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Worksheets

Exam 1 prep

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the primary functions of the placenta?

a)

Circulation

b)

Hormone Production

c)

Protection

d)

Oxygenation

2.

Normal placental gas exchange will cause maternal and fetal blood to mix

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Which structure allows oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the fetal liver?

a)

Foramen ovale

b)

Ductus arteriosus

c)

Umbilical vein

d)

Ductus venosus

4.

The nurse notes gradual decreases in fetal heart rate that mirror contractions. Which interpretation is correct?

a)

Early decelerations caused by uteroplacental insufficiency

b)

Late decelerations caused by cord compression

c)

Early decelerations caused by head compression

d)

Variable decelerations caused by fetal hypoxia

5.

What is the primary purpose of the foramen ovale in fetal circulation?

a)

To direct blood from the right ventricle to the aorta

b)

To shunt blood from the right atrium to the left atrium

c)

To bypass the fetal liver

d)

To connect the pulmonary artery to the aorta

6.

A fetal heart rate tracing shows abrupt decreases in heart rate with variable timing related to contractions. Which is the most likely cause?

a)

Head compression

b)

Cord compression

c)

Uteroplacental insufficiency

d)

Fetal sleep cycle

7.

The nurse knows the third stage of labor begins with which event?

a)

Crowning

b)

Full dilation

c)

Delivery of the newborn

d)

Delivery of the placenta

8.

Which fetal heart rate pattern is most concerning and requires immediate intervention?

a)

Early decelerations

b)

Variable decelerations with rapid recovery

c)

Late decelerations

d)

Moderate variability

9.

Sarah is currently pregnant, she had two deliveries after 37 weeks, one baby was born preterm at 25 weeks, and she had a miscarriage at 16 weeks. She currently has 3 living children, what is her GTPAL?

a)

G4 P2114

b)

G5 P1113

c)

G5 P2113

d)

G4 P3013

10.

A laboring patient is fully dilated, has an epidural and an indwelling Foley catheter. She is ready to begin pushing. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Assist the patient in positioning and encourage her to push

b)

Remove the Foley catheter immediately

c)

Clamp and drain Foley catheter, then begin pushing

d)

Begin IV bolus of LR

11.

Which prenatal screening test is used to detect neural tube defects?

a)

Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)

b)

Nonstress test (NST)

c)

Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)

d)

Amniocentesis

12.

In fetal circulation which vessels carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta?

a)

Umbilical veins

b)

Pulmonary arteries

c)

Umbilical arteries

d)

Inferior vena cava

13.

Which pelvic shape is most ideal for vaginal delivery?

a)

Anthropoid

b)

Android

c)

Gynecoid

d)

Platypelloid

14.

A patient who is 11 weeks gestation has had a positive screening for genetic abnormalities, the provider recommends that they perform a ______ to diagnose any chromosomal conditions

a)

Nuchal Translucency

b)

Amniocentesis

c)

CVS

d)

CfDNA testing

15.

What are the positive indications of pregnancy?

a)

Fetal auscultation of heart tones

b)

Fetal visualization by ultrasound

c)

Maternal sensation of fetal movement

d)

Fetal movement felt through the abdomen by clinician

16.

Which immunization is recommended during pregnancy?

a)

MMR

b)

Varicella

c)

Tdap

d)

Live influenza vaccine

17.

Which structure connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta in the fetus?

a)

Foramen ovale

b)

Ductus arteriosus

c)

Umbilical vein

d)

Ductus venosus

18.

A woman calls the OB office and explains that she has missed her period, she is having nausea/vomiting, fatigue and breast tenderness; the nurse knows these are

a)

Presumptive signs of pregnancy

b)

Probable signs of pregnancy

c)

Positive signs of pregnancy

19.

Which prenatal screening test is commonly performed between 15–20 weeks gestation?

a)

Nonstress test

b)

Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)

c)

Group B streptococcus screening

d)

Glucose tolerance test

20.

During labor which fetal position is the most desirable for a vaginal delivery?

a)

occiput anterior

b)

transverse

c)

occiput posterior

d)

asynclitic

21.

A pregnant patient reports the first day of her last menstrual period (LMP) as March 10. Using Nagele’s rule (Add 7 days, subtract 3 months), what is the estimated due date?

a)

December 10

b)

December 17

c)

January 3

d)

January 17

22.

Which hormone surges to trigger ovulation?

a)

Luteinizing hormone

b)

Corpus Luteum

c)

Progesterone

d)

Estrogen

23.

If IV opioids are being administered for pain relief during labor the nurse should administer the medication at the beginning of a contraction

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Where does fertilization occur?

a)

Ovary

b)

Fundus

c)

Fallopian Tube

d)

Uterus

25.

Which prenatal visit timeline is expected for an uncomplicated pregnancy?

a)

Every four weeks until 36 weeks, and then weekly until delivery

b)

Every four weeks until 32 weeks and then biweekly until delivery

c)

Every four weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, and then weekly until delivery

d)

Every 4 weeks until 20 weeks, then every 2 weeks until 28 weeks, and then weekly until delivery

26.

Beth is currently pregnant, and has had one full-term delivery of twins, one preterm delivery at 32 weeks, and one miscarriage at 10 weeks. All children are currently living

a)

G5 P1113

b)

G4P1113

c)

G4 P2113

d)

G4 P1114

27.

Which finding indicates the client has entered the second stage of labor?

a)

Cervical dilation of 6 cm

b)

Rupture of membranes

c)

Full cervical dilation

d)

Placental separation

28.

Which statement best describes nuchal translucency screening?

a)

It is a diagnostic test for neural tube defects

b)

It measures fetal neck fluid to assess chromosomal risk

c)

It confirms fetal lung maturity

d)

It is performed during the third trimester

29.

Which prenatal test is considered a screening—not diagnostic—tool for chromosomal abnormalities?

a)

CVS

b)

Quad screen

c)

Amniocentesis

d)

Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling

30.

A fetus is diagnosed with trisomy 18. Which nurse response is most appropriate?

a)

“Most infants with this condition live into adulthood.”

b)

“This condition is typically compatible with long-term survival.”

c)

“This condition is associated with severe developmental and physical abnormalities.”

d)

“Treatment after birth usually corrects the condition.”

31.

The nurse identifies uterine tachysystole when contractions occur:

a)

Less than 3 in 10 minutes

b)

More than 5 in 10 minutes

c)

Every 5 minutes

d)

With moderate intensity

32.

During labor, the fetal heart rate shows sudden deep variable decelerations. What nursing action is most appropriate?

a)

Apply oxygen

b)

Increase IV fluids

c)

Perform a vaginal exam

d)

Administer oxytocin

33.

Which statement by a pregnant patient indicates correct understanding of the BPP?

a)

“It tells me if my baby has genetic problems.”

b)

“It measures how mature my baby’s lungs are.”

c)

“It evaluates how well my baby is doing right now.”

d)

“It guarantees my baby will not have complications.”

34.

A laboring client is about to receive an epidural. Which assessment is most important before administration?

a)

Maternal blood pressure

b)

Fetal heart rate

c)

Cervical dilation

d)

Maternal pain level

35.

Who is more likely to inherit and be affected by sex-linked disorders?

a)

Males

b)

Females

c)

Equal chances

36.

When is the fetus at the highest risk from teratogens?

a)

Implantation

b)

pre-embryonic stage

c)

zygotic phase

d)

embryonic stage

37.

A pregnant patient asks why folic acid is important before and during early pregnancy. The nurse explains it helps prevent:

a)

Cleft palate

b)

Cardiac defects

c)

Neural tube defects

d)

Chromosomal nondisjunction

38.

Which happens if the egg is fertilized

a)

FSH increases

b)

LH increases

c)

Progesterone increases

d)

Estrogen decreases

39.

The nurse knows opioid analgesics during labor can cause:

a)

Respiratory depression in the mother and newborn

b)

Increased uterine contractions

c)

Acceleration of labor

d)

High risk of postpartum hemorrhage

40.

Cystic Fibrosis is a recessive gene

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Which nursing interventions are appropriate for a client with an epidural?

a)

Monitor blood pressure every 5–15 minutes initially

b)

Encourage ambulation during active labor

c)

Assess motor and sensory block levels

d)

Monitor fetal heart rate continuously

e)

Administer IV push opioids

42.

Which contraction pattern is concerning and requires immediate intervention?

a)

Contractions every 3 minutes lasting 60 seconds

b)

Resting tone of 10 mmHg

c)

Uterine tachysystole

d)

Progressive cervical dilation

43.

Which intervention is the priority for late decelerations?

a)

Continue monitoring

b)

Administer oxytocin

c)

Reposition the client

d)

Perform a vaginal exam

44.

When progesterone levels decrease, what does this signal to the body?

a)

Ovulation is about to occur

b)

The endometrial lining should be maintained

c)

The corpus luteum is increasing hormone production

d)

The endometrial lining should be shed

45.

The nurse palpates a boggy uterus in a postpartum client. What is the nurse’s first action?

a)

Notify the provider

b)

Administer oxytocin

c)

Massage the fundus

d)

Straight cath to assist patient in voiding

46.

The nurse enters the labor room and finds the patient’s husband holding the nitrous oxide mask to her face during a contraction. What is the nurse’s best action?

a)

Leave the husband to help and monitor the patient.

b)

Remove the mask and instruct the patient that she must self-administer the nitrous oxide.

c)

Ask the husband to hold the mask more firmly so the patient can breathe it in.

d)

Turn off the nitrous oxide because it is no longer safe.

47.

After epidural placement, the nurse notes the client’s blood pressure drops from 120/78 to 88/54 mmHg. What is the priority nursing intervention?

a)

Call anesthesia

b)

Administer a bolus of IV fluid

c)

Encourage the client to breathe deeply

d)

Reposition the client supine

48.

Nursing considerations when administering opioids during labor include:

a)

Monitor maternal respiratory rate

b)

Monitor fetal heart rate and variability

c)

Administer within 1 hour of expected delivery

d)

Assess for nausea, vomiting, or sedation

e)

Encourage ambulation after administration

49.

A patient develops late decelerations shortly after receiving an epidural. Her blood pressure is 86/52 mmHg. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

a)

Apply oxygen

b)

Increase IV fluids

c)

Notify the provider

d)

Perform a vaginal exam

50.

A postpartum client has a firm uterus that is deviated to the right. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

a)

Massage the fundus

b)

Assist the client to void

c)

Administer oxytocin

d)

Apply ice to the perineum