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WorksheetsRehab Exam 4
Total questions: 91
Worksheet time: 46mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Unpleasant sensory & emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage.
Includes:
perception of pain
experience of suffering
pain behavior
Includes:
perception of pain
experience of suffering
pain behavior
a)
Acute Pain
b)
Pain
c)
Recurrent Pain
d)
Chronic Pain
2.
Associated with tissue damage or the threat of such damage & typically resolves once the tissue heals or the threat resolves
0-3 months
0-3 months
a)
Chronic Pain
b)
Recurrent Pain
c)
Pain
d)
Acute Pain
3.
Repeated episodes of acute pain
Recurrent low back strain
Chronic pain in which the symptoms are intermittent
Arthritis
Recurrent low back strain
Chronic pain in which the symptoms are intermittent
Arthritis
a)
Recurrent Pain
b)
Pain
c)
Chronic Pain
d)
Acute Pain
4.
Any pain persisting more than a specified time length (3-6 months), can be beyond 6 months
a)
Chronic Pain
b)
Pain
c)
Acute Pain
d)
Recurrent Pain
5.
Correlates damage to pain sensations, if you fix the tissue damage the pain will resolve.
a)
Biophsycosocial Model
b)
Biomedical Model
c)
Chronic Pain Model
d)
Medical Model
6.
Recognizes that physical factors interact with personal and environmental factors to affect body function and structure, activity, and participation in life activities.
a)
Biomedical Model
b)
Bio Model
c)
Biophsycosocial Model
d)
Chronic Pain Model
7.
Refers to the affective component of pain, and includes both emotional & cognitive components. (Anxiety/anger, helplessness
a)
Suffering
b)
D
Difficulty
Difficulty
c)
Misery
d)
Discomfort
8.
Exists when extensive pain behaviors have developed
Includes central sensitization, pain
Includes central sensitization, pain
a)
Posterior Syndrome
b)
Central Syndrome
c)
Chronic Pain Syndrome
d)
Anterior Syndrome
9.
Afraid of moving
a)
Mysophobia
b)
Kinesiophobia
c)
Tyrpophobia
d)
Phobophobia
10.
Pain receptors that signal actual or potential tissue damage. There are three types that do not normally respond to sensory stimuli in non-damaging ranges, but mild injury will increase their sensitivity as well as the surrounding tissue.
a)
High-Thershold Receptors
b)
Mechanothermal Receptors
c)
Polymodial Receptors
d)
Nociecptors
11.
Responds to strong mechanical stimulation
-A-Delta: sensitive to crude touch, pain, & temperature, faster
-Fast Conduction, myelinated
-Sensation is well localized
-A-Delta: sensitive to crude touch, pain, & temperature, faster
-Fast Conduction, myelinated
-Sensation is well localized
a)
Mechanothermal Receptors
b)
High-Thershold Receptors
c)
Polymodial Receptors
d)
Pain Receptors
12.
Responds to strong mechanical stimulation & noxious heat
- A-Delta: sensitive to crude touch, pain, & temperature, faster
- Fast Conduction, myelinated
- Sensation is well localized
- A-Delta: sensitive to crude touch, pain, & temperature, faster
- Fast Conduction, myelinated
- Sensation is well localized
a)
High-thershold Receptors
b)
Pain Receptors
c)
Polymodial Receptors
d)
Mechanothermal Receptors
13.
Responds to strong mechanical stimulation, noxious heat, & irritant chemicals
- C-fibers: afferent fibers coming from pain receptors
- Slow conduction, un-myelinated
- Sensation is poorly localized
- C-fibers: afferent fibers coming from pain receptors
- Slow conduction, un-myelinated
- Sensation is poorly localized
a)
Polymodial Receptors
b)
Pain Receptors
c)
High-Thershold Receptors
d)
Mechanothermal Receptors
14.
When the pain impulse travels to the spinal cord via A-Delta or C-fibers
a)
Second Order Neurons
b)
First Order Neurons
c)
New Order Neurons
d)
Last Order Neurons
15.
In the dorsal horn when the connection is made with lamina and travels up the lateral spinothalamic tract to the opposite side of the spinal cord and up into the brainstem
a)
Second Order Neurons
b)
Third Order Neurons
c)
First Order Neurons
d)
New Order Neurons
16.
Once in the brainstem, these neurons travel either in one of 2 pathways: either from the thalamus to the somatosensory cortex OR through the retinacular formation (spinoreticulothelamic pathway)
a)
Second Order Neurons
b)
Last Order Neurons
c)
First Order Neurons
d)
Third Order Neurons
17.
Natural pain killers
a)
Endogenous Opiates
b)
Exogenous Opiates
c)
Endogenous Variables
d)
Exogenous Variables
18.
Theory that states that sensory mechanisms alone fail to account for the fact that nerve lesions do not always cause pain
a)
Martina Control Theory
b)
Heaven Control Theory
c)
Pain Control Theory
d)
Gate Control Theory
19.
The afferent nociceptive input is increased through decreased threshold, increased responsiveness, and/or increased receptive field (information going TO the brain)
a)
Middle Sensation
b)
Peripheral Sensation
c)
Central Sensation
d)
Control Sensation
20.
Occurs through many similar mechanism as peripheral sensitization, including changes in microglia, astrocytes, and gap junctions
a)
Central Sensation
b)
Posterior Sensation
c)
Peripheral Sensation
d)
Middle Sensation
21.
The way in which people manage stress. It can be painful or detrimental
a)
Depression
b)
Fear-avoidance
c)
Anxiety
d)
Coping
22.
Normal response to acute pain, & is more highly correlated with chronic pain & depression
a)
Stress
b)
Anxiety
c)
Fear-avoidance
d)
Catastrophizing
23.
Activity believed to cause pain is avoided, can become more disabling than the actual pain
a)
Coping
b)
Fear-avoidance
c)
Depression
d)
Happiness
24.
Includes pessimism, helplessness to control symptoms, magnification (threat of exaggeration) and rumination (excessive focus on pain sensations)
a)
Pain
b)
Anxiety
c)
Catastrophizing
d)
Fear-avoidance
25.
Very common co-morbidity with chronic pain.
-A strong predictor for the development of chronic pain & disability following acute LBP.
-A strong predictor for the development of chronic pain & disability following acute LBP.
a)
Depression
b)
Fear-avoidance
c)
Coping
d)
Endogenous Opiates
26.
Which horn of the spinal cord does pain travel to?
a)
French Horn
b)
Clair Horn
c)
Ventral Horn
d)
Dorsal Horn
27.
Cytokines, prostaglandins, and serotonin are known as what?
a)
Social Mediators
b)
Inflammatory Mediators
c)
Pain Mediators
d)
Calming Mediators
28.
What do glia release in order to stimulate an immune response?
a)
Growth Hormone
b)
Sleeping Hormone
c)
Creative Hormone
d)
Happy Hormone
29.
What type of exercise should you begin with when working with chronic pain?
a)
Easy Exercise
b)
Intense Exercise
c)
Moderate Exercise
d)
Graded Exercise
30.
What is characterized by severe pain associated by little or no discernable injury or pathology?
a)
Chronic Pain
b)
Mild Pain
c)
Hurtful Pain
d)
Sad Pain
31.
Physical stress=
a)
Neuromatrix
b)
Growth Hormone
c)
Chronic Pain
d)
Chronic psychological
32.
Smoking, opiate or alcohol addiction, obesity & overweight, sleep disorders, vitamin D deficiency.
a)
Lifestyle factors that decrease chronic pain
b)
Lifestyle factors that increase chronic pain
c)
Lifestyle factors that maintain chronic pain
d)
Lifestyle factors that stop chronic pain
33.
Some soreness & discomfort is typical is expected in patients when _________ exercise?
a)
Ending
b)
During
c)
After
d)
Beginning
34.
By increasing excitability in the dorsal horn & inflammatory chemical mediators up-regulated expression of genes affecting synaptic transmission.
a)
inflammation in the CNS cause central sensitization
b)
inflammation in the PNS cause central sensitization
c)
inflammation in the CNS cause diffused sensitization
d)
inflammation in the PNS cause diffused sensitization
35.
Cognitive- evaluative dimension, sensory- discriminative dimension, motivational- affective dimension (including feelings of stress).
a)
Motivational Perception
b)
Pain Perception
c)
Stress Preception
d)
Sensory Preception
36.
Cortisol level, noradrenalin levels, cytokine levels, immune system activity, endorphin levels
a)
Happy Programs
b)
Action Programs
c)
Stress-Regulation Programs
d)
Pain Programs
37.
- Skin & subcutaneous tissues
- Well-localized, stabbing, burning, cutting
- Clear, consistent, proportional pain reproduced through movement or mechanical testing of target tissues
- Well-localized, stabbing, burning, cutting
- Clear, consistent, proportional pain reproduced through movement or mechanical testing of target tissues
a)
Deep somatic
b)
Visceral
c)
Central
d)
Cutanous or Superficial
38.
- Bone, muscle, blood vessels, connective
- Often referred to other locations; tearing, cramping, pressing, aching
- Vague, sometimes referred pain reproduced through movement or mechanical testing or deeper tissues; spasm, trigger points common
- Often referred to other locations; tearing, cramping, pressing, aching
- Vague, sometimes referred pain reproduced through movement or mechanical testing or deeper tissues; spasm, trigger points common
a)
Peripheral neurogenic
b)
Deep somatic
c)
Cutanous or Superficial
d)
Visceral
39.
- Organs & the linings of the body cavities
- Often referred to other locations; poorly localized, diffuse, deep cramping or splitting, sharp, stabbing
- Vague pain reproduction on movement or mechanical testing of visceral tissues
- Often referred to other locations; poorly localized, diffuse, deep cramping or splitting, sharp, stabbing
- Vague pain reproduction on movement or mechanical testing of visceral tissues
a)
Peripheral neurogenic
b)
Deep somatic
c)
Cutanous or Superficial
d)
Visceral
40.
Traditional, simple, concerned w/cause Correlates tissue damage to pain sensation If you fix the tissue damage, pain will resolve Works well with acute pain Cannot explain pain where there was no physical damage foundànonorganic or psychogenic Focus on illness
a)
Biopsychosocial Model
b)
Biomedical Model
c)
Gate Control Model
d)
Pain Model
41.
More complex, looks @ all levels (full picture) Does not focus solely on illness Influenced by people’s behavior Recognizes physical, personal & environmental factors that affect body & QOL Helps understand pain physiology & pain management Continuum
a)
Biopsychosocial Model
b)
Biomedical Model
c)
Gate Control Model
d)
Pain Model
42.
Don’t start off with an immediate high paced amplitude, you want to have a gradual ramp up then ramp down time.
a)
Stimulus Amplitude
b)
Impednece
c)
Amplitude
d)
Duration
43.
Causes a recruitment of the fibers so wherever you put the electrode it’s going to fire that muscle, put the electrode where the nerve enters the muscle. As long as the patient can tolerate it, most people can because we have enough subcutaneous tissue.
a)
Stimulus Amplitude
b)
Amplitude
c)
Duration
d)
Impedence
44.
Caused by subcutaneous tissue, the more they have to more you increase amplitude. ** We are specifically looking for muscle contraction.
a)
Duration
b)
Amplitude
c)
Stimulus Amplitude
d)
Impedence
45.
The longer the duration the higher the amplitude. Strength= amplitude
a)
Stimulus Amplitude
b)
Impedence
c)
Duration of pulse
d)
Ampiltude
46.
What facility is a patient most appropriate for when they require skilled care with around the clock nursing care?
a)
Outpatient
b)
Rehab Facility
c)
Rehab Inpatient
d)
SNF
47.
What is the appropriate length of time for adequate hand-washing? (infection control)
a)
30 seconds or time to sing HBD x2
b)
Macarena
c)
20 seconds
d)
Little Bo-Peep
48.
If a person’s glucose is <60 or >400, the therapist should…
a)
Brisk Walking
b)
Sprinting
c)
Exercise
d)
No Exercise
49.
What test was likely performed when a patient’s INR is 1.5?
a)
A Doppler Ultrasound
b)
Pinprick
c)
Heavy feet
d)
Standing tall
50.
A patient on airborne precautions must remain in what kind of room?
a)
A private room with monitored air pressure, that
remains open with patient remaining the room.
b)
A shared room with monitored air pressure, that
remains closed with patient remaining the room.
c)
A private room with monitored air pressure, that
remains closed with patient remaining the room.
d)
A room, that
remains opened with patient remaining the room.
51.
What is the primary goal when making decisions for patient mobility in a wheelchair?
a)
Independent Independence
b)
Static Independence
c)
Open Independence
d)
preserve independence
52.
What adjustment should be made to the measurement that is taken from the buttock to the popliteal fold?
a)
Add 2 inches
b)
Subtract 2 inches
c)
Subtract 1 inch
d)
Add 1 inch
53.
Which patient symptom would justify a need for elevating leg rests?
a)
UE edema
b)
LE spasticity
c)
LE edema
d)
UE spasticity
54.
What adjustment should be made to the measurement that is taken from the olecranon (flexed at 90 degress) process to the seat?
a)
Add 4 inches
b)
Subtract 1 inch
c)
Subtract 4 inches
d)
Add 1 inch
55.
Wheelchairs constitute as an orthosis?
a)
True
b)
False
56.
What 3 things is a wheelchair supposed to assist the patient with improving?
a)
Speed
Width
Reaching
Width
Reaching
b)
Mobility
Posture
Function
Posture
Function
c)
Function
Reaching
Posture
Reaching
Posture
d)
Mobility
Searching
Posture
Searching
Posture
57.
A properly prescribed mobility base will improve access to the physical environment?
a)
True
b)
False
58.
What is one of the number one goals to achieve with proper WC fit?
a)
Good trunk position
b)
Good knee extension
c)
Good arm resting
d)
Good facial positioning
59.
Those who are fitted improperly in a WC are said to be in danger of?
a)
Repetitive sitting injuries
b)
Repetitive standing injuries
c)
Repetitive standard
d)
Repetitive strain
injuries (RSI)
60.
Most serious level of hospitalization
a)
Acute Care
b)
Critical Care
c)
Subacute Care
d)
Outpatient Care
61.
Short term stay at hospital. Less than 30 days, but usually much shorter (3 – 5 days).
Acute illness or surgery.
PT-functional abilities of ADL education/with family members.
Acute illness or surgery.
PT-functional abilities of ADL education/with family members.
a)
Acute Care
b)
Subacute Care
c)
Active Care
d)
Rehabilitation
62.
Patient is stabilized, but still requires skilled intervention.
a)
Long-term Care Facility
b)
Skilled Nursing Facility (SNF)
c)
Out-patient Care
d)
Subacute Care
63.
Extended stay to rehabilitate to own potential/plateau not pre morbid level.
a)
Skilled-Nursing Facility (SNF)
b)
Rehabilitation
c)
Long-term Care Facility
d)
Out-patient Care
64.
Patients require skilled care on an inpatient basis that includes 24 hour nursing care.
a)
Skilled Nursing Facility
b)
Long-term Care Facility
c)
Rehabilitation
d)
Out-patient Care
65.
Stay longer than 60 days where patients do not require 24 hour skilled nursing care.
Patient has a temporary or permanent disability and is unsafe or unable to care for self in an independent setting.
Patient has a temporary or permanent disability and is unsafe or unable to care for self in an independent setting.
a)
Subacute Care
b)
Rehabilitation
c)
Long-term Care Facility
d)
Acute Care
66.
Patient travels to a clinic for treatment
a)
Acute Care
b)
Out-patient Care
c)
Subacute Care
d)
Rehabilitation
67.
The iron containing pigment of the red blood cells that functions to carry oxygen from the lungs to the tissues.
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Platelet Count
c)
Prothrombin Time
d)
Hematocrit
68.
Most commonly used to monitor oral anticoagulant therapy or to screen for selected bleeding disorders.
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Partial Thromboplastin Time
c)
Hematocrit
d)
Platelet Count
69.
The percentage of packed red blood cells in total blood volume which is commonly used in the identification of abnormal states of hydration, polycythemia, and anemia
a)
Prothrombin Time
b)
Platelet Count
c)
Hematocrit
d)
Hemoglobin
70.
Plays an important role in blood coagulation, homeostasis, and blood thrombus formation.
a)
Prothrombin Time
b)
Platelet Count
c)
White blood cell count
d)
Partial Thromboplastin Time
71.
Most commonly used to monitor oral anticoagulant therapy or to screen for selected bleeding disorders.
a)
Hemoglobin
b)
Hematocrit
c)
Prothrombin Time
d)
Platelet count
72.
Commonly used to identify the presence of infection, allergens, bone marrow integrity, or the degree of immunosuppression.
An increase in white blood cell count can occur after hemorrhage, surgery, coronary occlusion or malignant growth.
An increase in white blood cell count can occur after hemorrhage, surgery, coronary occlusion or malignant growth.
a)
White blood cell count
b)
Partial Thromboplastin Time
c)
Prothrombin Time
d)
Hemoglobin
73.
Refers to a radiograph that visualizes injected radiopaque dye in an artery.
a)
Arthrography
b)
Bone Scan
c)
Doppler Ultrasonography
d)
Arteriography
74.
An invasive test utilizing a contrast medium to provide visualization of joint structures through radiographs & soft tissue disruption can be identified by leakage from the joint cavity and capsule.
a)
Electrocardiography
b)
Arthrography
c)
Computed Tomography
d)
Doppler Ultrasonography
75.
An invasive test that utilizes isotopes to identify stress fractures, infection, and tumors.
a)
Bone Scan
b)
Computed Tomography
c)
Electrocardiography
d)
Doppler Ultrasonography
76.
Produces a computerized analysis of cross-sectional images based on x-ray attenuation based on the absorption that produces a detailed reconstructed image
a)
Arteriography
b)
Arthrography
c)
Computed Tomography
d)
Electrocardiography
77.
Non-invasive test that evaluates blood flow in the major veins, arteries, and cerebrovascular system.
a)
Doppler Ultrasonography
b)
Electromyography
c)
Fluoroscopy
d)
Computed Tomography
78.
Recording of the electrical activity of the heart in three distinct waveforms: P wave (atrial depolarization), QRS complex (ventricular depolarization), and the T wave (ventricular repolarization).
a)
Electroencephalography
b)
Electromyography
c)
Magnetic Resonance Imaging
d)
Electrocardiography
79.
Recording of the electrical activity of the brain.
The electrical activity is collected by examining the difference between the electrical potential of two electrodes placed at different locations on the scalp.
The electrical activity is collected by examining the difference between the electrical potential of two electrodes placed at different locations on the scalp.
a)
Electrocardiography
b)
Electroencephalography
c)
Electromyography
d)
Fluorscopy
80.
Recording of the electrical activity of a selected muscle or muscle groups at rest and during voluntary contraction.
a)
Electromyography
b)
Venography
c)
Myelography
d)
Magnetic Resonance Imaging
81.
Designed to show motion in joints through x-ray imaging.
a)
Venography
b)
X-ray
c)
Myelography
d)
Fluoroscopy
82.
Non-invasive technique that utilizes magnetic fields to produce an image of bone and soft tissue.
a)
Venography
b)
X-ray
c)
Magnetic Resonance Imaging
d)
Elecromyography
83.
Invasive test that combines fluoroscopy and radiography to evaluate the spinal subarachnoid space.
a)
Electromyography
b)
Myelography
c)
Electroencephalography
d)
Electrocardiography
84.
Refers to a radiograph that visualizes injected radiopaque dye in a vein.
a)
Venography
b)
X-ray
c)
Magnetic Resonance Imaging
d)
Myelography
85.
Radiographic photograph commonly used to assist with the diagnosis of musculoskeletal problems such as fractures, dislocations, and bone loss.
a)
Myelography
b)
X-ray
c)
Venography
d)
Fluoroscopy
86.
Elimination of the microorganisms that cause infection and the creation of a sterile field.
a)
Contamination
b)
Hand washing
c)
Medical Sepsis
d)
Asepsis
87.
An area, surface, or item coming in contact with something that is not sterile.
Contamination assumes an environment that contains microorganisms.
Contamination assumes an environment that contains microorganisms.
a)
Personal Protective Equipment
b)
Contamination
c)
Asepsis
d)
Medical Sepsis
88.
Use of warm water, remove jewelry, wash for at least 30 seconds, avoid touching contaminated surface, rinse thoroughly, use paper towel to turn off water
a)
Hand washing
b)
Contamination
c)
Sterile Field
d)
Personal Protective Equipment
89.
A technique that attempts to contain pathogens to a specific area, object, or person
a)
Surgical Sepsis
b)
Aspesis
c)
Medical Sepsis
d)
Personal Protective Equipment
90.
Items that are worn and used as barriers to protect someone who is assisting a patient with a potentially infectious disease
a)
Personal Protective Eqiupment
b)
Sterile Field
c)
Infectious Disease
d)
Hand Washing
91.
Used to maintain surgical asepsis.
a)
Medical Asepsis
b)
Sterile Field
c)
Surgical Asepsis
d)
Asepsis
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