment in advance for a 12-month subscription service. At receipt of cash, Entity I should recognise:

a)

Revenue immediately because cash was received

b)

A contract liability, then recognise revenue over time as the service is provided

c)

An expense because it relates to future periods

d)

A receivable because invoice is issued

39.

Which disclosure is generally required about remaining performance obligations (subject to practical expedients)?

a)

Only cash collected from customers

b)

The aggregate transaction price allocated to remaining performance obligations and when the entity expects to recognise it as revenue

c)

Only segment information

d)

Only total contract liabilities at year-end

40.

The main objective of disaggregating revenue disclosures in IFRS 15 is to:

a)

Depict how economic factors affect the nature, amount, timing, and uncertainty of revenue and cash flows

b)

Match revenue with tax reporting categories

c)

Avoid providing information about performance obligations

d)

Reduce volatility in reported revenue

41.

Under IFRS 16, a lessee is required to recognise a lease when:

a)

The lease term exceeds 12 months

b)

Ownership of the asset transfers at the end of the lease

c)

The contract value exceeds USD 100,000

d)

The lessee has the right to control the use of the asset during the lease term

42.

The asset recognised by the lessee on the balance sheet under IFRS 16 is called:

a)

Deferred asset

b)

Leasehold property

c)

Right-of-use asset

d)

Operating asset

43.

The liability recognised by the lessee at the lease commencement date is called:

a)

Operating lease payable

b)

Lease liability

c)

Accrued lease cost

d)

Deferred lease obligation

44.

In which case is a lessee exempt from recognizing a right‑of‑use asset and lease liability under IFRS 16?

a)

When leasing an asset with a high value

b)

When the lease is short‑term or the asset is of low value

c)

When leasing an intangible asset

d)

When the lessor is a not‑for‑profit entity

45.

Depreciation of the right‑of‑use asset for a lessee is recognized as:

a)

Operating expense

b)

Finance cost

c)

Deferred tax expense

d)

Reduction in retained earnings

46.

Under IFRS 16, the interest expense related to the lease liability is:

a)

Reported under investing activities in the cash flow statement

b)

Recognized as a finance cost in the income statement

c)

Classified as accrued expenses on the balance sheet

d)

Capitalized into the right‑of‑use asset

47.

At initial recognition, the value of the right‑of‑use asset is generally based on:

a)

The present value of lease payments

b)

The purchase price paid by the lessor

c)

The cost of transportation and installation

d)

The fair value of the leased asset

48.

A contract qualifies as a lease under IFRS 16 only if:

a)

The lessor is a commercial entity

b)

It contains an identified asset and the lessee has the right to control its use

c)

The lease term is more than 12 months

d)

The lease payments exceed a materiality threshold

49.

Control of the use of an asset exists for the lessee when the lessee:

a)

Can decide who maintains the asset

b)

Has the right to redesign the asset

c)

Can direct how and for what purpose the asset is used

d)

Signs a purchase option contract

50.

Failure to recognize a right‑of‑use asset and lease liability will:

a)

Increase non‑current assets

b)

Increase equity

c)

Understate both total assets and liabilities

d)

Increase finance costs

51.

A lessee enters into a 3‑year lease with annual payments of $10,000 payable at year‑end. The implicit rate is 5%. What is the present value of the lease liability at inception (rounded)?

a)

$28,610

b)

$27,290

c)

$30,000

d)

$25,000

52.

Using the result from the 3‑year lease PV of $28,610, which is the correct journal entry at lease commencement?

a)

Dr Right‑of‑use asset 30,000/CrLeaseliability30,000 / Cr Lease liability 30,000

b)

Dr Lease expense 10,000/CrCash10,000 / Cr Cash 10,000

c)

Dr Right‑of‑use asset 28,610/CrLeaseliability28,610 / Cr Lease liability 28,610

d)

Dr Equipment 28,610/CrLeasepayable28,610 / Cr Lease payable 28,610

53.

For the lease with opening liability $28,610 at 5%, what is the Year 1 interest expense before rounding?

a)

$1,430

b)

$1,000

c)

$1,500

d)

$2,000

54.

If there is no residual value, depreciation of the right‑of‑use asset is calculated using:

a)

The fair value of the asset

b)

Revaluation model at each reporting date

c)

Using total lease payments

d)

Present value of lease payments : lease term

55.

After the commencement date, how is the lease liability measured (excluding modifications):

a)

Increased by interest and reduced by lease payments

b)

Revalued to fair value

c)

Written off evenly

d)

Remains unchanged

56.

Following initial recognition, the right‑of‑use asset is:

a)

Revalued annually

b)

Depreciated over lease term with impairment

c)

Held at original value

d)

Adjusted for changes in discount rate

57.

A 5‑year lease has $20,000 annual payments and a 6% discount rate. What is the present value of the lease liability?

a)

$100,000

b)

$84,220

c)

$94,160

d)

$105,000

58.

First lease payment at end of Year 1 (from Q17). What is the correct journal entry?

a)

Dr Lease liability 20,000/CrCash20,000 / Cr Cash 20,000

b)

Dr Lease liability 15,000/DrInterest15,000 / Dr Interest 5,000 / Cr Cash $20,000

c)

Dr Depreciation 16,844/CrAccumulateddepreciation16,844 / Cr Accumulated depreciation 16,844

d)

Dr Interest 5,053/DrLeaseliability5,053 / Dr Lease liability 14,947 / Cr Cash $20,000

59.

Which income statement items are directly affected each year for a lessee under IFRS 16?

a)

Rent expense and cost of goods sold

b)

Interest and depreciation

c)

Operating profit and other income

d)

Finance cost and lease revenue

60.

When should the right‑of‑use asset be depreciated over the lease term rather than the asset’s useful life?

a)

When fair value is not known

b)

When ownership is not expected to transfer

c)

Always under IFRS 16

d)

When there's a purchase option

61.

Under IFRS 16, how does a lessor classify leases?

a)

 Operating lease and finance lease

b)

Short-term lease and long-term lease

c)

Simple lease and complex lease

d)

Sales lease and purchase lease

62.

A lease is classified as a finance lease by the lessor when:

a)

The lease term is less than 12 months

b)

The leased asset is intangible

c)

Substantially all risks and rewards of ownership are transferred to the lessee

d)

The lessor retains significant risks related to the asset

63.

Under an operating lease, how does the lessor account for the leased asset?

a)

Derecognizes the asset from the balance sheet

b)

Recognizes a lease receivable

c)

Keeps the asset on the balance sheet and depreciates it

d)

Reclassifies the asset as investment property

64.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a finance lease from the lessor's perspective?

a)

Ownership transfers to lessee at end of lease

b)

Lease term covers the major part of the asset's economic life

c)

Present value of lease payments approximates fair value

d)

Lessor retains significant risks of ownership

65.

Under a finance lease, what does the lessor recognize at the lease commencement date?

a)

Operating income

b)

Deferred revenue

c)

Right-of-use asset

d)

Lease receivable equal to the net investment in the lease

66.

In an operating lease, lease income is typically recognized by the lessor:

a)

At the start of the lease

b)

At fair value of the leased asset

c)

When lease payments are received

d)

On a straight-line basis over the lease term

67.

Which of the following is included in the lessor’s balance sheet under a finance lease?

a)

Right-of-use asset

b)

Unearned income

c)

Lease receivable

d)

Deferred tax asset

68.

How does a lessor depreciate a leased asset under an operating lease?

a)

Based on total lease payments

b)

Using the lease term

c)

Over its useful life

d)

It is not depreciated

69.

Which of the following would reduce the lease receivable balance during the lease term in a finance lease?

a)

Interest income

b)

Revaluation of the asset

c)

Cash received from lessee

d)

Accrued rent expense

70.

When is a leased asset derecognized from the lessor’s balance sheet?

a)

On the lease commencement date for a finance lease

b)

When impairment is recognized

c)

When the asset is revalued

d)

At the end of the lease term

71.

A lessor enters a finance lease with a fair value of 120,000 and expected lease payment of 25,000 annually for 5 years. The discount rate is 6%. What is the net investment in the lease at inception (rounded)?

a)

$100,000

b)

$120,000

c)

$105,105

d)

$125,000

72.

In a finance lease, which journal entry does the lessor make at the commencement date?

a)

Dr Lease liability / Cr Right-of-use asset

b)

Dr Cash / Cr Revenue

c)

Dr Unearned revenue / Cr Lease income

d)

Dr Lease receivable / Cr Equipment

73.

A lessor receives a lease payment of 25,000 under a finance lease. At the date of payment, interest income of 6,000 has not yet been accrued. What amount should reduce the lease receivable?

a)

$6,000

b)

$19,000

c)

$31,000

d)

$25,000

74.

What is the lessor’s typical income statement impact in a finance lease?

a)

Rent income only

b)

Interest income only

c)

Interest income and cost of goods sold (if applicable)

d)

Interest income and lease receivable revaluation

75.

Under an operating lease, how does the lessor calculate depreciation of the leased asset?

a)

Using fair value model

b)

Over the lease term using lease revenue

c)

Based on the asset’s useful life and cost

d)

Based on the present value of lease payments

76.

What is the effect on the balance sheet of the lessor at lease commencement in a finance lease?

a)

Right-of-use asset is recognized

b)

Operating lease liability is recorded

c)

No change to total assets or liabilities

d)

Lease receivable increases, asset derecognized

77.

In a finance lease, what component of the lease payment generates income for the lessor over time?

a)

Lease incentives

b)

Interest income

c)

Service income

d)

Depreciation

78.

What is the net impact on the income statement if a lessor earns 10,000 lease income and records 10,000 lease income and records 6,000 depreciation in an operating lease?

a)

Profit before tax decreases by $6,000

b)

Profit before tax increases by $10,000

c)

Profit before tax increases by $4,000

d)

No impact until the lease ends

79.

Under a finance lease, which income item does a lessor typically recognize each year in the income statement?

a)

Dividend income

b)

Deferred revenue

c)

Interest income

d)

Rental income

80.

In a finance lease, what happens to the leased asset on the lessor’s balance sheet at lease commencement?

a)

It is depreciated over the lease term

b)

It is derecognized and replaced by a lease receivable

c)

It is transferred to right-of-use asset

d)

It is revalued and retained on the balance sheet

81.

Ancord Ltd purchased a plot of land for investment purposes at a cost of $8 million on 1 July 20X8. On 30 June 20X10, the land was revalued at $10 million. The company uses the fair value model. What is the impact on profit or loss? 

a)

Do not recognize any gain

b)

Recognize a gain of $2 million in the income statement

c)

Record a $2 million gain in OCI

d)

Continue carrying the land at $8 million

82.

Ancord Ltd bought a building for 8 million, of which 5 million is land and $3 million is the building. The company uses the cost model and depreciates the building over 50 years, straight-line, with zero residual value. What is the carrying amount on 30 June 20X10?

a)

$7.50 million

b)

$7.80 million

c)

$8.00 million

d)

$7.88 million

83.

A property purchased for $12 million on 1 January 20X6 was reclassified as investment property on 30 June 20X20. Fair value on 30 June: $13.5 million; on 31 December: $14.0 million. Fair value model is applied. What gain is recognized in 20X20?

a)

$2.0 million

b)

No gain

c)

$0.5 million

d)

$1.5 million

84.

A property purchased for $8 million (land: $5 million; building: $3 million), depreciated over 50 years using cost model, was sold for $9.5 million after 2 years. What is the gain on disposal?

a)

$0.50 million

b)

$1.62 million

c)

$1.50 million

d)

$1.38 million

85.

Which of the following qualifies as investment property?

a)

Factory used in manufacturing

b)

Land held for capital appreciation

c)

Warehouse for storing inventory

d)

Building for company operations

86.

How is investment property initially measured?

a)

At net realizable value

b)

At present value of rental income

c)

At market value on acquisition date

d)

At cost, including directly attributable costs

87.

When should owner-occupied property be reclassified as investment property?

a)

When used to earn rental income

b)

When lease agreement is signed

c)

At the start of the year

d)

At year-end

88.

What must be disclosed when using the cost model for investment property?

a)

List of tenants and leases

b)

Historical market values

c)

Rental yield of the asset

d)

Fair value if measurable reliably

89.

How is an increase in fair value of investment property recognized under the fair value model?

a)

Not recognized

b)

In profit or loss

c)

Deferred in equity

d)

Through OCI

90.

How is depreciation treated under the cost model? 

a)

 Not required 

b)

Based on market value 

c)

Straight-line over useful life

d)

Based on rental income pattern 

91.

How is a gain on disposal of investment property treated? 

a)

Reported in OCI 

b)

Deducted from revaluation surplus 

c)

 Recognized in profit or loss

d)

Ignored if not material

92.

Which model recognizes upward revaluations in OCI? 

a)

Fair value model under IAS 40 

b)

Revaluation model under IAS 16

c)

Cost model under IAS 16

d)

Both models

93.

Which model requires depreciation after revaluation?

a)

Revaluation model under IAS 16

b)

Fair value model under IAS 40

c)

Both models

d)

Neither model

94.

What happens to the revaluation surplus when PPE is derecognized? 

a)

Transferred to profit or loss 

b)

Reversed through OCI 

c)

Remains in equity as retained earnings 

d)

Revalued again

95.

Under IAS 40 fair value model, is depreciation required?

a)

 Yes, based on fair value

b)

Yes, but offset by revaluation

c)

No depreciation is recognized

d)

Depreciation is recorded in OCI


96.

How are downward fair value changes under IAS 40 treated?

a)

OCI

b)

Revaluation reserve

c)

Profit or loss

d)

Retrospective restatement

97.

How do increases in asset value affect equity differently under IAS 16 and IAS 40? 

a)

 IAS 16: OCI; IAS 40: Profit or loss

b)

 IAS 16: Profit; IAS 40: OCI 

c)

Both in OCI

d)

Both in equity

98.

Which model allows revaluation gains without affecting profit or loss?

a)

Fair value model under IAS 40 

b)

Revaluation model under IAS 16

c)

Cost model under IAS 40

d)

None

99.

Are fair value gains under IAS 40 recorded as revaluation surplus? 

a)

Yes, same as IAS 16

b)

No, recorded in OCI

c)

No, recorded in profit or loss

d)

Yes, under retained earnings

100.

What best summarizes the key difference in treatment of fair value gains between IAS 16 and IAS 40?

a)

IAS 16: OCI with depreciation; IAS 40: Profit or loss without depreciation

b)

Both models use OCI

c)

IAS 16 uses cost model only

d)

IAS 40 applies revaluation surplus