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HST: Infection Control

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which pathogen type is Escherichia coli (E. coli)?

a)

Virus causing respiratory illness

b)

Helminth transmitted by vectors

c)

Bacteria commonly found in intestines

d)

Fungus affecting lung tissue

2.

Varicella (chickenpox) is best classified as which pathogen type?

a)

Fungus forming spores

b)

Virus causing skin rash

c)

Bacteria with rod-shaped cells

d)

Parasite living externally

3.

Pinworms belong to which parasite classification?

a)

Ectoparasites on body surface

b)

Helminths parasitic worms

c)

Protozoa single-celled organisms

d)

Bacteria spiral-shaped

4.

Which statement describes coccus bacterial shape?

a)

Spiral corkscrew-shaped cells

b)

Curved comma-like cells

c)

Rod-shaped elongated cells

d)

Round spherical-shaped cells

5.

Spirillum bacteria are characterized by which structure?

a)

Round spherical morphology

b)

Rod straight morphology

c)

Spiral corkscrew morphology

d)

Curved comma morphology

6.

Which term describes rod-shaped bacteria?

a)

Spirillum spiral bacteria

b)

Coccus round bacteria

c)

Bacillus rod bacteria

d)

Vibrio curved bacteria

7.

Which is a correct match of parasite type to example?

a)

Helminths—pinworms

b)

Ectoparasites—malaria

c)

Protozoa—lice and ticks

d)

Protozoa—parasitic worms

8.

Tuberculosis primarily affects which body system?

a)

Digestive tract and stomach

b)

Respiratory system lungs

c)

Urinary kidneys bladder

d)

Circulatory heart vessels

9.

MRSA stands for which bacterial infection?

a)

Metabolic Resistant Staphylococcus aeruginosa

b)

Mycobacterium Resistant Streptococcus aureus

c)

Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Multidrug Resistant Salmonella aureus

10.

Why are TB and MRSA difficult to treat?

a)

They cannot survive longer than a week

b)

They are limited to acute infections

c)

They respond quickly to antivirals

d)

They are resistant to common antibiotics

11.

Which factor often required for TB treatment?

a)

No medication needed

b)

Topical ointment therapy

c)

Longer treatment courses

d)

Short single-dose therapy

12.

How is tuberculosis commonly spread?

a)

Through airborne transmission

b)

Via contaminated food

c)

Through blood transfusion

d)

By insect bites

13.

Which action increases TB transmission risk?

a)

Handwashing after meals

b)

Using sterile instruments

c)

Wearing N95 respirators

d)

Coughing sneezing speaking singing

14.

Rhinovirus typically spreads through which routes?

a)

Contaminated water ingestion

b)

Direct contact and respiratory droplets

c)

Airborne long-distance travel

d)

Vector-borne mosquito bites

15.

Coronavirus transmission is best spread by which route?

a)

Respiratory droplets and close contact

b)

Airborne only long distances

c)

Fecal-oral contaminated food

d)

Vector-borne tick exposure

16.

Mumps is a viral infection primarily affecting which glands?

a)

Sebaceous skin glands

b)

Adrenal cortical glands

c)

Salivary parotid glands

d)

Thyroid endocrine glands

17.

Measles is highly contagious and spreads mainly through which route?

a)

Direct contact only

b)

Airborne transmission

c)

Bloodborne exposure

d)

Vector-borne transmission

18.

Influenza commonly spreads through which mechanisms?

a)

Fecal-oral water route

b)

Vector tick-borne exposure

c)

Airborne long-distance only

d)

Droplets and contaminated surfaces

19.

Which transmission modes are associated with varicella in healthcare settings?

a)

Indirect contact through fomites

b)

Fecal-oral and vector-borne

c)

Droplet only transmission mode

d)

Airborne and direct contact spread

20.

An Exposure Control Plan must be updated on what schedule?

a)

Annually every year update

b)

Quarterly each three months

c)

Only when incidents occur

d)

Biannually every two years

21.

A healthcare worker may return to work when which condition is met first?

a)

No longer contagious status

b)

Received any antibiotic

c)

Has taken two sick days

d)

Symptoms began improving

22.

Which is a common symptom of infectious diseases in patients?

a)

Improved appetite levels

b)

Hair growth changes

c)

Increased energy bursts

d)

Fever among systemic signs

23.

Which pair best represents OSHA/AHA bloodborne pathogen guidance?

a)

Use Standard Precautions consistently

b)

Avoid reporting exposures

c)

Prioritize hand lotion supplies

d)

Dispose sharps in regular trash

24.

Under OSHA bloodborne pathogen rules, which training schedule applies to employees?

a)

Every two years refreshers

b)

Only after an exposure event

c)

At hire and annually sessions

d)

Monthly staff briefings only

25.

Which vaccine must be offered to covered employees under OSHA?

a)

Varicella live vaccine

b)

Seasonal influenza shot

c)

Tetanus-diphtheria booster

d)

Hepatitis B immunization

26.

A sterile package is considered sterile only if which condition holds?

a)

Intact despite visible soil

b)

Expired yet unopened

c)

Wet but sealed properly

d)

Dry, intact, not expired

27.

Which additional factor confirms sterile package integrity?

a)

Stored above eye level

b)

Label handwritten clearly

c)

Not punctured or torn

d)

Wrapped in colored tape

28.

What is the standard autoclave temperature used for sterilization?

a)

250°F or 121°C

b)

212°F or 100°C

c)

350°F or 177°C

d)

180°F or 82°C

29.

How long should wrapped items be autoclaved to achieve sterilization?

a)

Thirty minutes exposure

b)

Forty minutes exposure

c)

Ten minutes exposure

d)

Fifteen minutes exposure

30.

How long should unwrapped items remain in the autoclave cycle?

a)

Twenty minutes duration

b)

Five minutes duration

c)

Thirty-five minutes duration

d)

Ten minutes duration

31.

A medical assistant should wear gloves in which routine situation?

a)

Measuring blood pressure

b)

Touching mucous membranes

c)

Handing out paperwork

d)

Discussing care plans

32.

Which statement best defines aseptic technique for clinical procedures?

a)

Rules for rapid room turnover

b)

Methods enhancing patient comfort only

c)

Practices preventing contamination and infection

d)

Steps to sterilize all furniture

33.

Which procedure commonly requires strict aseptic technique?

a)

Administering injections safely

b)

Scheduling follow-up visits

c)

Fitting crutches properly

d)

Taking oral temperatures

34.

Which statement best distinguishes medical asepsis from surgical asepsis?

a)

Uses PPE without hand hygiene steps

b)

Prevents only bloodborne pathogen spread

c)

Eliminates all microorganisms from field

d)

Reduces microorganisms to lower infection risk

35.

Which goal defines surgical asepsis in clinical practice?

a)

Limit contamination to acceptable levels

b)

Eliminate all microorganisms completely

c)

Reduce patient exposure during care

d)

Lower risk with routine cleaning only

36.

Which procedure relies most on maintaining medical asepsis rather than surgical asepsis?

a)

Open-heart valve replacement

b)

Operating room organ transplant

c)

Neurosurgical craniotomy setup

d)

Routine wound care dressing changes

37.

Which action is the single most important aseptic procedure in healthcare settings?

a)

Using sterile instrument packs

b)

Disinfecting floors daily

c)

Wearing gowns during procedures

d)

Handwashing before and after care

38.

What minimum alcohol concentration should a hand sanitizer contain to be effective?

a)

Above seventy-five percent alcohol

b)

Exactly fifty percent alcohol

c)

About forty percent alcohol

d)

At least sixty percent alcohol

39.

How long should you scrub your hands during proper handwashing?

a)

At least twenty seconds total

b)

Around ten seconds quickly

c)

Approximately thirty-five seconds

d)

Under fifteen seconds maximum

40.

Arrange the first three steps of proper handwashing.

a)

Wet hands, scrub, apply

b)

Wet hands, apply soap, scrub

c)

Apply soap, scrub, wet

d)

Scrub, wet, apply soap

41.

Which final step helps prevent recontamination after drying hands?

a)

Air-dry without touching sink

b)

Rinse again for five seconds

c)

Use towel to turn off faucet

d)

Remove gloves before drying

42.

Which example represents direct transmission of infection?

a)

Touching infected blood or body fluids

b)

Breathing air near open window

c)

Eating sealed food from cafeteria

d)

Sharing clean towels between staff

43.

What is the correct order of the six links in the chain of infection?

a)

Agent, reservoir, exit, transmission, entry, host

b)

Host, agent, reservoir, transmission, exit, entry

c)

Entry, host, transmission, agent, exit, reservoir

d)

Reservoir, agent, entry, exit, host, transmission

44.

Which term describes a contaminated object that can spread disease?

a)

Fomite as in a shared thermometer

b)

Vector like a biting mosquito

c)

Exudate from a healing wound

d)

Macrophage engulfing pathogens

45.

Which definition correctly matches “vector”?

a)

White blood cell that engulfs pathogens

b)

Fluid draining from an open wound

c)

Living carrier such as mosquito or tick

d)

Contaminated object like a doorknob

46.

Which item is NOT part of common PPE used in healthcare?

a)

Antibiotic pills for prevention

b)

Masks for respiratory protection

c)

Sterile gloves for patient care

d)

Face shields to protect eyes

47.

Which PPE is most widely used across routine patient interactions?

a)

Gowns for every encounter

b)

Respirators for all staff

c)

Gloves for barrier protection

d)

Face shields for screening

48.

Which component in the chain of infection is most directly interrupted by hand hygiene?

a)

Mode of transmission between contacts

b)

Reservoir housing the pathogen

c)

Susceptible host immune function

d)

Portal of exit from the source

49.

A nurse touches exudate from a wound without gloves and then handles a thermometer. Which link and route most likely enable spread to the next patient?

a)

Susceptible host through vaccination

b)

Reservoir shift through clean instruments

c)

Portal of exit via respiratory droplets

d)

Mode of transmission via fomite contact

50.

Which statement best describes chemical sterilization for equipment?

a)

Equipment soaked in chemical disinfectants

b)

Equipment stored in sterile packaging only

c)

Equipment exposed to dry heat for minutes

d)

Equipment wiped with alcohol briefly

51.

How long does chemical sterilization typically require to complete?

a)

2–4 hours depending device

b)

10–24 hours total duration

c)

Over 48 hours in most cases

d)

30–60 minutes average time

52.

After a needlestick injury, which action should be taken first?

a)

Report immediately to supervisor

b)

Seek prompt medical evaluation

c)

Complete incident documentation

d)

Wash area with soap and water

53.

Which step directly follows washing after a needlestick exposure?

a)

Begin post‑exposure protocol

b)

Complete an incident report

c)

Notify the supervisor

d)

Flush the exposed area

54.

Which item must be disposed of as biohazard waste?

a)

Blood‑soaked materials

b)

Unused gauze in clean wrapper

c)

Paper towels from clean sink

d)

Unbroken glass medication vial

55.

Which of the following is classified as biohazard waste?

a)

Clean linen for next patient

b)

Contaminated PPE

c)

Unused sterile syringes

d)

Sealed medication blister packs

56.

Which disease requires droplet precautions?

a)

Influenza infection

b)

Tuberculosis disease

c)

Chickenpox illness

d)

Hepatitis B virus

57.

Which pathogens are associated with contact precautions?

a)

Norovirus and polio

b)

MRSA and C. diff

c)

Influenza and mumps

d)

Measles and TB

58.

Which illnesses call for airborne precautions?

a)

Norovirus and RSV

b)

Influenza and mumps

c)

Tuberculosis and measles

d)

MRSA and C. diff

59.

Which characteristic increases a person’s susceptibility to infection?

a)

Young adult age

b)

Recent vaccination

c)

Excellent nutrition

d)

Weak immune system

60.

In exposure categories, what does Category II indicate?

a)

Airborne pathogen exposure only

b)

Exposure with broken skin involved

c)

No exposure of any kind

d)

Exposure to blood or body fluids

61.

Which detail must be included on a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?

a)

Patient instruction forms

b)

Employee pay schedule

c)

Daily housekeeping tasks

d)

Hazards of the chemical

62.

Which is a high‑level disinfectant listed in the material?

a)

Glutaraldehyde agent

b)

Alcohol solution

c)

Bleach mixture

d)

Hydrogen peroxide

63.

During blood pressure measurement, which precaution is recommended?

a)

Skip hand hygiene when gloves

b)

Share cuffs across patients

c)

Ignore minor open skin wounds

d)

Clean equipment between uses

64.

Which statement best describes sodium hypochlorite in healthcare settings?

a)

Iodine used for surgical instrument soaking

b)

Ammonia used for equipment sterilization

c)

Alcohol used mainly for hand hygiene

d)

Bleach used as a disinfectant for surfaces

65.

When disinfecting equipment and surfaces, what solution is appropriate?

a)

Soap solution for routine handwashing

b)

Sterile water without any additives

c)

Bleach solution or EPA‑approved disinfectant

d)

Hand sanitizer with 60% alcohol

66.

What is the correct rule for managing a full sharps container?

a)

Leave open until housekeeping collects

b)

Compact contents to create extra space

c)

Do not overfill; close and replace immediately

d)

Transfer needles into regular trash bags

67.

In proper PPE donning, when should gloves be put on relative to other items?

a)

Last on after other PPE items

b)

Only if contact precautions are posted

c)

First on before all other PPE

d)

After gown but before mask

68.

During doffing, when are gloves removed compared to the gown?

a)

Gloves kept on until outside the room

b)

Gloves and gown removed at the same time

c)

Gown removed first, then gloves later

d)

Gloves removed before taking off the gown

69.

When is a respirator worn in the sequence of PPE?

a)

Only during doffing after mask removal

b)

After gloves when leaving the room

c)

Before exposure as part of donning

d)

Worn instead of a gown for contact care

70.

Which step is correct for handling highly infectious linens?

a)

Place in biohazard laundry bags

b)

Rinse with water at the bedside

c)

Shake to remove debris first

d)

Carry uncovered to the laundry

71.

What instruction applies to infectious linen handling to reduce aerosolization?

a)

Do not shake linens at any point

b)

Shake gently before bagging

c)

Shake only inside the laundry room

d)

Shake while wearing heavy gloves

72.

What does OSHA require employers to provide regarding PPE?

a)

PPE purchased by each employee

b)

PPE with partial reimbursement

c)

PPE only for high‑risk units

d)

PPE at no cost to employees

73.

Which face shield timing is correct within PPE use?

a)

Before gown and after respirator

b)

After mask and before gloves

c)

Before mask and after gown

d)

After gloves and before respirator

74.

Read and Analyze the question on the picture and answer correctly:

​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
Virus
Protist
Fungus
Bacterium
75.

Organize these pathogens into the right categories

Categorize the following

Strep Throat

Tuberculosis

Bubonic Plague

Flu

Common Cold

Measles

HIV

Ringworm

Yeast Infection

Athlete's Foot

Bacteria
Viruses
Fungi
76.
Some bacteria is known as ________________ and cause disease.
a)
pathogens
b)
flagella
c)
influenza
d)
ebola
77.

Which type of pathogen is responsible for causing the flu, chicken pox, and yellow fever?

a)

viruses

b)

parasites

c)

fungi

d)

bacteria

78.

Which pathogen has spores that are carried through the air?

a)

protist/parasite

b)

fungi

c)

bacteria

d)

virus

79.
All bacteria are harmful to humans
a)
True
b)
False
80.
Which is NOT a way infected diseases are spread?
a)
Infected people
b)
Contaminated object
c)
Infected Animal
d)
Washing your hands
81.

Why do antibiotics destroy bacterial cells but have no effect on viruses?

a)

Viruses are made up of organic molecules that are too small to be targeted by antibiotics.

b)

Viruses are not alive and do not carry out the life functions that are stopped by antibiotics

c)

Viruses do not possess the protein coat that is targeted by all antibiotics

82.

Bacteria that cause disease are referred to as ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
pathogenic
disease causing
non-pathogenic
pathogenicity
virulence
83.
Otitis Media, a bacteria, builds up in the ear and causes an infection.
a)
beneficial
b)
harmful
84.

What does a vaccine do?

a)

a) Immediately kills every pathogen

b)

b) Trains the immune system to recognize pathogens

c)

Makes you sick on purpose

d)

Cures all diseases

85.

What is the main benefit of mass vaccination?

a)

a) It is cheaper for hospitals

b)

b) It helps create herd immunity

c)

c) It eliminates the need for washing hands

d)

d) It replaces medicine

86.

Match the following

a)

can be kill with antibiotics

1.

bacteria

b)

depend on a host cell to replicate

2.

viruses

c)

contains a nucleus

3.

eukaryote

d)

no nucleus

4.

prokaryote

e)

contains membrane bound organelles

5.

eukaryote

87.

Antibiotics ________ treat viral infections.

a)

can

b)

cannot

88.
Strep throat is caused by 
a)
bacteria
b)
virus
89.

Are larger in size

a)

Viruses

b)

Bacteria

c)

Both viruses and bacteria

90.
The whiplike tail on some bacteria that help them move
a)
Nucleoid
b)
Pili
c)
Flagella
d)
Cilia