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RIP-MET

Total questions: 124

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a

a)

movement of air

b)

heat exchange

c)

pressure differential

2.

What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points?

a)

variation of terrain elevation

b)

unequal heating of the Earth's surface

c)

Coriolis force

3.

The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference is primarily due to

a)

stronger Coriolis force at the surface

b)

friction between the wind and the surface

c)

stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes

4.

Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by

a)

cool, dense air moving inland from over the water

b)

water absorbing and radiating heat faster than the land

c)

warm, dense air moving inland from over the water

5.

The development of thermals depends upon

a)

temperature inversions

b)

solar heating

c)

a counterclockwise circulation of air

6.

The boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a

a)

front

b)

frontolysis

c)

frontogenesis

7.

One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in

a)

wind direction

b)

type of precipitation

c)

stability of the air mass

8.

One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is

a)

an increase in cloud coverage

b)

an increase in relative humidity

c)

a change in temperature

9.

If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach?

a)

wind-shear turbulence

b)

steady rain

c)

precipitation static

10.

A nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is known as a

a)

squall line

b)

prefrontal system

c)

dry line

11.

What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?

a)

high humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions

b)

lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover

c)

high humidity, high temperature, and cumulus clouds

12.

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

a)

dissipating

b)

mature

c)

cumulus

13.

Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the

a)

downdraft stage

b)

cumulus stage

c)

mature stage

14.

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?

a)

frequent lightning

b)

roll cloud

c)

continuous updraft

15.

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

a)

the appearance of an anvil top

b)

maximum growth rate of the clouds

c)

precipitation beginning to fall

16.

Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are

a)

steady-state thunderstorms

b)

squall line thunderstorms

c)

warm front thunderstorms

17.

Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?

a)

heavy rain

b)

hail

c)

lightning

18.

One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is

a)

small temperature/dewpoint spread

b)

stratiform clouds

c)

visible moisture

19.

In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate?

a)

freezing rain

b)

cumulus clouds with below freezing temperatures

c)

freezing drizzle

20.

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there

a)

has been cold frontal passage

b)

is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude

c)

are thunderstorms in the area

21.

An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears stationary, but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more, is referred to as

a)

a lenticular cloud

b)

an inactive frontal cloud

c)

a funnel cloud

22.

Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as

a)

roll clouds

b)

mammatocumulus clouds

c)

standing lenticular clouds

23.

Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow

a)

across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.

b)

parallel to a mountain peak, and the air is stable.

c)

down a mountain valley, and the air is unstable.

24.

Where does wind shear occur?

a)

At all altitudes, in all directions.

b)

Only at lower altitudes.

c)

Only at higher altitudes.

25.

A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least

a)

10 knots.

b)

25 knots.

c)

15 knots.

26.

When may hazardous wind shear be expected?

a)

In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.

b)

When stable air crosses a mountain barrier where it tends to flow in layers forming lenticular clouds.

c)

Following frontal passage when stratocumulus clouds form indicating mechanical mixing.

27.

If the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and decreasing, and the temperature is 62F62^\circ\mathrm{F} , what type weather is most likely to develop?

a)

Fog or low clouds.

b)

Freezing precipitation.

c)

Thunderstorms.

28.

What is meant by the term "dewpoint"?

a)

The temperature at which dew will always form.

b)

The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.

c)

The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal.

29.

The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the

a)

stability of the air.

b)

dewpoint.

c)

air temperature.

30.

What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?

a)

Evaporation and sublimation.

b)

Heating and condensation.

c)

Supersaturation and evaporation.

31.

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?

a)

The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing when small droplets of moisture fall on the surface.

b)

The temperature of the surrounding air is at or below freezing when small drops of moisture fall on the collecting surface.

c)

The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing.

32.

Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when

a)

water vapor is present.

b)

water vapor condenses.

c)

relative humidity reaches 100 percent.

33.

Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?

a)

Rain-induced fog.

b)

Upslope fog.

c)

Steam fog.

34.

In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?

a)

A warm, moist air mass on the windward side of mountains.

b)

A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea.

c)

An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.

35.

What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?

a)

Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water.

b)

The movement of cold air over much warmer water.

c)

Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.

36.

What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist?

a)

Radiation fog and ice fog.

b)

Steam fog and ground fog.

c)

Advection fog and upslope fog.

37.

Clouds are divided into four families according to their

a)

outward shape.

b)

composition.

c)

height range.

38.

The suffix "nimbus," used in naming clouds, means

a)

a rain cloud.

b)

a middle cloud containing ice pellets.

c)

a cloud with extensive vertical development.

39.

The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and

a)

unstable air containing an excess of condensation nuclei.

b)

unstable, moist air.

c)

either stable or unstable air.

40.

What clouds have the greatest turbulence?

a)

Towering cumulus.

b)

Nimbostratus.

c)

Cumulonimbus.

41.

What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?

a)

Cirrus clouds.

b)

Nimbostratus clouds.

c)

Towering cumulus clouds.

42.

At approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 82F82^\circ\mathrm{F} and the dewpoint is 38F38^\circ\mathrm{F} ?

a)

9,000 feet AGL.

b)

11,000 feet AGL.

c)

10,000 feet AGL.

43.

What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1,000 feet MSL is 70F70^\circ\mathrm{F} and the dewpoint is 48F48^\circ\mathrm{F} ?

a)

5,000 feet MSL.

b)

6,000 feet MSL.

c)

4,000 feet MSL.

44.

What is a characteristic of stable air?

a)

Unlimited visibility

b)

Cumulus clouds

c)

Stratiform clouds

45.

Moist, stable air flowing upslope can be expected to

a)

Produce stratus type clouds

b)

Cause showers and thunderstorms

c)

Develop convective turbulence

46.

If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected?

a)

Stratus clouds with little vertical development

b)

Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence

c)

Stratus clouds with considerable associated turbulence

47.

What are characteristics of unstable air?

a)

Nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility

b)

Turbulence and good surface visibility

c)

Turbulence and poor surface visibility

48.

A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?

a)

Smooth air

b)

Turbulent air

c)

Showery precipitation

49.

Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of

a)

Cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence

b)

Stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence

c)

Stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence

50.

What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?

a)

Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation

b)

Stratiform clouds and showery precipitation

c)

Poor visibility and smooth air

51.

What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere?

a)

Actual lapse rate

b)

Surface temperature

c)

Atmospheric pressure

52.

What would decrease the stability of an air mass?

a)

Decrease in water vapor

b)

Warming from below

c)

Cooling from below

53.

What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?

a)

An unstable layer of air

b)

A stable layer of air

c)

Chinook winds on mountain slopes

54.

The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by

a)

Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain

b)

The movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air

c)

Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night

55.

A temperature inversion would most likely result in which weather condition?

a)

Good visibility in the lower levels of the atmosphere and poor visibility above an inversion aloft

b)

Clouds with extensive vertical development above an inversion aloft

c)

An increase in temperature as altitude is increased

56.

Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?

a)

Light wind shear, poor visibility, haze, and light rain

b)

Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds

c)

Turbulent air, poor visibility, low stratus type clouds, and showery precipitation

57.

To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight, the pilot should request

a)

An abbreviated briefing

b)

A standard briefing

c)

A general briefing

58.

Which type weather briefing should a pilot request, when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather information has been received?

a)

Standard briefing

b)

Abbreviated briefing

c)

Outlook briefing

59.

Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?

a)

An outlook briefing

b)

A supplemental briefing

c)

An abbreviated briefing

60.

A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is

a)

A prognostic briefing

b)

A forecast briefing

c)

An outlook briefing

61.

What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?

a)

State their total flight time

b)

Identify themselves as pilots

c)

Tell the number of occupants on board

62.

What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?

a)

The address of the pilot in command

b)

The intended route of flight and destination

c)

The intended route of flight radio frequencies

63.

When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state

a)

True airspeed

b)

The aircraft identification or the pilot's name

c)

Fuel on board

64.

When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state

a)

The full name and address of the formation commander

b)

That they possess a current pilot certificate

c)

Whether they intend to fly VFR only

65.

To update a previous weather briefing, a pilot should request

a)

an outlook briefing.

b)

a standard briefing.

c)

an abbreviated briefing.

66.

When requesting weather information for the following morning, a pilot should request

a)

a standard briefing.

b)

an abbreviated briefing.

c)

an outlook briefing.

67.

For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth's surface of the

a)

lowest reported obscuration and the highest layer of clouds reported as overcast.

b)

lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.

c)

lowest layer of clouds reported as scattered, broken, or thin.

68.

(Refer to figure 12.) What are the current conditions depicted for Chicago Midway Airport (KMDW)?

a)

Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 11, occasionally 2SM, with rain.

b)

Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2SM, heavy rain.

c)

Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2SM, rain.

69.

(Refer to figure 12.) Which of the reporting stations have VFR weather?

a)

All.

b)

KINK, KBOI, and KJFK.

c)

KINK, KBOI, and KLAX.

70.

(Refer to figure 12.) The wind direction and velocity at KJFK is from

a)

040° true at 18 knots.

b)

180° magnetic at 4 knots.

c)

180° true at 4 knots.

71.

(Refer to figure 12.) What are the wind conditions at Wink, Texas (KINK)?

a)

Calm.

b)

110° at 12 knots, gusts 18 knots.

c)

Calm.

72.

(Refer to figure 12.) The remarks section for KMDW has RAB35 listed. This entry means

a)

rain began at 1835Z.

b)

blowing mist has reduced the visibility to 1-1/2 SM.

c)

the barometer has risen .35" Hg.

73.

(Refer to figure 1.4.) If the terrain elevation is 1,295 feet MSL, what is the height above ground level of the base of the ceiling?

a)

6,586 feet AGL.

b)

505 feet AGL.

c)

1,295 feet AGL.

74.

(Refer to figure 1.4.) The base and tops of the overcast layer reported by a pilot are

a)

1,800 feet MSL and 5,500 feet MSL.

b)

7,200 feet MSL and 8,900 feet MSL.

c)

5,500 feet AGL and 7,200 feet MSL.

75.

(Refer to figure 1.4.) The wind and temperature at 12,000 feet MSL as reported by a pilot are

a)

080° at 21 knots and -7°C.

b)

080° at 21 MPH and -9°F.

c)

090° at 21 knots and -9°C.

76.

(Refer to figure 1.4.) The intensity of the turbulence reported at a specific altitude is

a)

moderate from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet.

b)

moderate at 5,500 feet and at 7,200 feet.

c)

light from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet.

77.

(Refer to figure 1.4.) The intensity and type of icing reported by a pilot is

a)

light to moderate clear.

b)

light to moderate.

c)

light to moderate rime.

78.

To best determine general forecast weather conditions over several states, the pilot should refer to

a)

Weather Depiction Charts.

b)

Aviation Area Forecasts.

c)

Satellite Maps.

79.

To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, the pilot should refer to the

a)

Weather Depiction Chart.

b)

Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories.

c)

Area Forecast.

80.

The section of the Area Forecast entitled "VFR CLDS/WX" contains a general description of

a)

forecast sky cover, cloud tops, visibility, and obstructions to vision along specific routes.

b)

cloudiness and weather significant to flight operations broken down by states or other geographical areas.

c)

weather advisories still in effect at the time of issue.

81.

From which primary source should information be obtained regarding expected weather at the estimated time of arrival if your destination has no Terminal Forecast?

a)

Low-Level Prognostic Chart.

b)

Area Forecast.

c)

Weather Depiction Chart.

82.

(Refer to figure 16.) The Chicago FA forecast section is valid until the twenty-fifth at

a)

1945Z.

b)

1400Z.

c)

0800Z.

83.

(Refer to figure 16.) What sky condition and visibility are forecast for upper Michigan in the eastern portions after 2300Z?

a)

Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute miles visibility.

b)

Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 nautical miles visibility.

c)

Ceiling 100 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute miles visibility.

84.

(Refer to figure 16.) What is the outlook for the southern half of Indiana after 0700Z?

a)

VFR.

b)

Scattered clouds at 10,000 feet.

c)

Scattered clouds at 3,000 feet AGL.

85.

Refer to figure 16. What sky condition and type obstructions to vision are forecast for upper Michigan in the western portions from 0200Z until 0500Z?

a)

Ceiling becoming 1,000 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 statute miles in mist.

b)

Ceiling becoming 1,000 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 nautical miles in mist.

c)

Ceiling becoming 100 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 statute miles in mist.

86.

Refer to figure 15. In the TAF for KMEM, what does SHRA stand for?

a)

Rain showers.

b)

A significant change in precipitation is possible.

c)

A shift in wind direction is expected.

87.

Refer to figure 15. During the time period from 0600Z to 0800Z, what visibility is forecast for KOKC?

a)

Greater than 6 statute miles.

b)

Not forecasted.

c)

Possibly 6 statute miles.

88.

Refer to figure 15. In the TAF from KOKC, the clear sky becomes

a)

Overcast at 200 feet with the probability of becoming overcast at 400 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.

b)

Overcast at 200 feet with a 40% probability of becoming overcast at 600 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.

c)

Overcast at 2,000 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.

89.

Refer to figure 15. What is the valid period for the TAF for KMEM?

a)

1200Z to 1200Z.

b)

1200Z to 1800Z.

c)

1800Z to 1800Z.

90.

Refer to figure 15. Between 1000Z and 1200Z the visibility at KMEM is forecast to be

a)

6 statute miles.

b)

3 statute miles.

c)

1/2 statute mile.

91.

Refer to figure 15. What is the forecast wind for KMEM from 1600Z until the end of the forecast?

a)

Variable in direction at 6 knots.

b)

Variable in direction at 4 knots.

c)

No significant wind.

92.

Refer to figure 15. In the TAF from KOKC, the FM (FROM) Group is forecast for the hours from 1600Z to 2200Z with the wind from

a)

160° at 10 knots.

b)

180° at 10 knots, becoming 200° at 13 knots.

c)

180° at 10 knots.

93.

Refer to figure 15. The only cloud type forecast in TAF reports is

a)

Cumulonimbus.

b)

Scattered cumulus.

c)

Nimbostratus.

94.

Refer to figure 18. Of what value is the Weather Depiction Chart to the pilot?

a)

For a forecast of cloud coverage, visibilities, and frontal activity.

b)

For determining general weather conditions on which to base flight planning.

c)

For determining frontal trends and air mass characteristics.

95.

Refer to figure 18. The IFR weather in northern Texas is due to

a)

Dust devils.

b)

Intermittent rain.

c)

Low ceilings.

96.

Refer to figure 18. What weather phenomenon is causing IFR conditions in central Oklahoma?

a)

Low visibility only.

b)

Heavy rain showers.

c)

Low ceilings and visibility.

97.

Refer to figure 18. What is the status of the front that extends from Nebraska through the upper peninsula of Michigan?

a)

Stationary.

b)

Cold.

c)

Warm.

98.

Refer to figure 18. According to the Weather Depiction Chart, the weather for a flight from southern Michigan to north Indiana is

a)

1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles.

b)

Less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles.

c)

Greater than 3,000 feet and visibility greater than 5 miles.

99.

Refer to figure 18. The marginal weather in central Kentucky is due to

a)

Ceiling and visibility.

b)

Ceiling.

c)

Visibility.

100.

Refer to figure 19, area B. What is the top for precipitation of the radar return?

a)

2,400 feet MSL.

b)

24,000 feet MSL.

c)

24,000 feet AGL.

101.

What does the heavy dashed line that forms a large rectangular box on a radar summary chart refer to?

a)

Areas of heavy rain.

b)

Areas of hail 1/4 inch in diameter.

c)

Severe weather watch area.

102.

Refer to figure 19, area B. What type of weather is occurring in the radar return?

a)

Rain showers increasing in intensity.

b)

Light to moderate rain showers.

c)

Continuous rain.

103.

Refer to figure 19, area D. What is the direction and speed of movement of the cell?

a)

North at 17 MPH.

b)

South at 17 knots.

c)

North at 17 knots.

104.

Refer to figure 19, area E. The top of the precipitation of the cell is

a)

16,000 feet AGL.

b)

16,000 feet MSL.

c)

25,000 feet MSL.

105.

Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate

a)

location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and trend.

b)

large areas of low ceilings and fog.

c)

location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation.

106.

How should contact be established with an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station, and what service would be expected?

a)

Call flight assistance on 122.5 for advisory service pertaining to severe weather.

b)

Call Flight Watch on 122.0 for information regarding actual weather and thunderstorm activity along proposed route.

c)

Call EFAS on 122.2 for routine weather, current reports on hazardous weather, and altimeter settings.

107.

What service should a pilot normally expect from an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station?

a)

Severe weather information, changes to flight plans, and receipt of routine position reports.

b)

Actual weather information and thunderstorm activity along the route.

c)

Preferential routing and radar vectoring to circumnavigate severe weather.

108.

Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on

a)

122.1 MHz.

b)

122.0 MHz.

c)

123.6 MHz.

109.

When the term "light and variable" is used in reference to a Winds Aloft Forecast, the coded group and windspeed is

a)

9999 and less than 10 knots.

b)

9900 and less than 5 knots.

c)

0000 and less than 7 knots.

110.

What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?

a)

Magnetic direction and miles per hour.

b)

Magnetic direction and knots.

c)

True direction and knots.

111.

(Refer to figure 17.) What wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 feet?

a)

230° magnetic at 56 knots.

b)

230° true at 56 knots.

c)

230° true at 39 knots.

112.

(Refer to figure 17.) Determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for DEN at 9,000 feet.

a)

230° true at 53 knots, temperature -47°C.

b)

230° magnetic at 53 knots, temperature 47°C.

c)

230° true at 21 knots, temperature -4°C.

113.

(Refer to figure 17.) What wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 feet?

a)

230° true at 39 knots.

b)

230° magnetic at 39 knots.

c)

230° true at 106 knots.

114.

(Refer to figure 17.) Determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for MKC at 6,000 ft.

a)

200° magnetic at 6 knots, temperature +3°C.

b)

200° true at 6 knots, temperature +3°C.

c)

050° true at 7 knots, temperature missing.

115.

(Refer to figure 17.) What wind is forecast for STL at 9,000 feet?

a)

230° true at 25 knots.

b)

230° magnetic at 25 knots.

c)

230° true at 32 knots.

116.

(Refer to figure 20.) What weather is forecast for the Florida area just ahead of the stationary front during the first 12 hours?

a)

Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles with continuous precipitation.

b)

Ceiling less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles with continuous precipitation.

c)

Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles with intermittent precipitation.

117.

(Refer to figure 20.) Interpret the weather symbol depicted in Utah on the 12-hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart.

a)

Thunderstorm tops at 18,000 feet.

b)

Moderate turbulence, surface to 18,000 feet.

c)

Base of clear air turbulence, 18,000 feet.

118.

(Refer to figure 20.) At what altitude is the freezing level over the middle of Florida on the 12-hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?

a)

4,000 feet.

b)

12,000 feet.

c)

8,000 feet.

119.

(Refer to figure 20.) How are Significant Weather Prognostic Charts best used by a pilot?

a)

For determining areas to avoid (freezing levels and turbulence).

b)

For analyzing current frontal activity and cloud coverage.

c)

For overall planning at all altitudes.

120.

(Refer to figure 20.) The enclosed shaded area associated with the low pressure system over northern Utah is forecast to have

a)

intermittent snow.

b)

continuous snow.

c)

continuous snow showers.

121.

To obtain a continuous transcribed weather briefing, including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross-country flight, a pilot should monitor a

a)

Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) on an NDB or a VOR facility.

b)

regularly scheduled weather broadcast on a VOR frequency.

c)

VHF radio receiver tuned to an Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) frequency.

122.

Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEB's) may be monitored by tuning the appropriate radio receiver to certain

a)

airport advisory frequencies.

b)

ATIS frequencies.

c)

VOR and NDB frequencies.

123.

Individual forecasts for specific routes of flight can be obtained from which weather source?

a)

Area Forecasts.

b)

Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts.

c)

Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEB's).

124.

SIGMET's are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft?

a)

Small aircraft only.

b)

All aircraft.

c)

Large aircraft only.