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WorksheetsBiology Entrance Test
Total questions: 45
Worksheet time: 4hrs 45mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
a)
The brown tree snake ate only species that lived in trees, so it had no effect on the Guam rail.
b)
The Guam rail quickly developed the ability to fly in order to escape from the brown tree snake.
c)
The population of the Guam rail declined, and the species nearly became extinct.
d)
The Guam rail began to build its nests in trees.
2.
a)
electrical energy to heat and mechanical energy
b)
mechanical energy to heat and electrical energy
c)
electrical energy to heat and light
d)
mechanical energy to heat and vaporization
3.
4 Which list of characteristics describes organisms classified as animals?
a)
Unicellular, prokaryotic, autotrophic
b)
Multicellular, eukaryotic, heterotrophic
c)
Unicellular, eukaryotic, heterotrophic
d)
Multicellular, eukaryotic, autotrophic
4.
a)
The athlete does no work on either the 200 N weights or the 400 N weights.
b)
The athlete does no work on the 200 N weights but does work on the 400 N weights.
c)
The athlete does work on both the 200 N weights and the 400 N weights.
d)
The athlete does work on the 200 N weights but does no work on the 400 N weights.
5.
a)
sense odors in the environment
b)
exchange gases with the environment
c)
chew food as it enters the mouth
d)
trap particles that enter the nose
6.
a)
Before: Waxing Gibbous
After: Waning Cresecent
After: Waning Cresecent
b)
Before: Waxing Crescent
After: Waxing Gibbous
After: Waxing Gibbous
c)
Before: Waning Cresecent
After: New
After: New
d)
Before: Waning Gibbous
After: Full
After: Full
7.
a)
Owls are predators of bats, and bats are predators of moths.
b)
Beetles compete with bats and cave spiders.
c)
Snakes prey on bats and owls.
d)
None of the above
8.
Coal contains carbon and other elements. Carbon dioxide forms when coal burns in the presence of oxygen. Which of these is the best evidence that a chemical reaction occurs when coal burns?
a)
The shape of the coal changes.
b)
Oxygen is present.
c)
A new substance is produced.
d)
Coal is made up of more than one element.
9.
a)
Spin the ball in different directions
b)
Tilt the ball while it is spinning
c)
Paint one half of the ball black and the other half white
d)
Shine a bright light on one side of the ball
10.
The atoms of a certain element each contain 11 protons and 1 valence electron. Which statement correctly identifies this element and describes its chemical reactivity?
a)
The element is sodium, and it is highly reactive.
b)
The element is fluorine, and it is not very reactive.
c)
The element is sodium, and it is not very reactive.
d)
The element is fluorine, and it is highly reactive.
11.
A bus travels 20 km in 30 minutes. What is the average speed of the bus?
a)
20 km/h
b)
30 km/h
c)
40 km/h
d)
50 km/h
12.
a)
Substance 1
b)
Substance 2
c)
Substance 3
d)
Substance 4
13.
Which of these human activities is most likely to cause the excessive growth of phytoplankton in the world’s oceans?
a)
The use of chemical fertilizers that are carried by runoff into rivers
b)
The logging of old-growth forests, which results in erosion
c)
The spraying of chemical herbicides that reduce carbon dioxide in the air
d)
The mining of fossil fuels, which requires digging underground tunnels
14.
An atom of a certain element has 36 protons, 36 electrons, and a mass number of 84. At room temperature this element is a very stable gas. How many neutrons are in this atom?
a)
36
b)
84
c)
72
d)
48
15.
a)
A ridge formed by an inactive convergent boundary
b)
A valley forming at an active divergent boundary
c)
A fault forming at an active transform boundary
d)
A volcano formed by an active transform boundary
16.
a)
Star 1 is cooler and less bright than Star 2
b)
Star 1 is hotter and brighter than Star 2.
c)
Star 1 is cooler and brighter than Star 2.
d)
Star 1 is hotter and less bright than Star 2.
17.
a)
Microscopic algae and white suckers
b)
Small invertebrates and amphipods
c)
Phytoplankton and mummichogs
d)
Amphipods and channel catfish
18.
a)
Lithium
b)
Strontium
c)
Aluminum
d)
Silicon
19.
a)
Location W
b)
Location X
c)
Location Y
d)
Locatio Z
20.
a)
Area N
b)
Area P
c)
Area S
d)
Area T
21.
a)
Formulas I and III
b)
Formulas I and IV
c)
Formulas II and III
d)
Formulas I, II, and V
22.
a)
microwaves
b)
visible light
c)
x-rays
d)
gamma rays
23.
a)
Fewer types of plants and animals are found in warm water than in cool water.
b)
Plants and animals adapted for living in saltwater will grow more slowly in water that has less salt.
c)
Plants and animals adapted for living in saltier conditions will not be able to survive and reproduce.
d)
Animals adapted for living in warm water will eat all the plants and animals adapted for living in cool water
24.
a)
Waning Gibbous
b)
Waxing Gibbous
c)
Waning Crescent
d)
Waxing Crescent
25.
a)
The volcanoes form an island arc, indicating a converging plate boundary.
b)
The volcanoes form a line, indicating a diverging plate boundary.
c)
Two plates are moving past each other, causing faulting and magma formation.
d)
Two plates are moving apart, creating new seafloor
26.
a)
6
b)
12
c)
24
d)
36
27.
Copper compounds are used in large amounts to control the growth of algae and other aquatic plants. Copper interferes with photosynthesis in these organisms. What would be the most likely result of an accidental spill of these compounds in an aquatic environment?
a)
The fish would grow larger than usual.
b)
The zooplankton population would increase.
c)
The plants would increase in size but decrease in number.
d)
The plant populations would be reduced.
28.
a)
North
b)
South
c)
East
d)
West
29.
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
0
30.
In the early 1900s many scientists thought that an atom consisted of a positive substance with negative charges scattered throughout the substance. Then Ernest Rutherford completed an experiment that changed the concept of an atom. His discovery led to the understanding that an atom consists mostly of empty space with —
a)
protons orbiting a dense nucleus made of electrons and neutrons
b)
electrons orbiting a dense nucleus made of protons and neutrons
c)
neutrons and protons orbiting a cloud of electrons
d)
electrons and protons orbiting a cloud of neutrons
31.
Tropical rain forests have the greatest biodiversity of any type of land ecosystem. How does biodiversity contribute to the sustainability of an ecosystem?
a)
The presence of more species with different adaptations makes it more likely that some organisms will survive an ecological disaster.
b)
Greater genetic variation within species makes it more likely that some individuals will survive a disease outbreak.
c)
The presence of a variety of herbivore species that can feed on a large number of different producer species helps ensure abundant prey for predators in the ecosystem.
d)
All of the above
32.
a)
Part 1 only
b)
Parts 1 and 2 only
c)
Part 3 only
d)
Parts 2 and 3 only
33.
Which of these correctly compares the masses of different objects in the universe?
a)
A moon has less mass than a star and more mass than the planet it orbits.
b)
A planet has less mass than a galaxy and more mass than the star it orbits.
c)
A galaxy has less mass than a moon and more mass than a planet.
d)
A star has less mass than a galaxy and more mass than a planet.
34.
a)
Genes, chromosomes, and nucleus
b)
Cytoplasm, chloroplasts, and genes
c)
Vacuoles, nucleus, and chromosomes
d)
Chromosomes, chloroplasts, and vacuoles
35.
a)
Different surfaces affect how fast a toy car accelerates.
b)
Different toy cars travel at different speeds.
c)
Gravity has little effect on the speed of toy cars on different surfaces.
d)
Air resistance is the greatest factor in limiting the acceleration of different toy cars.
36.
a)
Electromagnetic attraction between the sun and Venus
b)
Gravitational attraction between the sun and Venus
c)
Electromagnetic attraction between Mercury and Venus
d)
Gravitational attraction between Mercury and Venus
37.
a)
Main-sequence stars
b)
Giants
c)
White dwarfs
d)
Supergiants
38.
When a lion eats a zebra and then uses the energy from the zebra to run, the lion’s body converts —
a)
chemical energy to mechanical energy
b)
electrical energy to chemical energy
c)
chemical energy to light energy
d)
mechanical energy to chemical energy
39.
a)
Substance 1
b)
Substance 2
c)
Substance 3
d)
Substance 4
40.
Scientists recently discovered that rocks collected from the Franklin Mountains in West Texas and rocks collected from mountains in eastern Antarctica were exactly the same age. Further research showed that the rocks were chemically and geologically the same and came from the same magma source. This discovery provides evidence of —
a)
coastal erosion
b)
plate tectonics
c)
ocean currents
d)
glacial melting
41.
a)
The ship channel would become deeper, and the island would move west toward the mainland.
b)
The ship channel would become shallower, and the beach would become narrower.
c)
The ship channel would become narrower, and the island would become completely covered with water.
d)
The ship channel would become wider, and the island would sink into the Gulf of Mexico.
42.
A student is studying calcium, a highly reactive element that humans need for strong bones. Which characteristic of calcium is most closely related to its chemical reactivity?
a)
The 20 protons in each atom of calcium
b)
The density of calcium, which is 1.54g /cm3
c)
The atomic mass of calcium, which is 40.078 amu
d)
The 2 valence electrons in each atom of calcium
43.
a)
Positively charged particles and negatively charged particles
b)
Negatively charged particles only
c)
Neutral particles and positively charged particles
d)
Positively charged particles only
44.
a)
It is day at Location X and night at Location Y.
b)
It is winter at Location X and summer at Location Y.
c)
There are more hours of daylight at Location X than at Location Y
d)
The moon is brighter when viewed from Location X than when viewed from Location Y
45.
a)
A student walks 1.5 km to a friend’s house in 40 minutes. The two students then walk
another 1.5 km to school in 20 minutes.
b)
A student walks 1.5 km to a friend’s house in 20 minutes. The two students then walk
another 1.5 km to school in 40 minutes.
c)
A student walks 1.5 km to a friend’s house in 30 minutes. The two students then walk
another 1.5 km to school in 30 minutes.
d)
A student walks 1.5 km to a friend’s house in 20 minutes. The two students then walk
another 1.5 km to school in 60 minutes.
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