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WorksheetsAP US Gov - Final
Total questions: 130
Worksheet time: 2hrs 31mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following best exemplifies dual federalism?
a)
McCulloch v. Maryland
b)
14th Amendment
c)
10th Amendment
d)
Categorical Grants
2.
A primary in which voters must be registered party members in order to participate is called a(n) ______ primary.
a)
closed
b)
open
c)
blanket
d)
referendum
3.
In which Federalist paper did James Madison argue that factions are inevitable but controllable?
a)
1
b)
10
c)
51
d)
73
4.
The Federal Reserve Board is responsible for controlling what?
a)
Taxation
b)
Campaign finance
c)
The federal budget
d)
Interest rates
5.
A Supreme Court decision based on a similar previous case is made based on what concept?
a)
Certiorari
b)
Stare decisis
c)
Amicus curiae
d)
In pauperis
6.
A committee that reconciles different versions of a bill passed in the House and Senate is called a ______ committee.
a)
Conference
b)
Joint
c)
Standing
d)
Select
7.
Which clause of the 14th Amendment is used as the basis for selective incorporation?
a)
Citizenship
b)
Equal Protection
c)
Due Process
d)
Privileges and Immunities
8.
If the number of Representatives in a state changes, district lines must be redrawn. This process is called _________.
a)
Reapportioning
b)
Readjusting
c)
Redistricting
d)
Redistributing
9.
Which of these correctly describes impeachment?
a)
2/3 of the House
b)
2/3 of the Senate
c)
Simple majority of the House
d)
Simple majority of the Senate
10.
The agency that helps Congress analyze the federal budget is called the ______
a)
OMB
b)
CBO
c)
Fed
d)
IRS
11.
Who can change the number of Supreme Court justices?
a)
President
b)
Supreme Court
c)
Constitutional amendment
d)
Congress
12.
Once a constitutional amendment has been proposed, the next step is ______
a)
State ratification
b)
Presidential signature
c)
Congressional approval
d)
Judicial review
13.
The power to declare federal laws unconstitutional comes from _____
a)
Article III of Constitution
b)
Judiciary Act of 1789
c)
Marbury v. Madison
d)
McCulloch v. Maryland
14.
The greatest single source of political socialization is ______.
a)
School
b)
Family
c)
Religion
d)
Peers
15.
The importance of Shay’s Rebellion to the development of the Constitution of the United States Constitution was that it
a)
revealed the necessity of both adding the Bill of Rights to the Constitution and creating a new system of checks and balances
b)
demonstrated the intensity of antiratification sentiment within the thirteen states
c)
indicated that a strong, constitutionally designed national government was needed to protect property and maintain order
d)
reinforced the idea that slavery should be outlawed in the new Constitution
16.
We are unanimously of opinion, that the law passed by the legislature of Maryland, imposing a tax on the Bank of the United States, is unconstitutional and void...This is a tax on the operation of an instrument employed by the government of the Union to carry its powers into execution. Such a tax must be unconstitutional...
This decision of the Supreme Court upheld the principle that
This decision of the Supreme Court upheld the principle that
a)
the federal government and the state governments are equal
b)
the federal government alone may levy taxes
c)
Congress has the power to make laws to carry out its constitutional duties
d)
taxation without representation is unconstitutional
17.
Which of the following is true of amicus curiae briefs?
a)
They are used by interest groups to lobby courts
b)
They are used exclusively by liberal interest groups
c)
They are used exclusively by conservative interest groups
d)
They are now unconstitutional
18.
The reserved powers of the state governments can best be described as those powers
a)
not specifically granted to the national government or denied to the states
b)
implied in the Fifth Amendment
c)
listed specifically in the Tenth Amendment
d)
granted to states as part of the implied powers doctrine
19.
Which of the following was the most important effect of replacing the Articles of Confederation with the Constitution of 1787?
a)
The protection of free speech
b)
The guarantee of states’ rights
c)
The establishment of direct democracy
d)
The creation of a strong national government
20.
In the Constitution as originally ratified in 1788, the provisions regarding which of the following most closely approximate popular, majoritarian democracy?
a)
Election of members of the House of Representatives
b)
Election of members of the Senate
c)
Election of the President
d)
Ratification of treaties
21.
The Constitution as ratified in 1788 most clearly reflects the framer’ commitment to
a)
the idea of direct democracy
b)
the principle of limited government
c)
the abolition of slavery
d)
maintaining the primacy of the states
22.
Which of the following best illustrates a use of the elastic clause?
a)
The Supreme Court allows a lower court ruling to stand by refusing to hear an appeal
b)
Congress passes legislation establishing a national speed limit
c)
A member of the House of Representatives introduces a bill to increase federal income tax rates
d)
A governor issues an executive order requiring all state employees to submit to drug testing
23.
The Supreme Court has used the Fourteenth Amendment to apply portions of the Bill or Rights to state law by citing the amendment’s
a)
due process of law
b)
abolition of slavery
c)
“reserved powers” provision
d)
guarantee of privacy rights
24.
In the federal system of government, political power is primarily
a)
vested in local governments
b)
vested in the regional governments
c)
vested in the central governments
d)
divided between the central government and regional governments
25.
The term “iron triangle” refers to the interrelationship of the
a)
president, Congress, and the Supreme Court
b)
electorate, Congress, and political action committees
c)
local, state, and federal governments
d)
federal bureaucracy, congressional committees, and lobbyists
26.
Which of the following statements about Democrats and Republicans is true?
a)
City dwellers are more likely to call themselves Republicans than Democrats
b)
Republicans are more likely than Democrats to label themselves “conservatives”
c)
African American citizens are more likely to call themselves Republicans than Democrats
27.
Of the following, which best predicts the likelihood that citizens will vote?
a)
Their race
b)
Their religion
c)
Their educational level
d)
Their gender
28.
All of the following powers are granted to the President by the Constitution EXCEPT
a)
commissioning officers in the armed forces
b)
receiving ambassadors
c)
granting pardons for federal offenses
d)
forming new cabinet-level departments
29.
A major difference between the House of Representatives and the Senate is
a)
filibusters are possible only in the House
b)
revenue bills must originate in the Senate
c)
each state has equal representation in the House but not in the Senate
d)
there is unlimited debate in the Senate but not in the House
30.
What are civil liberties?
a)
make up the unwritten Constitution
b)
the rights to vote and participate in the political process
c)
laws that provide and set limits on one's freedoms
d)
individual legal and constitutional protections against the government
31.
Where are American civil liberties found?
a)
the Preamble
b)
the Bill of Rights
c)
the Declaration of Independence
d)
Article IV
32.
The decision in this court cased stated that the Bill of rights restrained only the national government and not the states.
a)
Barron v. Baltimore
b)
Engel v. Vitale
c)
Gitlow v. New York
d)
Marbury v. Madison
33.
The First Amendment includes the freedoms of
a)
speech and the right to bear arms
b)
religion, press, and right to counsel
c)
petition, assembly, press, speech, and religion
d)
press, petition, and the right to vote
34.
Which amendment has the Supreme Court relied on in deciding to incorporate parts of the Bill of Rights into state laws?
a)
1st
b)
26th
c)
14th
d)
18th
35.
Incorporation doctrine involves
a)
application of the Bill of Rights to the states
b)
the governments power to regulate corporations
c)
the extension of judicial review to state courts
d)
the interpretation of the commerce clause
36.
Which court decision stated that aid to church-related schools must be for secular purposes only, and cannot be used to advance or inhibit religion?
a)
Engel v. Vitale
b)
Mapp v. Ohio
c)
Gideon v. Wainwright
d)
Lemon v. Kurtzman
37.
Women were given the right to vote for president by which amendment?
a)
15th
b)
19th
c)
26th
d)
27th
38.
In this case, the Supreme Court ruled that defendants in all felony cases had a right to counsel, and if they could not afford to hire a lawyer, one must be provided.
a)
Mapp v Ohio
b)
Engel v. Vitale
c)
Miranda v. Arizona
d)
Gideon v. Wainwright
39.
What did the Brown v. Board of Education case do?
a)
ended public school segregation
b)
mandated school integration but was no immediately enforced
c)
mandated busing as a solution to public school segregation
d)
did not require that the government take action to integrate schools
40.
Which of the following cases most likely involves a violation of civil rights?
a)
classifying people into brackets on the basis of income and taxing them at different rates
b)
conducting a search without a warrant or probable cause
c)
classifying people and treating them differently on the basis of race or gender
d)
giving adults more rights, such as voting and drinking alcohol, than the rights possessed by minors
41.
The power of the courts to determine which acts of Congress, the executive branch, and the state legislatures are constitutional is known as
a)
Judicial Review
b)
Stare Decisis
c)
Precedent
d)
Original Jurisdiction
42.
Affirmative action refers to
a)
the U.S. Senate approving a presidential appointment to the cabinet under its “advice and consent” function
b)
a policy giving special consideration to groups that have been disadvantaged historically
c)
The Supreme Court upholding a lower court decision
d)
interest group lobbying efforts in pursuit of the common goals of group members
43.
Amicus curiae briefs are
a)
a form of inside lobbying that attempts to influence the Court’s agenda
b)
A form of outside lobbying that attempts to influence the Court’s decisions
c)
A form of outside lobbying that attempts to influence the Court’s reputation
d)
A form of inside lobbying that attempts to influence the Courts decisions
44.
In The Federalist Papers, James Madison expressed the view that political factions
a)
should be nurtured by a free nation
b)
should play a minor role in any free nation
c)
are undesirable but inevitable in a free nation
d)
are necessary to control the masses
45.
Agreement among four justices on the Supreme Court is always sufficent to
a)
decide the outcome of the case
b)
write a majority opinion
c)
set a precedent
d)
accept a case for consideration
46.
Which of the following is true of nominees for federal judgeships?
a)
They are recruited from the current pool of United States attorneys
b)
They are nominated by the Senate
c)
They are elected in popular elections
d)
They are appointed for life by the President with the advice and consent of the Senate
47.
In selecting members of the White House staff, President’s primarily seek people who
a)
are personally loyal to the President
b)
give the White House ideological balance
c)
have extensive governmental experience
d)
can bring a nonpartisan perspective to policy deliberations
48.
Which of the following characterizes the influence of the news media on public opinion in the United States?
a)
They alter the public’s veiws on issues.
b)
They affect which issues the public thinks are important
c)
They determine how citizens will vote
d)
They are most able to influence people with the highest level of education.
49.
The Congress shall have power . . . to make all laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into execution the foregoing powers, and all other powers vested by this Constitution in the government of the United States, or in any department or officer thereof.
The practical effect of this clause has been to
The practical effect of this clause has been to
a)
make the legislature the most powerful branch of the national government.
b)
give the president uncontested powers in the area of foreign policy
c)
ensure that any power not delegated by the Constitution to the United States government are reserved to the states and the people.
d)
allow the national government to extend its powers beyond those enumerated in the Constitution.
50.
Those who believe that the Supreme Court in its rulings should defer to the elective institutions of government are advocating
a)
“Social Darwinism”
b)
“judicial activism”
c)
“judicial restraint”
d)
“incorporation”
51.
All of the following are reasons incumbents in the House of Representatives enjoy an electoral advantage over challengers EXCEPT that incumbents
a)
get substantial financial support from their party’s national committee
b)
are better known to voters than are challengers
c)
find it much easier to raise campaign funds than do challengers
d)
often serve on committees that enable them to help the constituency
52.
The boundary lines of congressional districts are drawn by
a)
the United States House of Representatives
b)
the United States Senate
c)
United States district courts
d)
state legislatures
53.
An organization that has an IRS code designation that raises and spends money to advance political causes.
a)
527 organization
b)
501 (c)(3) organization
c)
501 (c) (4) organization
d)
SuperPacs
54.
Court case that ruled that the funding of independent broadcasts advocating for/against a candidate cannot be limited under the first amendment.
a)
Citizens United v FEC
b)
McCutcheon v FEC
c)
Buckely v Valeo
d)
BCRA v FECA
55.
drawing the boundaries of legislative districts in bizarre or unusual shapes to favor one party
a)
gerrymandering
b)
lizarding
c)
snaking around
d)
sleazymandering
56.
the alleged tendency of candidates to win more votes in an election because of the presence of the top of the ticket of a better-known candidate, such as the president
a)
coattails
b)
positioning
c)
surging
d)
backdooring
57.
spending by political action committees, corporations, or labor unions to help a party or candidate but done independently of them
a)
independent expenditure
b)
501 (c) (4) expenditure
c)
SuperPAC expenditure
d)
candidate expenditure
58.
a committee set up by a coporation, labor union, or interest group that raises and spends campaign money from voluntary donations
a)
PAC
b)
Super PAC
c)
Incumbent group
d)
527 organization
59.
the person who already holds elected office
a)
incumbent
b)
candidate
c)
sophomore
d)
important
60.
Financial donations with no limits made to SuperPACS, 527, 501(c)(3)s, and 501(c)(4)s.
a)
soft money
b)
contribution
c)
hard money
d)
independent expenditures
61.
The minimum age of a member of the House is
a)
25
b)
30
c)
35
d)
18
62.
Congressional committees and subcommittees exist
a)
to acquire the information needed to pass meaningful and comprehensive legislation
b)
to offer important political posts to influential representatives and senators
c)
to consolidate power in the majority party
d)
to streamline the ever-growing legislative process
63.
Which committee in the House of Representatives is an instrument of the majority party to control debate on the floor?
a)
Rules Committee
b)
Conference Committee
c)
Steering Committee
d)
Ways and Means Committee
64.
What congressional institution audits and reports on programs and agencies?
a)
Inspector generals
b)
The Office of Mandatory Reports
c)
Congressional Budget Office (CBO)
d)
Governmental Accountability Office (GBO)
65.
The current Speaker of the House is
a)
Mitch McConnell
b)
Kevin McCarthy
c)
Joe Biden
d)
Paul Ryan
66.
Until 1913, U.S. senators were selected by
a)
the people
b)
the House of Representatives
c)
state legislatures
d)
the Electoral College
67.
A congressional committee that holds a hearing to determine whether the Department of Agriculture is administering the food stamp program as Congress intended is engaging in
a)
legislative oversight
b)
agenda setting
c)
micro-investigation
d)
pork barrel spending
68.
The franking privilege
a)
contributes to the incumbency advantage
b)
allows the Speaker of the House unlimited power
c)
allows the president to veto bills
d)
was abolished in 2004 by the Supreme Court
69.
Which of the following is an informal influence on public policy?
a)
Congress
b)
Bureaucracy
c)
Courts
d)
Media
70.
Which event prompted the transition of the United States from laissez faire economics to Keynesian economics?
a)
World War I
b)
World War II
c)
Great Depression
d)
Great Recession
71.
Which president proposed the New Deal?
a)
Herbert Hoover
b)
Franklin D. Roosevelt
c)
John F. Kennedy
d)
Lyndon B. Johnson
72.
The Fourteenth Amendment to the Constitution has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to
a)
expand presidential power
b)
restrict the application of judicial review
c)
make most rights contained in the Bill of Rights applicable to the states
d)
limit the use of the legislative veto
73.
The clear-and-present-danger test devised by the Supreme Court was designed to define the conditions under which public authorities could
a)
ban obscene materials
b)
suspend habeas corpus protections
c)
limit free speech
d)
mobilize the National Guard
74.
The Articles of Confederation implemented the principle of
a)
a strong national government
b)
a unified system of taxes
c)
universal suffrage
d)
state sovereignty
75.
The framers of the Constitution intended to establish
a)
a representative republic
b)
a direct democracy
c)
an authoritarian state
d)
a parliamentary republic
76.
Which of the following best describes a purpose of the Establishment Clause?
a)
It gives Congress the power to protect civil rights and civil liberties.
b)
It prohibits Congress from establishing a state religion.
c)
It empowers Congress to create a national bank.
d)
It prevents Congress from prohibiting the possession of guns on school grounds.
77.
Ruled that free speech could be limited when it presents a "clear and present danger." Established the "clear and present danger" test to define conditions under which public authorities can limit free speech.
a)
Roth v. United States
b)
Barron v. Baltimore
c)
Schenck v. United States
d)
Tinker v. Des Moines Independent School District
78.
John Marshall Court ruled that the Bill of Rights cannot be applied to the states. Concerned a question of the Fifth Amendment regarding eminent domain.
a)
Barron v. Baltimore
b)
Gitlow v. United States
c)
Mapp v. Ohio
d)
Gideon v. Wainwright
79.
Established precedent for the doctrine of selective incorporation, thus extending most of the requirements of the Bill of Rights to the states.
a)
Gitlow v. United States
b)
Miranda v. Arizona
c)
Roe v. Wade
d)
Barron v. Baltimore
80.
Ruled that the decision to obtain an abortion is protected by the right to privacy implied by the Bill of Rights.
a)
Roe v. Wade
b)
Gitlow v. United States
c)
Wolf v. Colorado
d)
Miranda v. Arizona
81.
Ruled that the police must inform criminal suspects of their constitutional rights before questioning suspects after arrest.
a)
Miranda v. Arizona
b)
Gideon v. Wainwright
c)
New York Times v. Sullivan
d)
Engel v. Vitale
82.
Struck down state-sponsored prayer in public schools. Ruled that the Regents' prayer was an unconstitutional violation of the Establishment Clause.
a)
Engel v. Vitale
b)
Sherbert v. Verner
c)
Mapp v. Ohio
d)
Gitlow v. United States
83.
Extended the exclusionary rule to the states. Illustrated the process of selective incorporation through the Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.
a)
Mapp v. Ohio
b)
Gitlow v. United States
c)
Tinker v. Des Moines Independent School District
d)
Oregon v. Smith
84.
Allowed for selective incorporation of the Second Amendment by striking down a law that banned handguns in Chicago.
a)
McDonald v. Chicago
b)
Roth v. United States
c)
Miranda v. Arizona
d)
Griswold v. Connecticut
85.
Ruled that the Sixth Amendment right-to-counsel provision applies to those accused of major crimes under state laws. Illustrated the process of incorporation by which the Sixth Amendment was applied to the states through the Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.
a)
Gideon v. Wainwright
b)
Near v. Minnesota
c)
New York Times v. United States
d)
Miranda v. Arizona
86.
Whereas civil rights may be defined as what the government must provide its citizens, civil liberties may be defined as what the government
a)
must do to its citizens.
b)
cannot deny its citizens.
c)
may do to its citizens if it so chooses.
d)
can take away from its citizens.
87.
If you publish obscene material,
a)
it is not subject to government restraint.
b)
it is still a form of expression protected under the First Amendment.
c)
you cannot claim the protection of the First Amendment.
d)
you are protected if the material comes into the U.S. from an outside country.
88.
In New York Times v. Sullivan, the Supreme Court
a)
ruled that prior restraint is a political issue and therefore not justifiable.
b)
ruled that prior restraint is not a violation of freedom of the press.
c)
denied prior restraint in that case but left open the possibility that it would be allowed in some circumstances.
d)
ruled that prior restraint of the press violated the First Amendment.
89.
A bill of attainder
a)
impairs contracts between states.
b)
prevents double jeopardy.
c)
declares an action illegal after it has been committed.
d)
declares a person guilty without the benefit of trial.
90.
The exclusionary rule holds that
a)
"fighting words" can be excluded from constitutional protection.
b)
a court can order or constrain an action by an individual.
c)
evidence obtained from an illegal search and seizure cannot be used in a trial.
d)
evidence wrongly excluded at trial may not be used in appellate court later.
91.
The good faith exception allows
a)
the state to introduce evidence at trial if the evidence was seized on the basis of a mistakenly issued search warrant.
b)
the state to exempt a person from punishment for a crime if that person did not understand that his or her action was criminal.
c)
individuals to publish any material they wish, as long as they believe that material to be factually correct.
d)
a mistake in securing evidence to be considered neutrally by a jury.
92.
This Supreme Court Case determined that contraception was protected by the "right to marital privacy" implied in the Bill of Rights...
a)
Kelo v. New London
b)
Griswold v. Connecticut
c)
Barron v. Baltimore
d)
Reynolds v. Simms
93.
In the United States political system, the term Federalism refers to
a)
limits on the powers of the state governments
b)
the division of powers between the levels of government
c)
the fundamental basis of law
d)
limits on the powers of the national government
94.
Which of the following constitutional provisions broadened the power of Congress?
a)
The necessary and proper clause
b)
The equal protection clause
c)
The Tenth Amendment
d)
The Ninth Amendment
95.
The clause in the United States Constitution that states that federal law will prevail in the event of a conflict between federal and state law is known as the
a)
necessary and proper clause
b)
supremacy clause
c)
equal protection clause
d)
confrontation clause
96.
Money for broad general purposes is called a what type of grant?
a)
Block Grant
b)
Categorical Grant
c)
Formula Grant
d)
Focused Grant
97.
What is the institution through which policy is made and enforced?
a)
Politics
b)
Political Science
c)
Government
d)
Public Policy
98.
Protect individuals from government actions.
a)
Civil liberties
b)
Civil rights
c)
Eminent domain
d)
Symbolic speech
99.
Protect groups against discrimination.
a)
Civil liberties
b)
Civil rights
c)
Eminent domain
d)
Symbolic speech
100.
Court order that the authorities show cause for why they are holding a prisoner in custody.
a)
Writ of habeas corpus
b)
Bill of attainder
c)
Ex post facto law
d)
Writ of mandamus
101.
Which of these was NOT directed toward the goal of equality of women?
a)
Title IX
b)
The Equal Rights Amendment
c)
The 17th Amendment
d)
The 19th Amendment
102.
Federal mandate that extended rights to those with disabilities such as requiring wheelchair accessible public accommodations.
a)
American Opportunity Act
b)
Affordable Care Act
c)
Temporary Assistance for Needy Families
d)
Americans with Disabilities Act
103.
14th Amendment clause that prohibits states from denying equal protection under the law, and has been used to combat discrimination by extending civil rights.
a)
Privileges and Immunities Clause
b)
Full Faith and Credit Clause
c)
Equal Protection Clause
d)
Due Process Clause
104.
Who chooses the President if there is no electoral college majority?
a)
House
b)
Senate
c)
Supreme Court
d)
Cabinet
105.
Which of these is NOT a role given to the President by the Constitution?
a)
Commander in Chief
b)
Chief Executive
c)
Negotiate treaties
d)
Head of his/her political party
106.
Which of these does NOT require a 2/3rds vote in the Senate?
a)
Conviction of a president on impeachment charges
b)
Vice-Presidential election in case of the electoral college not producing a majority
c)
Ratifying a treaty
d)
Proposing an amendment
107.
Which of these is now considered unconstitutional at the federal level?
a)
Executive privilege
b)
Line item veto
c)
Executive agreements
d)
Executive orders
108.
Which of these is NOT a government corporation?
a)
AMTRAK
b)
FDIC (Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation)
c)
U.S. Postal Service
d)
Securities and Exchange Commission
109.
What type of federalism is referred to as "layer cake" federalism?
a)
New Federalism
b)
Fiscal Federalism
c)
Dual Federalism
d)
Cooperative Federalism
110.
What type of federalism if referred to as "marble cake" federalism?
a)
New Federalism
b)
Fiscal Federalism
c)
Dual Federalism
d)
Cooperative Federalism
111.
Which group believed in a limited national government with rights guaranteed to citizens around the time of the Constitution?
a)
Federalists
b)
Anti-Federalists
c)
Democrats
d)
Republicans
112.
This Amendment prohibits the denial of suffrage based on race, color, or previous condition of servitude.
a)
15th Amendment
b)
19th Amendment
c)
23rd Amendment
d)
26th Amendment
113.
This Amendment gives Washington D.C. 3 presidential electors.
a)
15th Amendment
b)
19th Amendment
c)
23rd Amendment
d)
24th Amendment
114.
This Amendment abolishes the poll tax.
a)
15th Amendment
b)
19th Amendment
c)
23rd Amendment
d)
24th Amendment
115.
This Amendment establishes the right to vote for those 18 years and older.
a)
15th Amendment
b)
19th Amendment
c)
24th Amendment
d)
26th Amendment
116.
This is defined as the widely shared beliefs, values, and norms about how citizens relate to governments and to one another.
a)
Political ideology
b)
Political culture
c)
Political efficacy
d)
Political socialization
117.
This is defined as the capacity to understand and influence political events.
a)
Political ideology
b)
Political culture
c)
Political efficacy
d)
Political socialization
118.
This is defined as the process in which one acquires his/her political beliefs.
a)
Political ideology
b)
Political culture
c)
Political efficacy
d)
Political socialization
119.
One who favors more limited and local government, less government regulation of markets, and more social conformity to traditional norms and values.
a)
Conservative
b)
Liberal
c)
Libertarian
d)
Populist
120.
One who favors more government regulation of business and support for social welfare, but less regulation of private social conduct.
a)
Conservative
b)
Liberal
c)
Libertarian
d)
Populist
121.
People turning away from the major political parties.
a)
Dealignment
b)
Realignment
c)
Critical election
d)
Party polarization
122.
An increase in divisions across ideological and party lines...e.g., Democrats and Republicans unwilling to compromise.
a)
Elite theory
b)
Pluralism
c)
Party polarization
d)
Party platform
123.
Consists of citizens over 50 with influences on issues like Social Security and prescription drugs.
a)
AARP
b)
ACLU
c)
NAACP
d)
NRA
124.
Legal experts focusing on civil rights and civil liberties.
a)
AARP
b)
ACLU
c)
NAACP
d)
NRA
125.
Advocates for African American civil rights.
a)
AARP
b)
ACLU
c)
NAACP
d)
NRA
126.
Law that made racial discrimination against any group in hotels, motels, and restaurants illegal, and forbade many forms of job discrimination.
a)
Alien and Sedition Acts
b)
Espionage Act
c)
Civil Rights Act of 1964
d)
Voting Rights Act of 1965
127.
This amendment protects against cruel and unusual punishment.
a)
4th Amendment
b)
5th Amendment
c)
6th Amendment
d)
8th Amendment
128.
An action that consists of no writing or speaking, but still expresses an opinion.
a)
Pure speech
b)
Symbolic speech
c)
Hate speech
d)
Speech plus
129.
Which clause prohibits the government from establishing a national religion?
a)
The Establishment Clause
b)
The Free Exercise Clause
c)
The Privileges and Immunities Clause
d)
The Full Faith and Credit Clause
130.
How does the Constitution get amended?
a)
A majority of Congress followed by signature of the President
b)
A 2/3rds majority of Congress followed by signature of the President
c)
A 2/3rds majority of Congress followed by ratification from 3/4s of the states
d)
A 3/4ths majority of Congress followed by ratification from 2/3rds of the states
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