wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Cardiac Physiology & Histology Worksheet (Grade 13)

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 22-year-old student observes that cardiac muscle continues contracting rhythmically even when isolated in a lab experiment. This property is due to:

a)

Excitability

b)

Conductivity

c)

Contractility

d)

Automaticity

e)

Elasticity

2.

A patient develops arrhythmia due to defective cell-to-cell electrical transmission in the myocardium. Which histological structure is most likely damaged?

a)

Desmosomes

b)

Tight junctions

c)

Gap junctions

d)

Z-lines

e)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

3.

A drug prolongs the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential. Which ion movement is most affected?

a)

Na+ influx

b)

K+ influx

c)

Ca2+ influx

d)

Cl− efflux

e)

Na+ efflux

4.

A transplanted heart continues to beat despite loss of nerve supply because cardiac muscle has:

a)

High contractility

b)

Functional syncytium

c)

Automaticity

d)

Prolonged systole

e)

Long diastole

5.

A histology slide shows branched, striated muscle fibers with centrally placed nuclei. The tissue is most likely:

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Smooth muscle

c)

Cardiac muscle

d)

Elastic tissue

e)

Dense connective tissue

6.

A delay in impulse transmission is essential for ventricular filling. This delay occurs at the level of:

a)

SA node

b)

Atrial muscle

c)

AV node

d)

Purkinje fibers

e)

Ventricular myocardium

7.

Tetany cannot occur in cardiac muscle because of:

a)

Lack of Ca2+

b)

Short action potential

c)

Long refractory period

d)

Slow conduction

e)

Reduced ATP

8.

Failure of fibrous insulation between atria and ventricles would cause:

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Reduced stroke volume

c)

Simultaneous atrial and ventricular contraction

d)

Cardiac arrest

e)

Ventricular fibrillation

9.

Which cell type lacks a stable resting membrane potential?

a)

Ventricular myocyte

b)

Skeletal muscle fiber

c)

Purkinje fiber

d)

SA node cell

e)

Smooth muscle cell

10.

Phase 4 depolarization in pacemaker cells is mainly due to:

a)

Fast Na+ channels

b)

K+ efflux

c)

Funny Na+ current

d)

Cl− influx

e)

Ca2+ influx

11.

A patient with atrial fibrillation loses atrial contraction. Which phase of the cardiac cycle is most affected?

a)

Ventricular ejection

b)

Isovolumetric contraction

c)

Ventricular filling

d)

Isovolumetric relaxation

e)

Rapid ejection

12.

The first heart sound (S1) occurs due to closure of:

a)

Semilunar valves

b)

Aortic valve

c)

Pulmonary valve

d)

AV valves

e)

Venous valves

13.

A pressure–volume loop shows rising pressure without volume change. This represents:

a)

Ventricular filling

b)

Ventricular ejection

c)

Isovolumetric contraction

d)

Isovolumetric relaxation

e)

Atrial systole

14.

Coronary blood flow is maximal during:

a)

Ventricular systole

b)

Atrial systole

c)

Ventricular diastole

d)

Isovolumetric contraction

e)

Rapid ejection

15.

A rapid ventricular filling sound (S3) is most likely heard in:

a)

Healthy young adults only

b)

Mitral stenosis

c)

Ventricular stiffness

d)

Heart failure

e)

Aortic stenosis

16.

A patient with hemorrhage shows reduced cardiac output primarily due to reduced:

a)

Afterload

b)

Contractility

c)

Preload

d)

Heart rate

e)

Peripheral resistance

17.

Frank–Starling law explains increased force of contraction with increased:

a)

Afterload

b)

End-systolic volume

c)

End-diastolic volume

d)

Heart rate

e)

Blood pressure

18.

Hypertension reduces stroke volume mainly by increasing:

a)

Preload

b)

Contractility

c)

Afterload

d)

Heart rate

e)

Venous return

19.

Sympathetic stimulation increases cardiac output mainly by:

a)

Decreasing preload

b)

Increasing heart rate and contractility

c)

Decreasing afterload

d)

Increasing diastolic time

e)

Increasing venous pooling

20.

Calcium ions directly influence which cardiac parameter?

a)

Heart rate

b)

Preload

c)

Afterload

d)

Contractility

e)

Blood volume

21.

A histology slide shows a vessel with thick tunica media and multiple elastic laminae. This vessel is:

a)

Vein

b)

Venule

c)

Elastic artery

d)

Muscular artery

e)

Arteriole

22.

The primary resistance vessels responsible for BP regulation are:

a)

Veins

b)

Capillaries

c)

Elastic arteries

d)

Arterioles

e)

Venules

23.

A vessel acting as a capacitance vessel is characterized by:

a)

Thick media and narrow lumen

b)

Thin wall and wide lumen

c)

Absence of smooth muscle

d)

Elastic lamina dominance

e)

High pressure flow

24.

Presence of valves is a characteristic feature of:

a)

Arteries

b)

Arterioles

c)

Capillaries

d)

Veins

e)

Elastic arteries

25.

Which vessel lacks tunica media and adventitia?

a)

Arteriole

b)

Venule

c)

Capillary

d)

Vein

e)

Elastic artery

26.

A patient develops edema due to low plasma proteins. Which Starling force is reduced?

a)

Capillary hydrostatic pressure

b)

Interstitial hydrostatic pressure

c)

Plasma oncotic pressure

d)

Interstitial oncotic pressure

e)

Lymphatic pressure

27.

Capillary type allowing passage of large proteins is:

a)

Continuous

b)

Fenestrated

c)

Sinusoidal

d)

Muscular

e)

Elastic

28.

Precapillary sphincters regulate blood flow primarily based on:

a)

Systemic blood pressure

b)

Heart rate

c)

Local metabolic demand

d)

Plasma proteins

e)

Venous return

29.

Removal of lymph nodes leads to edema because:

a)

Filtration increases

b)

Reabsorption decreases

c)

Interstitial fluid cannot return to circulation

d)

Hydrostatic pressure decreases

e)

Plasma oncotic pressure increases

30.

The most important function of microcirculation is:

a)

Blood storage

b)

Pressure regulation

c)

Exchange of gases and nutrients

d)

Pulse generation

e)

Cardiac output regulation

31.

The property that allows cardiac muscle to act as a single unit despite being made of individual cells is primarily due to:

a)

Desmosomes

b)

Tight junctions

c)

Gap junctions

d)

T-tubules

e)

Sarcomeres

32.

Failure of fibrous insulation between atria and ventricles would most directly result in:

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Ventricular tachycardia

c)

Simultaneous atrial and ventricular contraction

d)

AV nodal delay

e)

Reduced contractility

33.

Cardiac muscle fatigue resistance is most directly related to:

a)

Myosin isoforms

b)

Large fiber diameter

c)

High mitochondrial density

d)

Slow Ca2+ channels

e)

Glycogen stores

34.

The feature that prevents tetany in cardiac muscle is:

a)

Short refractory period

b)

Plateau phase of action potential

c)

Gap junctions

d)

High potassium permeability

e)

SA node dominance

35.

The mechanical strength of intercalated discs is primarily due to:

a)

Gap junctions

b)

Ion channels

c)

Desmosomes

d)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

e)

Actin filaments

36.

Which ion movement dominates Phase 0 of ventricular action potential?

a)

Ca2+ influx (slow)

b)

Na+ influx (fast)

c)

K+ efflux

d)

Cl- influx

e)

Ca2+ efflux

37.

The plateau phase (Phase 2) of the ventricular action potential is sustained mainly by balance between:

a)

Na+ influx and K+ efflux

b)

Ca2+ influx and K+ efflux

c)

Ca2+ influx and Na+ efflux

d)

Cl- influx and K+ influx

e)

Na+ influx and Cl- efflux

38.

Pacemaker cells lack a stable resting membrane potential because of:

a)

Continuous Na+ channel opening

b)

Slow Ca2+ leak channels

c)

Funny Na+ current (If)

d)

Absence of K+ channels

e)

Excess Cl- conductance

39.

SA node action potential upstroke is mainly due to:

a)

Fast Na+ channels

b)

Slow Ca2+ channels

c)

K+ channel closure

d)

Cl- channels

e)

Na+-K+ pump

40.

A drug that selectively blocks Ca2+ channels will most significantly affect:

a)

Phase 0 of ventricular action potential

b)

Phase 1 of ventricular action potential

c)

Phase 2 of ventricular action potential

d)

Phase 4 of ventricular action potential

e)

Phase 0 of skeletal muscle action potential

41.

The AV nodal delay is physiologically important because it:

a)

Increases heart rate

b)

Allows ventricular filling

c)

Prevents atrial contraction

d)

Synchronizes ventricles

e)

Increases contractility

42.

Purkinje fibers are specialized for:

a)

Pacemaker activity

b)

Slow conduction

c)

Rapid impulse transmission

d)

Electrical insulation

e)

Atrial depolarization

43.

Which structure has the fastest conduction velocity?

a)

SA node

b)

AV node

c)

Atrial muscle

d)

Purkinje fibers

e)

Ventricular muscle

44.

Loss of gap junction function would most likely cause:

a)

Weak Contraction

b)

Asynchronous contraction

c)

Reduced preload

d)

Bradycardia

e)

Valve dysfunction

45.

Cardiac muscle automaticity is BEST defined as ability to:

a)

Contract strongly

b)

Respond to nerve impulses

c)

Generate impulses spontaneously

d)

Conduct impulses rapidly

e)

Resist fatigue

46.

Atrial systole contributes approximately what percentage to ventricular filling?

a)

5–10%

b)

10–15%

c)

20–30%

d)

40–50%

e)

>50%

47.

The first heart sound (S1) coincides with:

a)

Opening of semilunar valves

b)

Closure of semilunar valves

c)

Closure of AV valves

d)

Opening of AV valves

e)

Atrial systole

48.

Isovolumetric contraction is characterized by:

a)

Rising volume and pressure

b)

Rising pressure, constant volume

c)

Falling pressure, constant volume

d)

Falling pressure and volume

e)

Constant pressure and volume

49.

The second heart sound (S2) occurs at the beginning of:

a)

Ventricular systole

b)

Isovolumetric contraction

c)

Ventricular diastole

d)

Rapid filling

e)

Atrial systole

50.

Coronary blood flow occurs predominantly during:

a)

Atrial systole

b)

Ventricular systole

c)

Isovolumetric contraction

d)

Ventricular diastole

e)

Rapid ejection

51.

Tachycardia reduces cardiac output mainly by:

a)

Increasing preload

b)

Increasing afterload

c)

Shortening diastole

d)

Increasing contractility

e)

Increasing venous return

52.

S3 heart sound is associated with:

a)

Valve closure

b)

Ventricular stiffness

c)

Rapid ventricular filling

d)

Atrial contraction

e)

Isovolumetric relaxation

53.

S4 heart sound is MOST closely related to:

a)

Dilated ventricle

b)

Reduced contractility

c)

Ventricular stiffness

d)

Valve incompetence

e)

Rapid ejection

54.

During ventricular ejection, ventricular volume:

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Remains constant

d)

Oscillates

e)

Doubles

55.

Loss of atrial contraction will MOST significantly reduce CO in:

a)

Young healthy adults

b)

Athletes

c)

Patients with ventricular stiffness

d)

Children

e)

Pregnant females

56.

Cardiac output is mathematically expressed as:

a)

HR + SV

b)

HR × SV

c)

SV − EDV

d)

EDV − ESV

e)

MAP × TPR

57.

Frank–Starling law explains relationship between:

a)

HR and BP

b)

Afterload and SV

c)

Preload and force of contraction

d)

Contractility and calcium

e)

CO and resistance

58.

Preload is BEST represented by:

a)

End-systolic volume

b)

End-diastolic volume

c)

Stroke volume

d)

Mean arterial pressure

e)

Central venous pressure only

59.

Increased afterload will MOST likely:

a)

Increase stroke volume

b)

Decrease stroke volume

c)

Increase preload

d)

Increase contractility

e)

Increase HR

60.

Contractility differs from preload because it is:

a)

Volume-dependent

b)

Pressure-dependent

c)

Independent of fiber length

d)

Determined by venous return

e)

Reduced by calcium

61.

Sympathetic stimulation increases CO primarily by:

a)

Reducing preload

b)

Reducing afterload

c)

Increasing HR and contractility

d)

Increasing diastolic time

e)

Decreasing venous return

62.

Parasympathetic stimulation primarily affects:

a)

Ventricular contractility

b)

Stroke volume

c)

Heart rate

d)

Afterload

e)

Preload

63.

High-output heart failure is MOST likely in:

a)

MI

b)

Hypertension

c)

Anemia

d)

Cardiomyopathy

e)

Aortic stenosis

64.

Reduction in venous return will FIRST reduce:

a)

Afterload

b)

Contractility

c)

Preload

d)

HR

e)

TPR

65.

Increased calcium availability directly increases:

a)

HR

b)

Preload

c)

Contractility

d)

Afterload

e)

Diastolic time

66.

Mean arterial pressure is MOST important because it reflects:

a)

Systolic pressure

b)

Diastolic pressure

c)

Tissue perfusion

d)

Cardiac contractility

e)

Pulse pressure

67.

Primary resistance vessels are:

a)

Arteries

b)

Veins

c)

Capillaries

d)

Arterioles

e)

Venules

68.

Baroreceptors respond to changes in:

a)

Blood oxygen

b)

Blood pH

c)

Vessel stretch

d)

Blood volume

e)

Blood viscosity

69.

Sudden standing causes reflex tachycardia due to:

a)

Chemoreceptor activation

b)

Reduced baroreceptor firing

c)

Increased vagal tone

d)

Increased preload

e)

Increased MAP

70.

Long-term BP regulation is MOST dependent on:

a)

Baroreceptors

b)

Chemoreceptors

c)

RAAS

d)

Vagus nerve

e)

Sympathetic reflex

71.

Primary site of exchange of gases and nutrients is:

a)

Arteries

b)

Arterioles

c)

Capillaries

d)

Venules

e)

Veins

72.

Precapillary sphincters regulate:

a)

BP

b)

Venous return

c)

Capillary blood flow

d)

Lymph flow

e)

Cardiac output

73.

Fenestrated capillaries are commonly found in:

a)

Brain

b)

Muscle

c)

Kidney

d)

Skin

e)

Heart

74.

Sinusoidal capillaries are characterized by:

a)

Tight junctions

b)

High resistance

c)

Large pores

d)

Continuous basement membrane

e)

Low permeability

75.

Filtration is favored when:

a)

Plasma oncotic pressure increases

b)

Capillary hydrostatic pressure increases

c)

Interstitial oncotic pressure decreases

d)

Lymph flow increases

e)

Venous pressure decreases

76.

Reabsorption predominates at the:

a)

Arterial end of capillary

b)

Venous end of capillary

c)

Precapillary sphincter

d)

Arteriole

e)

Venule

77.

Edema due to low plasma proteins occurs because of reduced:

a)

Hydrostatic pressure

b)

Plasma oncotic pressure

c)

Interstitial pressure

d)

Capillary permeability

e)

Lymph flow

78.

Lymphatic obstruction causes edema because:

a)

Filtration increases

b)

Reabsorption increases

c)

Interstitial fluid cannot return

d)

Capillary pressure falls

e)

Oncotic pressure rises

79.

Shock affects microcirculation primarily by:

a)

Increasing capillary permeability

b)

Reducing capillary perfusion

c)

Increasing lymph flow

d)

Increasing filtration

e)

Increasing reabsorption

80.

Diabetes damages microcirculation mainly by affecting:

a)

Large arteries

b)

Venous valves

c)

Capillary walls

d)

Cardiac output

e)

Baroreceptors

81.

The primary reason ventricular muscle cannot be tetanized is due to:

a)

Reduced Ca 2+^{2+} availability

b)

Long absolute refractory period

c)

Slow conduction velocity

d)

AV nodal delay

e)

Reduced Na +^+ permeability

82.

Electrical insulation between atria and ventricles is mainly provided by:

a)

Gap junctions

b)

Intercalated discs

c)

Fibrous skeleton of heart

d)

Purkinje fibers

e)

AV node

83.

A decrease in gap junction conductivity would MOST directly affect:

a)

Heart rate

b)

Stroke volume

c)

Synchrony of contraction

d)

Ventricular filling

e)

Valve closure

84.

The slow conduction velocity of the AV node is physiologically important because it:

a)

Prevents atrial contraction

b)

Allows ventricular filling

c)

Increases cardiac output

d)

Enhances contractility

e)

Prevents arrhythmias only

85.

Which structure normally sets the intrinsic rhythm of the heart?

a)

AV node

b)

Bundle of His

c)

Purkinje fibers

d)

SA node

e)

Ventricular myocardium

86.

In pacemaker cells, spontaneous depolarization during phase 4 is mainly due to:

a)

Fast Na +^+ channels

b)

Increased K +^+ efflux

c)

Funny Na +^+ current and Ca 2+^{2+} influx

d)

Cl −^- influx

e)

Na +^+ –K +^+ pump failure

87.

A drug that slows the slope of pacemaker potential will:

a)

Increase stroke volume

b)

Increase contractility

c)

Decrease heart rate

d)

Increase preload

e)

Increase afterload

88.

Which ion channel is MOST responsible for repolarization in ventricular muscle?

a)

Na +^+ channels

b)

L-type Ca 2+^{2+} channels

c)

Fast Ca {2+} Channels

d)

k +^+ channels

e)

Cl- Channels

89.

Failure of Purkinje fibers would MOST severely affect:

a)

Atrial contraction

b)

Ventricular contraction timing

c)

AV nodal delay

d)

Pacemaker activity

e)

Valve function

90.

Cardiac muscle cells are described as a functional syncytium because they:

a)

Share cytoplasm

b)

Are multinucleated

c)

Are electrically coupled

d)

Are structurally fused

e)

Contract independently

91.

Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle action potentials are longer due to:

a)

Increased Na+ influx

b)

Decreased K+ permeability

c)

Plateau phase

d)

Increased Cl− conductance

e)

Reduced Ca2+ entry

92.

Which property allows the heart to continue beating after denervation?

a)

Excitability

b)

Conductivity

c)

Automaticity

d)

Contractility

e)

Elasticity

93.

A decrease in extracellular potassium would MOST likely:

a)

Suppress pacemaker activity

b)

Increase excitability

c)

Stop cardiac contraction

d)

Reduce action potential duration

e)

Prevent depolarization

94.

Electrical impulses normally pass from atria to ventricles through the:

a)

Gap junctions

b)

Purkinje network

c)

Fibrous skeleton only

d)

AV node

e)

Ventricular myocardium

95.

The primary pacemaker fails. Which structure MOST likely takes over?

a)

Ventricular muscle

b)

Purkinje fibers

c)

AV node

d)

Bundle branches

e)

Papillary muscles

96.

Ventricular filling occurs predominantly during:

a)

Atrial systole

b)

Isovolumetric relaxation

c)

Early diastole

d)

Isovolumetric contraction

e)

Ventricular systole

97.

Which event marks the transition from ventricular systole to diastole?

a)

Opening of AV valves

b)

Opening of semilunar valves

c)

Closure of semilunar valves

d)

Closure of AV valves

e)

Rapid filling

98.

During isovolumetric relaxation:

a)

Ventricular volume increases

b)

Ventricular volume decreases

c)

Ventricular pressure falls with no volume change

d)

Blood enters ventricles

e)

Semilunar valves open

99.

Loss of atrial systole is MOST detrimental in:

a)

Athletes

b)

Young adults

c)

Patients with ventricular hypertrophy

d)

Children

e)

Healthy adults at rest

100.

Systolic blood pressure MOST closely reflects which phase?

a)

Isovolumetric relaxation

b)

Atrial systole

c)

Ventricular ejection

d)

Rapid filling

e)

Diastasis

101.

The longest phase of the cardiac cycle at rest is:

a)

Atrial systole

b)

Ventricular systole

c)

Ventricular diastole

d)

Isovolumetric contraction

e)

Ejection

102.

Tachycardia reduces coronary perfusion primarily by:

a)

Increasing systole

b)

Increasing afterload

c)

Shortening diastole

d)

Increasing stroke volume

e)

Increasing preload

103.

Mitral stenosis primarily impairs which phase?

a)

Ventricular ejection

b)

Isovolumetric contraction

c)

Ventricular filling

d)

Atrial systole only

e)

Ventricular relaxation

104.

Which heart sound is associated with ventricular stiffness?

a)

S1

b)

S2

c)

S3

d)

S4

e)

Murmur

105.

Rapid ventricular filling may produce which sound in heart failure?

a)

S1

b)

S2

c)

S3

d)

S4

e)

Click

106.

Mean arterial pressure is approximately equal to:

a)

Diastolic + pulse pressure

b)

Systolic − diastolic

c)

Diastolic + 1/3 pulse pressure

d)

Systolic − pulse pressure

e)

Average of systolic and diastolic

107.

An increase in total peripheral resistance will initially:

a)

Increase stroke volume

b)

Decrease afterload

c)

Increase blood pressure

d)

Increase venous return

e)

Increase preload

108.

Which vessel type primarily acts as a capacitance vessel?

a)

Arteries

b)

Arterioles

c)

Capillaries

d)

Veins

e)

Venules

109.

Baroreceptor reflex acts mainly through:

a)

Hormonal regulation

b)

Renal mechanisms

c)

Autonomic nervous system

d)

Local metabolites

e)

Lymphatic system

110.

Chemoreceptors are stimulated by:

a)

High blood pressure

b)

Low oxygen levels

c)

High blood volume

d)

High plasma proteins

e)

Increased Preload

111.

The MOST important long-term regulator of blood pressure is:

a)

Baroreceptors

b)

Chemoreceptors

c)

RAAS

d)

Vagus nerve

e)

Sympathetic tone

112.

Arteriolar constriction primarily increases blood pressure by increasing:

a)

Stroke volume

b)

Heart rate

c)

Total peripheral resistance

d)

Blood volume

e)

Venous return

113.

Microcirculation includes vessels with diameters:

a)

>1 mm

b)

500–1000 μm

c)

<100 μm

d)

>5 mm

e)

Only capillaries

114.

Continuous capillaries are LEAST permeable because they have:

a)

Fenestrations

b)

Wide pores

c)

Tight junctions

d)

No basement membrane

e)

Large intercellular gaps

115.

Sinusoidal capillaries are MOST suited for:

a)

Gas exchange

b)

Rapid nutrient absorption

c)

Passage of large proteins

d)

High-pressure flow

e)

Neural tissue supply

116.

Net filtration at the arterial end of a capillary occurs mainly due to:

a)

High oncotic pressure

b)

High hydrostatic pressure

c)

Low permeability

d)

Lymphatic drainage

e)

Venous pressure

117.

Reabsorption at the venous end occurs because:

a)

Hydrostatic pressure increases

b)

Oncotic pressure predominates

c)

Capillary wall thickens

d)

Lymph flow increases

e)

Arterioles constrict

118.

Edema in heart failure is mainly due to:

a)

Increased oncotic pressure

b)

Decreased capillary permeability

c)

Increased venous pressure

d)

Reduced hydrostatic pressure

e)

Increased lymph flow

119.

Lymphatic obstruction causes edema because:

a)

Filtration decreases

b)

Reabsorption increases

c)

Interstitial fluid accumulates

d)

Capillary pressure falls

e)

Blood volume decreases

120.

Diabetes mellitus damages microcirculation mainly by:

a)

Increasing cardiac output

b)

Thickening capillary basement membrane

c)

Increasing venous tone

d)

Reducing blood volume

e)

Enhancing baroreceptor sensitivity

121.

Shock reduces tissue oxygenation primarily by:

a)

Increasing blood pressure

b)

Increasing capillary perfusion

c)

Reducing microcirculatory flow

d)

Increasing venous return

e)

Increasing lymph drainage

122.

Capillary exchange of gases occurs mainly by:

a)

Active transport

b)

Vesicular transport

c)

Diffusion

d)

Filtration

e)

Reabsorption

123.

Increased capillary permeability during inflammation causes edema by:

a)

Increasing oncotic pressure

b)

Allowing protein leakage

c)

Reducing hydrostatic pressure

d)

Increasing lymph flow

e)

Reducing filtration

124.

Removal of lymph nodes MOST likely leads to:

a)

Reduced filtration

b)

Increased reabsorption

c)

Lymphedema

d)

Reduced blood pressure

e)

Increased oncotic pressure

125.

Which factor opposes filtration?

a)

Capillary hydrostatic pressure

b)

Interstitial hydrostatic pressure

c)

Plasma oncotic pressure

d)

Arterial pressure

e)

Venous pressure

126.

Capillary beds are bypassed via:

a)

Venules

b)

Arterioles

c)

Arteriovenous anastomoses

d)

Precapillary sphincters

e)

Sinusoids

127.

Opening of precapillary sphincters is regulated primarily by:

a)

Systemic blood pressure

b)

Local metabolic demand

c)

Hormones only

d)

Heart rate

e)

Plasma proteins

128.

Which condition MOST favors generalized edema?

a)

High plasma proteins

b)

Low venous pressure

c)

Low plasma oncotic pressure

d)

Reduced capillary permeability

e)

Increased lymph flow

129.

Venous pooling reduces blood pressure mainly by decreasing:

a)

Afterload

b)

Contractility

c)

Preload

d)

Total peripheral resistance

e)

Heart rate

130.

The MOST important function of microcirculation is:

a)

Blood storage

b)

Pressure regulation

c)

Exchange of substances

d)

Pulse generation

e)

Valve function

Similar Resources on Wayground

respir

127 questions

respir

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

YL 2 PRACTICE EXAM

126 questions

YL 2 PRACTICE EXAM

quiz

Worksheet

•

University