

SBA 5
Presentation
•
Science
•
2nd Grade
•
Hard

Jie Ying Guan
Used 1+ times
FREE Resource
38 Slides • 19 Questions
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SBA 5

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Multiple Choice
A 47 year old man is complaining of nausea and vomiting, swollen legs and left sided back pain over the last few days. The patient describes a history of sometimes seeing red or dark urine over the past 6 months with gradually smaller amounts being passed in the last few days. He has not passed any urine in the last 24 hours. Ultrasound finding shows a gross hydronephrosis and dilatation in the left kidney. What is the most appropriate initial management?
IV furosemide to increase urine output
CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis so definitive surgical correction can be undertaken and any tumour removed
Placement of a left nephrostomy tube to relieve obstruction of the left kidney
An intravenous urogram to allow the level of obstruction to be assessed
Intravenous fluid 500ml bolus to restore the fluids in the body
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Explanation
Answer is C. He placement of a left nephrosotomy is the first step in managing this patients obstruction. Hopefully this will improve the patients renal function and thus dialysis will be avoided. In addition the sooner the obstruction is relieved the better the long-term function of the kidney will be.
Intravenous urogram and CT abdomen, pelvis can be done after the initial management to look for underlying causes.
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Acute Kidney Injury
Rise in creatinine >26micromol/L within 48hrs
Rise in creatinine >1.5x baseline within 7 days
Urine output <0.5ml/kg/hr for >6hrs
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Multiple Choice
A 68-year-old gentleman presents with a day history of dyspnoea and productive green sputum. His past-medical history is significant for hypertension, type 2 diabetes, hypercholesterolemia and osteoarthritis. He takes ramipril, simvastatin and paracetamol as and when he needs for his osteoarthritis. He is diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia and discharged with a penicillin-based antibiotic. He returns shortly after complaining of lower back pain, reduced urine output with dysuria. Urine dip is positive for blood and proteins. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Take blood sample for serum creatinine
IV fluid bolus
Stop ramipril, simvastatin and penicillin-based antibiotics
Renal biopsy
Ultrasound KUB (kidney ureter bladder)
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Explanation
Answer is C. Patient is having AKI, initial step is stopping all nephrotoxic drugs and treat sepsis if there is any. Investigate the underlying cause when the patient is stable.
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Pre renal causes of AKI
Hypovolaemia
Renal artery stenosis
Sepsis
Shock
Burns
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Intrinsic causes of AKI
Glomerulonephritis
Acute tubular necrosis
Acute interstitial nephritis
Rhabdomyolysis
Tumour lysis syndrome
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Post renal causes of AKI
Kidney stone in ureter or bladder
BPH
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Risk Factor of AKI
CKD
Other chronic diseases
Nephrotoxic drugs (NSAIDs, aminoglycosides, ACEi, diuretics)
Age >65
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Multiple Choice
A 22-year-old man with a background of end stage renal disease uses continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) at home.
He presents to the renal unit feeling lethargic, feverish and vomiting.
What is the most likely pathogen causing this man to be unwell?
Candida
Escherichia coli
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Mycoplasma genitalium
Staphylococcus epidermis
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Explanation
Answer is E. Coagulase-negative staphylococcal species such as Staphlyococcus epidermis are the most common pathogens causing peritonitis as they colonise the skin and hands and the patient or the carer will then contaminate the dialysis equipment inadvertently by touch.
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Peritoneal Dialysis
Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)- 3-5 exchanges during the day and 1 with longer dwell during sleep
Continuous cycling peritoneal dialysis (CCPD)- uses machine that performs multiple exchanges during sleep, must retain for 10-12hrs at night
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Peritoneal Dialysis
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Open Ended
How many types of diabetes mellitus? Please list down as much as u can.
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Types of Diabetes Mellitus
Type 1
Type 2
Latent autoimmune diabetes in adulthood (LADA)
Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY)
Gestational
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Fill in the Blanks
Type answer...
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Fill in the Blanks
Type answer...
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Impaired Fasting Glucose
Fasting blood glucose of 6.1mmol/L to 7.0mmol/L.
Impaired fasting glycemia (IFG) means that the body cannot regulate glucose as efficiently as it should be able to.
It has 5-15 times higher risk to develop T2DM than people with normal blood glucose.
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Impaired Glucose Tolerance
Blood glucose of 7.8 mmol/L or more but less than 11.1mmol/L after a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).
Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) means that blood glucose is raised beyond normal levels, but not high enough to warrant a diabetes diagnosis.
1-3 out of every 4 people with impaired glucose tolerance will develop diabetes within a decade.
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Fill in the Blanks
Type answer...
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Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM)
Every pregnant lady had their blood glucose checked during their first booking visit. If she is high risk or having borderline blood glucose level, OGTT is carried out during 24-28 weeks of gestation to confirm the diagnosis of GDM.
Fasting glucose : >5.6mmol/L
2-hrs post OGTT : >7.8mmol/L
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Multiple Choice
A 54-year-old female has come to the GP diabetic clinic to review her medications and blood results. Up until now her HbA1c has been well controlled on metformin 1g twice-a-day. She has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes and heart failure. Today her HbA1c result is 59mmol/mol.
What is the most appropriate next step in this patient's management?
No further management
Increase metformin dosage
Prescribe DPP4-inhibitor
Start insulin
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Explanation
Answer is C. You can titrate up metformin (maximum 2g/day) and encourage lifestyle changes to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%), but should only add a second drug if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%).
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Indication of insulin
Acute illness or surgery
Pregnancy
Contraindications or failure of oral hypoglycemic agents
Flexible therapy
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Multiple Choice
A 10-year-old boy is brought in by ambulance after being found drowsy and confused by his parents this morning. He is usually fit and well with no past medical history. His glucose reading is unreadable and GCS scores 12/15. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Meningitis
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Hypoglycemia
Influenza
T1DM
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Explanation
Answer is B. DKA can present with an 'unrecordable' blood sugar measurement with confusion and abdominal pain. Its important to remember that 'unrecordable' blood glucose always means that the blood sugar is high rather than low. Therefore hypoglycaemia can be ruled out here.
Influenza and meningitis are also possible, but less likely than DKA given the abdominal pain and absence of a temperature.
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-A patient with neck swelling-
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Open Ended
When you see a patient coming in with neck swelling, what would be the differential diagnosis in your mind?
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Causes of neck swelling
Acute - CMV infection, EBV infection, viral URTI
Subacute - carcinoma
Chronic - thyroid pathology, brachial cleft cyst, lipoma
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Multiple Choice
The most common thyroid disorder is
Hypothyroidism
Hyperthyroidism
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Explanation
The prevalence of hypothyroidism in the UK is 2%
Thyrotoxicosis is much less common, with a prevalence of 0.4%.
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Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Destruction of thyroid cells by various cell- and antibody-mediated immune processes
This condition causes an enlarged thyroid (goitre). The enlargement is due to infiltration of the thyroid with lymphocytes, and resultant fibrosis.
!!! Goitre is often associated with hyperthyroidism, but in these circumstances, this is not the case.
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Causes of goitre
Diffuse - physiological, Graves' disease, Hashimoto's thyroiditis, Subacute thyroiditis
Nodular - multinodular goitre, adenoma, carcinoma
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Multiple Choice
Hypothyroidism caused by Hashimoto's thyroiditis is much more common in women than in men.
True
False
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Explanation
It is 10 times more common in women
Other risk factors include having a family history of thyroid disease, being age 50 or older; or using certain medicines. You are also more at risk if you have an autoimmune disease or had radiation treatment to your neck.
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Open Ended
The symptoms of hypothyroidism are
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Sign and symptoms of hypothyroidism
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Investigation for primary hypothyroidism
TSH, T4
Thyroid peroxidase antibodies
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Multiple Choice
A 62-year-old woman attends her GP complaining of weight gain, lethargy and hair loss. She denies any intercurrent illness. Thyroid function tests are performed and the results show low TSH and T4.
Which investigation is most likely to be diagnostic?
Thyroid ultrasound
Radio-iodine uptake scan
Anti-TPO antibodies
Fine needle aspiration of thyroid
MRI of pituitary gland
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Explanation
Secondary hypothyroidism is very rare and results in a low TSH and low T4. In these cases, pituitary insufficiency is most likely and therefore an MRI of the gland should be performed.
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Open Ended
How is primary hypothyroidism treated?
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Treatment for primary hypothyroidism
Offer levothyroxine monotherapy as first-line treatment for primary hypothyroidism.
Dosage depends on age. Adjust every 3-4 weeks according to response.
Measure TSH every 3 months until the level has stabilised.
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Multiple Choice
A person with untreated hypothyroidism may also have:
High cholesterol
Low blood pressure
Low blood sugar
Non of the above
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Explanation
Thyroid hormone helps in regulation of lipid metabolism.
People with untreated hypothyroidism have high total and LDL cholesterol levels
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Myxoedema coma
Severe hypothyroid state - endocrine emergencies
>65 yo, history of thyroid surgery/radioactive iodine
May be precipitated by MI, stroke, infection and trauma
Look hypothyroid. Hypothermia, hyporeflexia, hypoglycemia, bradycardia, coma
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Multiple Choice
A 32 year-old lady presents to her GP with 2 months history of painless fullness in her neck, tachycardia and heat intolerance. On examination, she has a fine tremor and a diffuse goitre.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Grave' disease
Postpartum thyroiditis
Subacute thyroiditis
Thyroid cancer
Toxic multinodular goitre
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Explanation - C
Young lady with clear sign of hyperthyroidism
Graves' disease - account for 60-80% of hyperthyroidism
Postpartum thyroiditis - occur within 12 months after delivery (Hyper-Hypo-Eu)
Subacute thyroiditis - painful goitre, occur following viral infection
Thyroid cancer - no red flag symptom here (airway compromise, issue with voice and speech - recurrent laryngeal nerve)
Toxic multinodular goitre - commonly seen in elderly
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Causes of thyrotoxicosis
Graves' disease
Toxic multinodular goitre
Toxic adenoma
Drugs - amiodarone
Levothyroxine excess
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Multiple Choice
A 53-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 2 month history of weight loss, irritability and heat intolerance.
Which of the following additional features would most support a diagnosis of Graves' disease rather than other causes of hyperthyroidism?
Antecedent viral infection
Anti-thyroid peroxidase autoantibodies
Exophthalmos
Onycholysis
Goitre
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Explanation - C
The eye signs (eyelid retraction, periorbital oedema, proptosis) only occur in Grave’s disease, and not in other causes of thyrotoxicosis
Occur in 50% of cases of Grave’s disease
Presence of anti-TPO autoantibodies only suggests that the cause of thyroid disease is an autoimmune disorder, which can be Hashimoto's disease or Graves' disease
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Management of Graves' disease
Drugs - Carbimazole / propylthiouracil (who experience SE to carbimazole, pregnant or trying to become pregnant within 6 months or with a history of pancreatitis)
Radioactive iodine - risk of hypothyroid after treatment
Surgery - total thyroidectomy (first line when there are concerns about compression or thyroid malignancy is suspected, or radioactive iodine and antithyroid drugs are unsuitable)
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Multiple Choice
What is the most common type of thyroid carcinoma?
Follicular carcinoma
Papillary carcinoma
Medullary carcinoma
Anaplastic carcinoma
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Explanation
Papillary carcinoma is the most common type with ~80% of thyroid cancers being papillary. It is a slow growing tumor. More common in younger people.
Even though papillary carcinoma is the most common cancer, it has the best prognosis among these 4 types of thyroid cancer. (98% at 10 years)
Follicular accounts for ~10%. Medullary accounts for ~5%. Anaplastic is very rare and it has the worse prognosis.
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Thank you!
SBA 5

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