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MCQ Nursing Final Exam — Extracted Worksheet Questions

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Reducing friction in the joints and supplying oxygen and nutrients is the main function of which of the following:

a)

Ligament

b)

Synovial fluid

c)

Articular cartilage

d)

Fibrous membrane

2.

The bones are covered by a layer of ________________ called articular cartilage; layer of what:

a)

Elastic cartilage

b)

Fibrocartilage

c)

Fibrous tissue

d)

Hyaline cartilage

3.

Elbow joint is an example of which of the following type of joints:

a)

Hinge joint

b)

Modified hinge joint

c)

Ball and socket

d)

Pivot joint

4.

Hip joint is an example of which of the following type of joints:

a)

Hinge joint

b)

Modified hinge joint

c)

Ball and socket

d)

Pivot joint

5.

Shoulder joint is an example of which of the following type of joints:

a)

Hinge joint

b)

Modified hinge joint

c)

Ball and socket

d)

Pivot joint

6.

Knee joint is an example of which of the following type of joints:

a)

Hinge joint

b)

Modified hinge joint

c)

Ball and socket

d)

Pivot joint

7.

Hip joint allow which of the following movements:

a)

Flexion only

b)

Extension only

c)

Circumduction only

d)

All type of movement

8.

The endomysium surrounds which of the followings:

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Fascicle

c)

Muscle fiber

d)

Myofibril

9.

The perimysium surrounds which of the followings:

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Fascicle

c)

Muscle fiber

d)

Myofibril

10.

The epimysium surrounds which of the followings:

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Fascicle

c)

Muscle fiber

d)

Myofibril

11.

The bundle of muscle fibers termed:

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Fascicle

c)

Muscle fiber

d)

Myofibril

12.

Which of the following is a feature of skeletal muscle:

a)

Short

b)

Nonstriated

c)

Several peripheral nuclei

d)

Involuntary control

13.

Which of the following is a feature of smooth muscle:

a)

Striated muscle

b)

Voluntary

c)

Spindle shape with Single central nuclei

d)

Cylindrical

14.

Basic functional unit of a myofibril is:

a)

Sarcomere

b)

A band

c)

I band

d)

Muscle cell

15.

Which of the following contain thin filament but no thick filament:

a)

A band

b)

I band

c)

H zone

d)

Sarcomere

16.

Which of the following contain thick filament but no thin filament:

a)

A band

b)

I band

c)

H zone

d)

Sarcomere

17.

Which of the following contain BOTH thin filament AND thick filament:

a)

A band

b)

I band

c)

H zone

d)

M Line

18.

Which of the followings separate one sarcomere from the next:

a)

M Line

b)

Z disc

c)

H zone

d)

I band

19.

Intrinsic muscle of the eye includes which of the following:

a)

Superior rectus

b)

Inferior oblique

c)

Sphincter pupillae

d)

Superior oblique

20.

Extrinsic muscle of the eye includes which of the following:

a)

Ciliary muscle

b)

Dilator pupillae

c)

Levator palpebrae superioris

d)

Radial muscle

21.

Lateral rectus muscle innervated by which of the following nerve:

a)

Abducent nerve (cranial nerve number 6)

b)

Oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve number 3)

c)

Trochlear nerve (cranial nerve number 4)

d)

Optic nerve (cranial nerve number 2)

22.

Superior oblique muscle innervated by which of the following nerve:

a)

Abducent nerve (cranial nerve number 6)

b)

Oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve number 3)

c)

Trochlear nerve (cranial nerve number 4)

d)

Optic nerve (cranial nerve number 2)

23.

Superior rectus muscle innervated by which of the following nerve:

a)

Abducent nerve (cranial nerve number 6)

b)

Oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve number 3)

c)

Trochlear nerve (cranial nerve number 4)

d)

Optic nerve (cranial nerve number 2)

24.

Inferior oblique muscle innervated by which of the following nerve:

a)

Abducent nerve (cranial nerve number 6)

b)

Oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve number 3)

c)

Trochlear nerve (cranial nerve number 4)

d)

Optic nerve (cranial nerve number 2)

25.

Main flexor of the arm:

a)

Biceps brachii

b)

Brachialis

c)

Coracobrachialis

d)

Brachioradialis

26.

Muscle of the anterior compartment of the arm innervated by which of the following nerve:

a)

Radial nerve

b)

Musculocutaneous nerve

c)

Ulnar nerve

d)

Median nerve

27.

Main extensor of the knee joints:

a)

Quadriceps femoris

b)

Adductor longus

c)

Biceps femoris

d)

Semitendinosus

28.

Nerve supply of the anterior compartment of the thigh is:

a)

Sciatic nerve

b)

Femoral

c)

Obturator

d)

Superior gluteal

29.

Nerve supply of the posterior compartment of the thigh is:

a)

Sciatic nerve

b)

Femoral

c)

Obturator

d)

Superior gluteal

30.

Nerve supply of the medial compartment of the thigh is:

a)

Sciatic nerve

b)

Femoral

c)

Obturator

d)

Superior gluteal

31.

Which of the following muscle is part of the posterior compartment of the thigh:

a)

Adductor longus

b)

Vastus lateralis

c)

Biceps femoris

d)

Quadriceps femoris

32.

Which of the following is considered safe injection site of the gluteal region to avoid nerve injury:

a)

Upper medial quadrant

b)

Upper lateral quadrant

c)

Lower medial quadrant

d)

Lower lateral quadrant

33.

When we give intramuscular injection on the gluteal region we should identify a safe site for injection to avoid injury which of the following nerve:

a)

Sciatic nerve

b)

Femoral nerve

c)

Obturator nerve

d)

Ilioinguinal nerve

34.

Mediastinum separated into superior and inferior mediastinum by a transverse plane extended from sternal angle into which of the following vertebral level:

a)

T1 and T2

b)

T2 and T3

c)

T3 and T4

d)

T4 and T5

35.

The area anterior to pericardial sac and posterior to the sternum is:

a)

Superior mediastinum

b)

Anterior mediastinum

c)

Middle mediastinum

d)

Posterior mediastinum

36.

Which of the following layer adheres directly to the heart and forms its outer covering:

a)

Fibrous pericardium

b)

Parietal layer of serous pericardium

c)

Visceral layer of serous pericardium

d)

Endocardium

37.

Which of the following is one of the opening into the right atrium:

a)

Left atrioventricular orifice

b)

Coronary sinus

38.

Fossa ovalis located on the:

a)

Right atrioventricular septum

b)

Left atrioventricular septum

c)

Ventricular septum

d)

Atrial septum

39.

The left atrioventricular septum is guarded by:

a)

Mitral valve

b)

Tricuspid valve

c)

Pulmonary valve

d)

Aortic valve

40.

The most inner lining layer of the wall of the blood vessels (artery):

a)

Tunica intima

b)

Tunica media

c)

Tunica externa

d)

Tunica adventitia

41.

Trachea It begins in the neck as a continuation of the larynx at the level of the:

a)

Sixth cervical vertebra

b)

Seventh cervical vertebrae

c)

Sixth thoracic vertebrae

d)

Seventh thoracic vertebrae

42.

Trachea dividing into right and left principal (main) bronchi at the level of the:

a)

sternal angle

b)

Manubrium

c)

Xyphoid process

d)

Sternal notch

43.

Which structure connects the free posterior ends of the tracheal cartilage rings:

a)

Esophagus

b)

Trachealis muscle

c)

Pulmonary veins

d)

Larynx

44.

Which of the following is true about right main bronchus when comparing with left:

a)

Narrower

b)

Longer

c)

More vertical

d)

About 5 cm

45.

Inhalation of foreign bodies into the respiratory tract is common, especially in children and tend to enter mostly to which of the following:

a)

Left main bronchus

b)

Right main bronchus

c)

Left upper bronchiole

d)

Left lower bronchiole

46.

Which of the following is true about right and left lung:

a)

Left lung have one oblique fissure

b)

Right lung have 3 fissures

c)

Left lung have one transverse fissure

d)

Right lung have 2 lobes

47.

Femoral vein directly drain into:

a)

Popliteal vein

b)

Internal iliac

c)

External iliac

d)

Inferior vena cava

48.

Brachiocephalic artery divided into:

a)

Left common carotid and left subclavian

b)

Left subclavian and right subclavian

c)

Right common carotid and right subclavian

d)

Right common carotid and left common carotid

49.

Which of the following is branch of the brachial artery:

a)

Axillary artery

b)

Subclavian

c)

Radial artery

d)

Internal thoracic

50.

The common carotid artery divides into external and internal carotid arteries at the level of:

a)

Sternal angle

b)

clavicle

c)

superior border of larynx

d)

1st rib

51.

Which of the following is part of large intestine:

a)

Duodenum

b)

Jejunum

c)

Ilium

d)

Cecum

52.

Stomach lies on which of the following abdominal region:

a)

Left inguinal

b)

Epigastric

c)

Pubic

d)

Right flank

53.

Which of the following is the most upper part of stomach and usually full of gas:

a)

Fundus

b)

Cardia

c)

Pylorus

d)

Body

54.

Extends from the pyloric orifice of the stomach to the ileocecal fold:

a)

sigmoid

b)

rectum

c)

Cecum

d)

Small intestine

55.

Which of the following part of duodenum contain the major and minor duodenal papillae:

a)

Superior

b)

Descending

c)

Inferior

d)

Ascending

56.

The base of the appendix is attached to cecum most commonly at which of the following surface:

a)

Anterior

b)

Superior

c)

Lateral

d)

Posteromedial

57.

The liver may be divided (anatomically) into right and left lobe by:

a)

Falciform ligament

b)

Gall bladder

c)

Portal vein

d)

Hepatic artery

58.

The fundus of the gallbladder projects below the inferior margin of the liver at the level of:

a)

Right 9th costal cartilage

b)

Right 10th costal cartilage

c)

Right 11th costal cartilage

d)

Left 10th costal cartilage

59.

Which of the following considered as a part of the peripheral nervous system:

a)

Brain

b)

Spinal cord

c)

Cranial nerve

d)

Cerebrum

60.

Which of the following is true about the Ventral horn of the grey matter:

a)

Receives and processes sensory input

b)

Contain somatic and autonomic sensory nuclei

c)

Receives viscerosensory input

d)

Contain cell body of somatic motor neurons

61.

Which of the following is the inner layer of the spinal cord meninges:

a)

Dura matter

b)

Arachnoid matter

c)

Pia matter

d)

Arachnoid membrane

62.

Cerebrospinal fluid is found in:

a)

Extradural space

b)

Epidural space

c)

Subdural space

d)

Subarachnoid space

63.

Frontal lobe and parietal lobe are separated by:

a)

Central sulcus

b)

Lateral sulcus

c)

Parieto-occipital sulcus

d)

Pre-central sulcus

64.

Which of the following is true cerebrospinal fluid:

a)

Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by choroid plexus

b)

Produced by rate of 1000 ml day

c)

Cerebrospinal fluid total volume 500 ml

d)

Cerebrospinal fluid total volume 1000 ml

65.

The deep, inner region of renal parenchyma composed mainly of:

a)

Renal capsule

b)

Renal cortex

c)

Renal medulla (renal pyramids)

d)

Renal corpuscle

66.

Functional unit of the kidney is:

a)

Renal cortex

b)

Renal medulla

c)

Nephron

d)

Major calyces