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Mock Test - Ethical Hacking

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is ethical hacking?

a)

Unauthorized access to computer systems for financial gain

b)

The authorized practice of bypassing system security to identify potential data breaches and threats

c)

Creating malicious software to disrupt networks

d)

Stealing sensitive information from organizations

2.

Which Malaysian law covers unauthorized access to computer systems?

a)

Communications and Multimedia Act 1998

b)

Computer Crimes Act 1997

c)

Personal Data Protection Act 2010

d)

Malaysian Copyright Act

3.

What does OSINT stand for?

a)

Online Security Intelligence Testing

b)

Offensive System Integrity Networking

c)

Open-Source Intelligence

d)

Operational Security Integration Network

4.

During reconnaissance, what should ethical hackers prioritize first?

a)

Active port scanning

b)

Passive footprinting using public sources

c)

Network exploitation

d)

System compromise

5.

Which of the following is a passive reconnaissance technique?

a)

Ping sweep

b)

Port scanning

c)

Google dorking

d)

Banner grabbing

6.

What does WHOIS database provide?

a)

Real-time network traffic information

b)

Domain registration information and registrant details

c)

Active malware signatures

d)

Firewall configuration data

7.

Which tool is used for automated email and subdomain enumeration?

a)

Nmap

b)

theHarvester

c)

Masscan

d)

Wireshark

8.

What is a DNS zone transfer vulnerability?

a)

Slow network response during DNS queries

b)

Misconfigured DNS allowing complete zone file transfer without authentication

c)

DNS cache poisoning attack

d)

DNSSEC signature verification failure

9.

What does WEP stand for in wireless networks?

a)

Wired Equivalent Privacy

b)

Wireless Encryption Protocol

c)

Web Enhanced Protection

d)

Windows Ethernet Protocol

10.

Which wireless encryption standard is completely broken and should never be used?

a)

WPA2

b)

WPA3

c)

WEP

d)

802.1X

11.

What is the primary goal of a denial-of-service (DoS) attack?

a)

Steal sensitive data

b)

Make network resources unavailable to legitimate users

c)

Gain unauthorized access

d)

Modify system files

12.

What does DDoS stand for?

a)

Direct Denial of Service

b)

Distributed Denial of Service

c)

Double Defense of Systems

d)

Data Disruption of Services

13.

Which TCP connection state indicates a service is running and accepting connections?

a)

CLOSED

b)

FILTERED

c)

OPEN

d)

LISTENING

14.

What is the TCP three-way handshake?

a)

SYN-SYN-ACK

b)

SYN-SYN-ACK-ACK

c)

ACK-ACK-ACK

d)

SYN-ACK-FIN

15.

Which Nmap scan type is the stealthiest and requires root privileges?

a)

TCP Connect scan

b)

SYN scan

c)

UDP scan

d)

ACK scan

16.

What is ARP poisoning?

a)

Adding poison to network packets

b)

Sending forged ARP replies to corrupt target's ARP cache

c)

DNS resolution failure

d)

DHCP server misconfiguration

17.

Which encryption algorithm is the current industry standard for symmetric encryption?

a)

DES

b)

3DES

c)

AES

d)

RC4

18.

What is the primary purpose of hashing?

a)

Encrypt data for confidentiality

b)

Verify data integrity

c)

Compress file size

d)

Authenticate users

19.

Which hash algorithm is broken and should not be used?

a)

SHA-256

b)

SHA-512

c)

MD5

d)

SHA-3

20.

What does SQL injection exploit?

a)

Network bandwidth limitations

b)

Unsanitized user input in SQL queries

c)

Firewall rules

d)

Encryption algorithms

21.

What is the primary difference between passive and active footprinting?

a)

Passive is illegal; active is legal

b)

Passive leaves no traces; active generates network traffic

c)

Passive is slower than active

d)

Active uses only public sources

22.

Which OSINT tool provides visual relationship mapping and automated data gathering?

a)

theHarvester

b)

Maltego

c)

Shodan

d)

Netcraft

23.

What is a DNS zone transfer (AXFR) attack's primary benefit to attackers?

a)

Identify active DNS servers

b)

Obtain complete list of subdomains and internal hostnames

c)

Bypass firewall rules

d)

Encrypt network traffic

24.

Which of the following reveals hidden directories and sensitive files?

a)

Passive DNS enumeration

b)

Google dorking (advanced search operators)

c)

Banner grabbing

d)

MAC address filtering

25.

What is the KRACK attack vulnerability in wireless networks?

a)

Brute force attack on WPA-PSK

b)

Key Reinstallation Attack exploiting WPA2 4-way handshake

c)

Rogue access point creation

d)

WEP IV exhaustion

26.

How many bits does WPA2 use for encryption key derivation?

a)

56 bits

b)

104 bits

c)

128 bits

d)

256 bits

27.

What is the first step in a typical penetration testing engagement?

a)

Port scanning

b)

Obtaining written authorization and defining scope

c)

System exploitation

d)

Report writing

28.

Which enumeration technique specifically targets Windows NetBIOS names?

a)

SNMP enumeration

b)

NBTscan

c)

NFS enumeration

d)

LDAP enumeration

29.

What information can be extracted from HTTP response headers?

a)

Client IP addresses

b)

Server type, version, and running applications

c)

User passwords

d)

Database connection strings

30.

What is a NULL session in Windows systems?

a)

A connection that is currently closed

b)

An unauthenticated connection allowing information extraction

c)

An encryption key with all zeros

d)

A network adapter with no IP address

31.

Which attack involves intercepting traffic between two parties without their knowledge?

a)

DoS attack

b)

Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack

c)

Dictionary attack

d)

SQL injection

32.

What is ARP's fundamental security weakness?

a)

It uses weak encryption

b)

It lacks authentication mechanism for ARP replies

c)

It doesn't support IPv6

d)

It broadcasts on unnecessary ports

33.

Which network sniffing technique works only on hub-based networks?

a)

Active sniffing

b)

Passive sniffing

c)

Wireless sniffing

d)

Protocol sniffing

34.

What tool can be used for automated SQL injection detection and exploitation?

a)

Nmap

b)

Wireshark

c)

SQLMap

d)

theHarvester

35.

Which OWASP Top 10 vulnerability allows attackers to inject malicious JavaScript?

a)

SQL Injection

b)

Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

c)

Broken Authentication

d)

Sensitive Data Exposure

36.

What is the primary advantage of WPA3 over WPA2?

a)

Larger block size

b)

Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) preventing offline dictionary attacks

c)

Faster encryption speed

d)

Support for 40-bit keys

37.

Which file system allows multiple data streams to hide information?

a)

FAT32

b)

NTFS (New Technology File System)

c)

ext4

d)

HFS+

38.

What is privilege escalation?

a)

Increasing network bandwidth

b)

Gaining higher-level permissions than originally granted

c)

Expanding a database

d)

Extending session timeout

39.

What is the primary weakness of RSA encryption?

a)

Small key size

b)

Depends on difficulty of factoring large numbers (vulnerable to quantum computers)

c)

Deterministic output

d)

Weak key derivation

40.

Which cryptographic attack uses pre-computed hash-to-password mappings?

a)

Dictionary attack

b)

Brute force attack

c)

Rainbow table attack

d)

Collision attack

41.

What is a digital signature used for?

a)

Encrypting sensitive data

b)

Proving authenticity, integrity, and non-repudiation

c)

Compressing files

d)

Validating network packets

42.

Which firewall type inspects application layer content?

a)

Packet filtering firewall

b)

Application layer / Proxy firewall

c)

Stateful firewall

d)

Hardware firewall

43.

What is the purpose of a honeypot in network security?

a)

Block malicious traffic

b)

Attract and trap attackers to study their behavior

c)

Encrypt network traffic

d)

Authenticate users

44.

Which IDS detection method is most vulnerable to zero-day exploits?

a)

Anomaly-based detection

b)

Signature-based detection

c)

Behavioral detection

d)

Heuristic detection

45.

What does SIEM stand for?

a)

System Integrity and Event Management

b)

Security Information and Event Management

c)

Secure Internal Email Monitoring

d)

System Infection and Encryption Monitoring

46.

Which organization maintains the OWASP Top 10?

a)

NIST

b)

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project)

c)

ISO

d)

IEEE

47.

What is the primary protection against SQL injection?

a)

Using complex passwords

b)

Using parameterized queries/prepared statements

c)

Implementing a firewall

d)

Enabling encryption

48.

Which certificate authority validates the authenticity of SSL certificates?

a)

Any organization

b)

Trusted third-party CAs (Verisign, DigiCert, Let's Encrypt, etc.)

c)

The website owner alone

d)

Government agencies only

49.

What is HSTS (HTTP Strict Transport Security)?

a)

A firewall rule

b)

An HTTP header that forces HTTPS connections

c)

An encryption protocol

d)

A password hashing algorithm

50.

Which Malaysian law specifically protects personal data?

a)

Computer Crimes Act 1997

b)

Communications and Multimedia Act 1998

c)

Personal Data Protection Act (PDPA) 2010

d)

Copyright Act 1987

51.

During a penetration test, you discover an unquoted service path vulnerability. Which privilege escalation scenario applies?

a)

Service installed in C:\Program Files\Service\svc.exe (quoted) is vulnerable

b)

Service path C:\Program Files\Dummy Service\svc.exe (unquoted) can be exploited by placing malicious executable in C:*

c)

Only SYSTEM account services are vulnerable

d)

The vulnerability only affects Windows 11

52.

A client's wireless network uses WPA2-PSK with weak password. What attack sequence is most efficient?

a)

Wardrive, identify AP, brute force without capture

b)

Wardrive, de-authenticate client, capture handshake, offline dictionary attack

c)

Flood AP with ARP packets indefinitely

d)

Perform rainbow table lookup directly on WPA2

53.

You capture a PMKID from an Association Request frame. Which advantage does this provide?

a)

Full handshake is required for attack success

b)

PMKID extraction enables faster offline cracking without full 4-way handshake

c)

PMKID cannot be used for password recovery

d)

PMKID is encrypted and impossible to extract

54.

In a network sniffing scenario, the switch employs port isolation. Which technique bypasses this?

a)

Passive sniffing on the switch port

b)

Active sniffing using ARP poisoning or DHCP spoofing

c)

Modifying MAC address filters

d)

Increasing network bandwidth

55.

You identify an application vulnerable to second-order SQL injection. What characteristic defines this?

a)

SQL injection occurs in the first database query

b)

Malicious payload is stored in the database and executed later

c)

The attack requires two separate network connections

d)

It only affects databases with version > 8.0

56.

During DOM-based XSS testing, you identify vulnerable JavaScript code using innerHTML. Which payload type is most effective?

a)

Server-side server-side template injection

b)

Client-side JavaScript payload within DOM context

c)

SQL commands embedded in the HTML

d)

PHP code execution

57.

A Web Application Firewall blocks your SQLi payload with SQL keywords. Which encoding bypass is most likely to succeed?

a)

ROT-13 encoding of the entire query

b)

Comment injection (e.g., uni//on sel//ect) if WAF doesn't handle comments

c)

Hex encoding the protocol headers

d)

Base64 encoding the entire HTTP request

58.

In cryptographic attacks, the birthday attack requires approximately how many attempts to find a hash collision?

a)

2^n (where n = hash bit size)

b)

√(2^n) (square root of 2^n)

c)

n^2

d)

2^(n/2)

59.

You discover a certificate signed with SHA-1 and issued in 2015. What vulnerability exists?

a)

No vulnerability; SHA-1 was secure until 2020

b)

SHA-1 collision attacks practical since 2017 (SHAttered); certificate must be replaced

c)

SHA-1 can only sign documents up to 160 bits

d)

The certificate is automatically revoked by all browsers

60.

A Snort IDS rule uses regex to detect SQL injection. Which evasion technique might bypass it?

a)

Increasing network packet size

b)

Polymorphic payload encoding that produces different regex patterns per attempt

c)

Using IPv6 instead of IPv4

d)

Sending traffic through a VPN

61.

During an HIDS evasion assessment, you use fileless malware techniques. What advantage do these provide?

a)

They consume less disk space

b)

They bypass file-system based detection while maintaining persistence

c)

They automatically uninstall after execution

d)

They require administrator privileges to detect

62.

In a firewall bypass scenario, you use TCP source port 53 (DNS). Why might this succeed?

a)

Port 53 is completely blocked by all firewalls

b)

Port 53 is often allowed outbound for DNS, and firewall may trust it

c)

Port 53 is the default SSH port

d)

DNS port bypasses encryption

63.

You test a certificate validation flaw in a mobile application. Which vulnerability allows MITM attacks despite HTTPS?

a)

All certificates are self-signed

b)

Certificate pinning not implemented; app accepts any valid certificate

c)

TLS 1.0 is enforced

d)

The application doesn't use HTTPS

64.

During KRACK attack simulation against WPA2, what occurs when Message 3 is replayed?

a)

The client ignores the replayed frame

b)

Client reinstalls PTK with same nonce, enabling keystream recovery

c)

The AP automatically upgrades to WPA3

d)

The handshake is terminated immediately

65.

In OAuth 2.0 security testing, you discover a misconfigured redirect_uri. What attack becomes possible?

a)

DDoS attack on authorization server

b)

Authorization code theft via attacker-controlled redirect endpoint

c)

Certificate revocation

d)

Encryption key extraction

66.

You identify a vulnerable SUID binary (owned by root) with a buffer overflow. Why is this critical?

a)

Only the owner can exploit buffer overflows

b)

Any user executing the binary gains root privileges upon successful overflow

c)

SUID binaries cannot be exploited

d)

Buffer overflows only affect network services

67.

During a wireless penetration test, you encounter WPA3 with SAE authentication. What fundamental change does SAE provide?

a)

Larger encryption key size

b)

Differential privacy property preventing offline dictionary attacks

c)

No change from WPA2; just a name change

d)

Mandatory 192-bit encryption for all networks

68.

You discover an application using JWT with 'alg': 'none'. What vulnerability exists?

a)

JWT cannot be used without an algorithm

b)

Algorithm confusion allowing token forgery without signature verification

c)

The application must use RS256 exclusively

d)

No vulnerability; 'none' is secure

69.

In a network penetration test, you identify stateless packet filtering on an access control list. Which bypass technique applies?

a)

Fragmentation always bypasses stateless filters

b)

Crafting return traffic with source port of allowed protocol (e.g., port 80) may bypass

c)

Stateless filters cannot be bypassed

d)

Only source IP spoofing works

70.

You perform adversarial testing on an anomaly-based IDS with false positive rates of 15%. What real-world implication exists?

a)

The IDS is more secure than signature-based IDS

b)

Security team may disable alerts due to alert fatigue, reducing detection effectiveness

c)

False positives prove the IDS is ineffective

d)

15% false positives cannot occur in real networks