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Upper GI Anatomy

Total questions: 111

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which organ is the largest solid organ in the human body?

a)

Spleen

b)

Liver

c)

Pancreas

d)

Kidney

2.

What is the average weight of the liver?

a)

1–2 pounds

b)

2–3 pounds

c)

3–4 pounds

d)

4–5 pounds

3.

The liver is primarily located in which abdominal quadrant?

a)

Left upper quadrant

b)

Right upper quadrant

c)

Left lower quadrant

d)

Right lower quadrant

4.

The liver occupies which abdominal regions?

a)

Right hypochondriac only

b)

Epigastric only

c)

Right hypochondriac, epigastric, and left hypochondriac

d)

Umbilical and hypogastric

5.

What is the primary function of the liver relevant to the biliary system?

a)

Storage of bile

b)

Concentration of bile

c)

Manufacture of bile

d)

Excretion of bile

6.

Which lobe of the liver is larger and projects more inferiorly?

a)

Left lobe

b)

Quadrate lobe

c)

Caudate lobe

d)

Right lobe

7.

What structure separates the right and left lobes of the liver?

a)

Coronary ligament

b)

Round ligament

c)

Falciform ligament

d)

Hepatoduodenal ligament

8.

Which lobes are considered the minor lobes of the liver?

a)

Right and left

b)

Caudate and quadrate

c)

Right and quadrate

d)

Left and caudate

9.

The quadrate lobe is located between which two structures?

a)

Inferior vena cava and falciform ligament

b)

Gallbladder and falciform ligament

c)

Pancreas and stomach

d)

Portal vein and hepatic artery

10.

The inferior vena cava contours over the surface of which lobe?

a)

Quadrate lobe

b)

Left lobe

c)

Right lobe

d)

Caudate lobe

11.

What is the general shape of the liver?

a)

Oval

b)

Rectangular

c)

Triangular

d)

Circular

12.

Which portion of the liver is the widest?

a)

Inferior border

b)

Superior border

c)

Medial border

d)

Lateral border

13.

The convex surface of the liver conforms to which structure?

a)

Left lung

b)

Stomach

c)

Right kidney

d)

Right hemidiaphragm

14.

The liver is protected primarily by which structure?

a)

Sternum

b)

Left rib cage

c)

Lower right rib cage

d)

Vertebral column

15.

Which ducts transport bile directly from the liver?

a)

Cystic ducts

b)

Common bile duct

c)

Right and left hepatic ducts

d)

Pancreatic duct

16.

The common hepatic duct is formed by the union of which ducts?

a)

Cystic and pancreatic ducts

b)

Right and left hepatic ducts

c)

Hepatic and cystic ducts

d)

Common bile and pancreatic ducts

17.

The cystic duct primarily serves as a route to which organ?

a)

Pancreas

b)

Duodenum

c)

Liver

d)

Gallbladder

18.

The common bile duct empties directly into which structure?

a)

Jejunum

b)

Ileum

c)

Duodenum

d)

Stomach

19.

What is the typical shape of the gallbladder?

a)

Oval

b)

Pear-shaped

c)

Cylindrical

d)

Round

20.

What is the average length of the gallbladder?

a)

3–5 cm

b)

5–7 cm

c)

7–10 cm

d)

10–12 cm

21.

Which portion of the gallbladder is the broadest and most distal?

a)

Neck

b)

Body

c)

Fundus

d)

Cystic duct

22.

The neck of the gallbladder continues into which duct?

a)

Common hepatic duct

b)

Common bile duct

c)

Pancreatic duct

d)

Cystic duct

23.

The primary function of the gallbladder is:

a)

Production of bile

b)

Temporary storage of bile

c)

Emulsification of fats

d)

Absorption of bile salts

24.

The gallbladder concentrates bile through which process?

a)

Filtration

b)

Emulsification

c)

Hydrolysis

d)

Diffusion

25.

Removal of too much water from bile can lead to formation of:

a)

Polyps

b)

Neoplasms

c)

Choleliths

d)

Ulcers

26.

Which hormone stimulates gallbladder contraction?

a)

Secretin

b)

Insulin

c)

Gastrin

d)

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

27.

Increased levels of CCK cause relaxation of which structure?

a)

Cardiac sphincter

b)

Pyloric sphincter

c)

Hepatopancreatic sphincter

d)

Esophageal sphincter

28.

The union of the common bile duct and pancreatic duct forms the:

a)

Duodenal bulb

b)

Hepatopancreatic ampulla

c)

Ligament of Treitz

d)

Gastric canal

29.

Another name for the hepatopancreatic ampulla is:

a)

Ampulla of Vater

b)

Ampulla of Wirsung

c)

Sphincter of Oddi

d)

Duodenal papilla

30.

The hepatopancreatic sphincter is also known as the:

a)

Cardiac sphincter

b)

Pyloric sphincter

c)

Sphincter of Oddi

d)

Ileocecal valve

31.

Why is sonography preferred for gallbladder evaluation?

a)

Uses contrast media

b)

High radiation dose

c)

Detects small calculi without radiation

d)

Requires extensive patient preparation

32.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of gallbladder sonography?

a)

No radiation

b)

Detects small calculi

c)

Requires contrast media

d)

Minimal patient preparation

33.

Standard patient preparation for gallbladder sonography includes:

a)

Clear liquid diet for 24 hours

b)

NPO for 8 hours

c)

Enema

d)

IV contrast injection

34.

Biliary calculi are also known as:

a)

Polyps

b)

Gallstones

c)

Neoplasms

d)

Strictures

35.

Choledocholithiasis refers to:

a)

Stones in the gallbladder only

b)

Stones in the pancreatic duct

c)

Stones in the biliary ducts

d)

Inflammation of the gallbladder

36.

Which symptoms are associated with choledocholithiasis?

a)

LUQ pain and diarrhea

b)

RUQ pain, jaundice, and pancreatitis

c)

Chest pain and reflux

d)

Weight loss and anemia

37.

Best imaging exams for choledocholithiasis include:

a)

CT only

b)

Sonography, ERCP, and operative cholangiography

c)

MRI only

d)

Plain radiography

38.

Cholelithiasis is defined as:

a)

Inflammation of the gallbladder

b)

Stones within the biliary ducts

c)

Abnormal calcifications in the gallbladder

d)

Narrowing of the bile duct

39.

Gallstones may be composed of increased levels of:

a)

Sodium and potassium

b)

Bilirubin, calcium, or cholesterol

c)

Iron and magnesium

d)

Enzymes and bile salts

40.

Approximately what percentage of gallstones contain calcium salts and may be visible radiographically?

a)

1–5%

b)

10–15%

c)

25–30%

d)

50%

41.

Gallstones are more common in which patient population?

a)

Male athletes

b)

Pediatric patients

c)

Females and obese patients

d)

Elderly males only

42.

Milk calcium bile refers to:

a)

Infection of bile ducts

b)

Emulsion of biliary stones in the gallbladder

c)

Obstruction of the cystic duct

d)

Malignant bile duct tumor

43.

Milk calcium bile appears radiographically as:

a)

Single dense stone

b)

Gas-filled structure

c)

Diffuse sand-like sediment

d)

Linear calcification

44.

Standard treatment for milk calcium bile is:

a)

Antibiotics

b)

ERCP

c)

Cholecystectomy

d)

Dietary modification

45.

Cholecystitis is defined as:

a)

Infection of bile ducts

b)

Narrowing of biliary ducts

c)

Inflammation of the gallbladder

d)

Gallbladder cancer

46.

Acute cholecystitis is most commonly caused by:

a)

Tumor obstruction

b)

Stone lodged in the neck of the gallbladder

c)

Pancreatitis

d)

Congenital absence of ducts

47.

Chronic cholecystitis is associated with all EXCEPT:

a)

Gallstones

b)

Pancreatitis

c)

Gallbladder carcinoma

d)

Appendicitis

48.

Neoplasms may be:

a)

Always benign

b)

Always malignant

c)

Benign or malignant

d)

Infectious only

49.

Biliary stenosis refers to:

a)

Stone formation

b)

Inflammation of ducts

c)

Narrowing of biliary ducts

d)

Absence of bile flow

50.

The alimentary canal extends from the:

a)

Mouth to stomach

b)

Mouth to anus

c)

Esophagus to colon

d)

Pharynx to rectum

51.

The oral cavity is bounded anteriorly and laterally by:

a)

Hard and soft palate

b)

Upper and lower teeth

c)

Tongue and uvula

d)

Salivary glands

52.

What forms the roof of the oral cavity?

a)

Soft palate only

b)

Hard and soft palate

c)

Uvula only

d)

Tongue

53.

The palatine uvula is best described as:

a)

A muscle at the floor of the mouth

b)

A small process hanging from the soft palate

c)

Part of the hard palate

d)

A salivary gland

54.

The tongue makes up which part of the oral cavity?

a)

Roof

b)

Lateral border

c)

Floor

d)

Posterior wall

55.

How many major salivary glands are there?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

6

d)

9

56.

Which salivary gland is located near the ear and is the largest?

a)

Sublingual

b)

Submandibular (submaxillary)

c)

Parotid

d)

Pharyngeal

57.

Which salivary gland lies below the mandible?

a)

Parotid

b)

Submandibular (submaxillary)

c)

Sublingual

d)

Sublabial

58.

Where is the sublingual gland located?

a)

Near the ear

b)

Below the mandible

c)

Below the tongue

d)

In the pharynx

59.

Mumps is inflammation and enlargement of which gland?

a)

Sublingual gland

b)

Submandibular gland

c)

Parotid gland

d)

Lacrimal gland

60.

Saliva is composed of approximately which percentage of water?

a)

50%

b)

75%

c)

99.5%

d)

100%

61.

Deglutition means:

a)

Chewing

b)

Swallowing

c)

Peristalsis

d)

Digestion

62.

Which part of the pharynx is NOT part of the digestive system?

a)

Oropharynx

b)

Nasopharynx

c)

Laryngopharynx

63.

The oropharynx extends from the soft palate to which structure?

a)

Epiglottis

b)

Larynx

c)

Nasal septum

d)

Esophagus

64.

The laryngopharynx continues inferiorly as the:

a)

Trachea

b)

Esophagus

c)

Nasopharynx

d)

Oral cavity

65.

During swallowing, which structure closes off the nasopharynx?

a)

Epiglottis

b)

Soft palate

c)

Tongue

66.

What reflex is initiated if material passes into the larynx and trachea?

a)

Gag reflex

b)

Coughing reflex

c)

Vomiting reflex

d)

Swallowing reflex

67.

Which structures come together to close off the epiglottis during swallowing?

a)

Vocal cords

b)

Uvula and soft palate

c)

Epiglottis and tongue

d)

Hard palate and soft palate

68.

The esophagus extends from approximately which vertebral levels?

a)

C1–C4

b)

C5–T11

c)

T5–T12

d)

L1–L5

69.

The esophagus begins at the lower border of which cartilage?

a)

Thyroid cartilage

b)

Cricoid cartilage

c)

Epiglottis

d)

Arytenoid cartilage

70.

The esophagus terminates at approximately which vertebral level?

a)

T8

b)

T10

c)

T11

d)

L1

71.

Which statement about the esophagus is true?

a)

It is the widest part of the alimentary canal

b)

It is located anterior to the heart

c)

It lies anterior to the thoracic aorta and posterior to the heart

72.

The esophagus passes through the diaphragm at which vertebral level?

a)

T8

b)

T10

c)

T12

d)

L1

73.

The esophagogastric junction is the opening between the esophagus and the:

a)

Duodenum

b)

Stomach

c)

Jejunum

d)

Pharynx

74.

Peristalsis is defined as:

a)

Voluntary contractions of skeletal muscle

b)

Wavelike involuntary muscular contractions that propel materials through the alimentary canal

c)

Rhythmic segmentation

d)

Mechanical digestion

75.

A PA esophagogram with slight RAO oblique is used to:

a)

Superimpose the esophagus on the spine

b)

Get the esophagus unsuperimposed by the spine and midway between spine and heart

c)

Visualize the stomach only

d)

Eliminate peristalsis

76.

On esophagrams, peristaltic contraction appears as:

a)

Uniform dilation

b)

Thinning at contracted segments

c)

Complete obstruction

d)

Gas bubble

77.

Which prefix means stomach in modern usage?

a)

Entero-

b)

Gastro-

c)

Hepato-

d)

Colo-

78.

The stomach serves primarily as a reservoir for:

a)

Feces

b)

Bile

c)

Swallowed food and fluid

d)

Air only

79.

The cardiac sphincter allows food to pass through the cardiac orifice into the:

a)

Esophagus

b)

Stomach

c)

Duodenum

d)

Jejunum

80.

The pylorus (pyloric orifice) is the opening of the distal stomach that allows contents to move into the:

a)

Esophagus

b)

Small intestine

c)

Large intestine

d)

Rectum

81.

The lesser curvature is located on which border of the stomach?

a)

Lateral border

b)

Medial border

c)

Posterior border

d)

Inferior border

82.

The greater curvature is approximately how many times larger than the lesser curvature?

a)

2–3 times

b)

4–5 times

c)

6–7 times

d)

Equal size

83.

The fundus of the stomach is fixed to which structure?

a)

Liver

b)

Spleen

c)

Diaphragm

d)

Pancreas

84.

The pyloric antrum is described as:

a)

The uppermost portion of the stomach

b)

A slight dilation proximal to the angular notch

c)

The cardiac orifice

d)

The lesser curvature

85.

Rugae are:

a)

External markings on the stomach

b)

Numerous internal folds when stomach is empty

c)

Part of the small intestine

d)

Sphincters between stomach segments

86.

The gastric canal funnels fluids from the body of the stomach to the:

a)

Cardiac orifice

b)

Pylorus

c)

Duodenum

d)

Fundus

87.

On a barium-filled radiograph where the fundus is air-filled and the body/pylorus barium-filled, which portion is most superior and posterior?

a)

Fundus

b)

Pylorus

c)

Body

d)

Duodenal bulb

88.

In the lateral view orientation of the stomach, the pylorus is positioned:

a)

Anterior to the body

b)

Posterior and distal to the body

c)

Superior to the fundus

d)

Lateral to greater curvature

89.

In an erect or prone (PA) position, where will air lie in the stomach?

a)

Body

b)

Pylorus

c)

Fundus

d)

Duodenal bulb

90.

In a supine (AP) position, where will air lie in the stomach?

a)

Fundus

b)

Body/pylorus

c)

Duodenal bulb

d)

Jejunum

91.

The duodenum is the first portion of the small intestine and is described as:

a)

Longest and narrowest

b)

Shortest and widest

c)

Mobile and intraperitoneal

d)

Part of the large intestine

92.

The duodenum forms a C-loop and houses which organ head?

a)

Liver

b)

Pancreas

c)

Spleen

d)

Gallbladder

93.

The duodenum lies in which peritoneal space?

a)

Intraperitoneal

b)

Retroperitoneal

c)

Subperitoneal

d)

Supraperitoneal

94.

The second (descending) portion of the duodenum contains the opening for which ducts?

a)

Hepatic ducts only

b)

Pancreatic duct only

c)

Common bile duct and pancreatic duct

d)

Cystic duct only

95.

The ligament of Treitz suspends the duodenum at the junction with the:

a)

Ileum

b)

Jejunum

c)

Colon

d)

Stomach

96.

A J-tube must be placed beyond which anatomic landmark?

a)

Pyloric sphincter

b)

Ligament of Treitz

c)

Duodenal bulb

d)

Jejunal flexure

97.

How long does food typically remain in the esophagus during deglutition?

a)

0.5–1 second

b)

1–2 minutes

c)

1–8 seconds

d)

10–20 seconds

98.

How long is material typically in the stomach before passing into the small intestine?

a)

2–6 hours

b)

6–12 hours

c)

30–60 minutes

d)

12–24 hours

99.

Typical transit time through the small intestine is:

a)

3–5 hours

b)

1–2 hours

c)

24 hours

d)

30 minutes

100.

Which digestive process in the small intestine is described as 'rhythmic segmentation'?

a)

Peristalsis

b)

Churning

c)

Deglutition

101.

Carbohydrates are digested into which end products?

a)

Amino acids

b)

Fatty acids and glycerol

c)

Simple sugars

d)

Vitamins

102.

Proteins are digested into:

a)

Simple sugars

b)

Amino acids

c)

Fatty acids

d)

Minerals

103.

Lipids (fats) are digested into:

a)

Fatty acids and glycerol

b)

Amino acids

c)

Simple sugars

d)

Bile salts

104.

Which of the following are substances ingested but NOT digested?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Vitamins, minerals, and water

d)

Lipids

105.

Bile from the gallbladder functions primarily to:

a)

Enzymatically break down proteins

b)

Emulsify fats

c)

Digest carbohydrates

d)

Absorb vitamins

106.

Which organ is the primary site of absorption?

a)

Small intestine

b)

Large intestine

c)

Pancreas

107.

Body habitus affects organ location. A hypersthenic patient typically has a stomach that is:

a)

Low and vertical

b)

High and transverse

c)

Midline and J-shaped

d)

Pelvic

108.

In a hypersthenic patient, the duodenal bulb and gallbladder are typically at which vertebral levels?

a)

L3–L4

b)

L1–L2

c)

T11–T12

d)

T8–T9

109.

In a sthenic patient, the duodenal bulb is at approximately which vertebral level?

a)

T11–T12

b)

L1–L2

c)

L3–L4

d)

T8–T9

110.

In a hyposthenic/asthenic patient, where is the duodenal bulb typically located?

a)

To the right of midline at T11–T12

b)

Slightly to right of midline at L1–L2

c)

At midline at L3–L4

d)

In the pelvis

111.

Organs tend to drop approximately how many centimeters when a patient moves from supine to upright?

a)

0–1 cm

b)

1–2 cm

c)

2.5–5 cm

d)

10 cm

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