Font size
S
M
L
XL
WorksheetsDISCIPLINARY PROCEEDINGS
Total questions: 102
Worksheet time: 51mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
From the following circumstances, under which one can be placed under suspension?
a)
For coming late
b)
for a case against him in respect of any criminal offence
c)
for disobedience
d)
for petty quarrels with others
2.
One is deemed to have placed under suspension is he is detained in custody for a period exceeding
a)
24 hours
b)
12 hours
c)
48 hours
d)
6 hours
3.
Name the authority competent to palace a government servant under suspensino
a)
Appointing/disciplinary authority
b)
inquiry authority
c)
leave sanction authority
d)
None of the above
4.
When a penalty of compulsory retirement from service imposed upon one under suspension is set aside in appeal, whether the order of suspension is to be continued? From which date
a)
From the date of original order of compulsory retirement
b)
from the date of original date of suspension
c)
from the date of appeal
d)
order of suspension need not be continued
5.
Mention the period up to which the order of suspension can be reviewed?
Before the expiry of ____ days from the effective date of suspension
Before the expiry of ____ days from the effective date of suspension
a)
30
b)
45
c)
60
d)
90
6.
When will the order of suspension made or deemed to have been made, not be valid unless extended?
After a period of ___ days
After a period of ___ days
a)
90
b)
30
c)
60
d)
120
7.
What is the maximum period of suspension that can be extended at a time after review of the competent authority?
a)
120 days
b)
150 days
c)
180 days
d)
210 days
8.
When does the review of suspension not become necessary on completing of 90 days of suspension?
a)
Deemed suspension
b)
Under detention
c)
it it is not validated
d)
none
9.
From the following name the major penalty, under rule 11
a)
Withholding increment for not passing in exam
b)
withholding promotion
c)
recovering of pay
d)
reduction to the lower time scale of pay, grade, post for a specified period which will be bar to promotion
10.
What is the minimum penalty?
a)
oral warning
b)
written warning
c)
censure
d)
close the Disciplinary proceedings
11.
Under which circumstances, the authority cannot mark the day as 'dies non'
a)
when absent from duty with permission
b)
comes late and works throught
c)
leaves office without permission
d)
refuses to work in the office
12.
From the following, which are the powers that cannot be exercised by an officer who is appointed to perform current duties of an appointment?
a)
Administrative powers
b)
Financial powers
c)
Statutory powers
d)
technical powers
13.
Under what circumstances the competent authority cannot act as Disciplinary authority?
a)
On account of being his appoint authority
b)
being a witness in support of the charges
c)
his appointment as presenting officer
d)
Being inquiry officer in another case
14.
A penalty under Rule 11 can be imposed only by
a)
Appellate authority
b)
Reviewing authority
c)
Punishing/disciplinary authority
d)
any other authority
15.
Who is delinquent official
a)
An officer appointed to hold the inquiry independently
b)
appointing authority/punishing authority
c)
government servant charged with misconduct
d)
an authority considering an appeal against any of the penalty
16.
Who is Disciplinary authority
a)
An officer appointed to hold the inquiry independently
b)
appointing authority/punishing authority
c)
government servant charged with misconduct
d)
an authority considering an appeal against any of the penalty
17.
Who is Inquiry officer
a)
An officer appointed to hold the inquiry independently
b)
appointing authority/punishing authority
c)
government servant charged with misconduct
d)
an authority considering an appeal against any of the penalty
18.
Who is appellate authority
a)
An officer appointed to hold the inquiry independently
b)
appointing authority/punishing authority
c)
government servant charged with misconduct
d)
an authority considering an appeal against any of the penalty
19.
When can Disciplinary authority inquire into truth of any imputation of misconduct/misbehaviour
a)
when there is a ground established
b)
when anonymous complaint received
c)
can inquire even there is no ground
d)
on an oral complaint received
20.
Who is competent to hold an inquiry when there is a complaint for sexual harassment?
a)
A complaint committee established in office
b)
Head office
c)
Head of the department
d)
A vigilance committee of the department
21.
Under which rule the disciplinary authority shall act, after recording its findings on each charge
a)
Rule 14
b)
Rule 15
c)
Rule 11
d)
Rule13
22.
The disciplinary authority shall not forward____ to inquiry authority
a)
a copy of the article of charge and statements
b)
a copy of the statements of witness
c)
a copy of the order of appointing presenting officer
d)
a written brief of the case with directions for conducting inquiry
23.
Maximum time allowed to appeal before inquiring authority after the receipt of charge sheet
a)
10 working days
b)
7 days
c)
30 working days
d)
3 days
24.
How many cases can be pending with a servant who is acting as defense assistant to the Government servant under charge
a)
2 cases
b)
4 cases
c)
3 cases
d)
5 cases
25.
Time limit for furnishing the copies of documents to the Government servant on his application before commencement of examination
a)
5 days
b)
3 days
c)
2 days
d)
7 days
26.
Time limit for discovery or production of any document which is in possession of Government but not mentioned in the list
a)
within 10 days
b)
7 days
c)
12 days
d)
5 days
27.
How many days can the inquiry be adjourned in the event of production of new evidence not listed before
a)
three clear days excluding the day of adjournment
b)
3 days inclusive of the day of adjournment
c)
five working days
d)
three working days
28.
When can an evidence be recalled during course of inquiry?
a)
When there is inherent lacuna or defect in evidence
b)
cannot be recalled
c)
can be recalled to fill-up gap
d)
it is left to the inquiry officer to decide
29.
After the case is closed, a servant is allowed to state his defense in writing/orally?
a)
Yes. To be recorded and copy to presenting officer
b)
No. Not allowed
c)
It is allowed with permission of presenting officer
d)
It shall not be allowed in the event of causing any damage to the proceeding
30.
Which of the following need not be submitted as return of assets and liabilities during entry into service?
a)
Immovable property
b)
Shares etc
c)
Other movable property
d)
Utensils, crockery and books
31.
Under which of the following cases transaction of movable property to be reported: If the value exceeds____
a)
two months basic pay
b)
one month's basic pay
c)
three month's basic pay
d)
None of the above
32.
Prescribed authority in case of Class I officer to order a full and complete statement regarding acquired movable and immovable property
a)
The Government
b)
Head of Department
c)
Head of office
d)
CAG
33.
The rule under which forms for submission of movable and immovable property is mentioned:
a)
Rule 18(1)
b)
Rule 14 (1)
c)
Rule 16(2)
d)
Rule 114
34.
What is the upper monetary limit for Group A and B for initiation of transaction in shares, debentures, etc with the prescribed authority
a)
It total transactions exceeds Rs.50000
b)
It total transactions exceeds Rs.25000
c)
It total transactions exceeds Rs.15000
d)
It total transactions exceeds Rs.20000
35.
What is the prescribed limit for undertaking a repair for which prior intimation is necessary?
a)
If the estimation excees Rs.10000
b)
If the estimation excees Rs.5000
c)
If the estimation excees Rs.2000
d)
If the estimation excees Rs.7500
36.
What is the action of inquiring officer if a government servant a)does not submit written statement b)does not appear in person c)refuses to comply with rules
a)
May hold the inquiry ex parte
b)
May adjourn indefinitely
c)
May seek the advice of disciplinary authority
d)
May give one more opporutnity
37.
Which is not included in the inquiry report prepared after the conclusion of inquiry?
a)
The articles of charge and state emnt
b)
The defense of the government servant
c)
an assessment of the evidence in respect of each articles of charge
d)
daily sheet recorded during the inquiry held
38.
Whose advice is required to be taken before initiating criminal proceedings?
a)
Government counsel
b)
Police Commissioner
c)
First class magistrate
d)
District Judge
39.
What is the time limit prescribed for issuing sanction against prosecution of a Government servant
a)
5 months
b)
6 months
c)
3 months
d)
2 months
40.
Which factor mentioned below is not related to the cause for undue delay and faulty disposal of the disciplinary case?
a)
Officer conducting may be pre-occupied
b)
unfamiliarity with the procedure and inadequate experience
c)
undue delay in making reference to UPSC
d)
Non-availability of charged officer for the inquiry
41.
What is the period of limitations of appeal?
a)
60 days
b)
45 days
c)
90 days
d)
30 days
42.
Who is competent to accept the appeal after the expiry of limitation period?
a)
Appointing authority
b)
disciplinary authority
c)
appellate authority
d)
ad hoc disciplinary authority
43.
What is the time limit to forward appeal to the appellate authority on receipt of copy of appeal?
a)
immediately
b)
with a normal delay
c)
within 10 days
d)
without any available delay
44.
Which rule provision of CCS (CCA) rules is to be considered by appellate authority in case of appeal against the order of suspension
a)
Rule 10
b)
Rule 12
c)
Rule 11
d)
None of the above
45.
What is the upper limit for review of petitions addressed to Member (A) P & T Board
a)
75 days
b)
60 days
c)
45 days
d)
30 days
46.
In case of appeal against imposing any penalty under rule 11, an appellate authority shall evaluate the same under provisions of which rule
a)
27(2)
b)
24
c)
22
d)
23
47.
When is de novo proceedings required?
a)
When orders of Disciplinary authority are defective
b)
When appellate authority sets aside the punishment orders
c)
when there is dispute between delinquent and disciplinary authority
d)
Due to non-implementation of proper procedure
48.
Who is the competent authority to review punishment in Postal Department?
a)
Postmaster General
b)
Superintendent of posts
c)
Director of postal service
d)
Member Postal service board
49.
Who is the competent authority to review punishment in telecommunication department?
a)
GM Telecom
b)
Principal GM, Telecom
c)
Controller of communication accounts
d)
Advisor Dept of Telecom
50.
Permission of which commission is necessary for enhancing/cancellation of penalty imposed on Government servant
a)
Vigilance Commissioner
b)
UPSC
c)
Commission set up by the concerned ministry
d)
None of the above
51.
Who is competent for remanding case for revision of penalty in respect of P & T Department
a)
Disciplinary authority
b)
appointing authority
c)
The president of P & T board
d)
inquiry officer
52.
What is the time limit fixed for preferring revision petition without submitting an appeal?
a)
3 months before the date of order
b)
6 months before the date of order
c)
within 4 months
d)
5 months
53.
How are the orders / notices served to the Government servant?
a)
Served in person or by registered post
b)
by ordinary post
c)
through messenger
d)
by courier
54.
State the year in which CCS (conduct rules) came into force?
a)
1962
b)
1964
c)
1968
d)
1972
55.
Quote the rule under which the provision of 'prohibition of sexual harassment of working women' is covered?
a)
Rule 3
b)
Rule 3 B
c)
Rule 3 C
d)
Rule 3 A
56.
To whom CCS (conduct) rules not applicable?
a)
Employees of non-statutory department canteens
b)
Persons appointed in civil service or posted with affairs of unioin
c)
Extra departmental agents of postal department
d)
Members of committees/commissions appointed by govenment
57.
Name the activity which required prior permission/sanction
a)
seeking redressal of grievances
b)
To join educational institution or course of studies for university degree
c)
giving evidence in any judicial inquiry
d)
to take part in informal farewell entertainment
58.
What is the time limit prescribed for sending an ack to a letter received from Member of Parliament
a)
within 3 days
b)
within 7 days
c)
within 15 days
d)
within 30 days
59.
What is the time limit prescribed for sending final reply to a letter received from Member of Parliament
a)
within 10 days
b)
within 20 days
c)
within 15 days
d)
within 30 days
60.
A complaint committee has been constituted in each office as per norms of SC. State the purpose
a)
To forbid un-touchability
b)
to prohibit from taking part in preservationist activities
c)
to inquire the complaints of sexual harassments
d)
to deal with representations
61.
The report of the compliant committee into sexual harassment case is considered to be
a)
inquiring report
b)
appointing authority report
c)
disciplinary authority report
d)
appellate authority report
62.
The periodicity of convening a complaints committee meeting is
a)
half yearly
b)
annual
c)
quarterly
d)
monthly
63.
Which is the nodal ministry for formulating and framing rules related to services
a)
Agriculature
b)
Communcation
c)
Labour and employment
d)
Finance
64.
Who is the competent authority to decide whether the activities of an association attract the provision of rule (6) of CCS Condcut rules
a)
Head of office
b)
Head of Deparment
c)
Authority competent to sanction leave
d)
Labour officer
65.
Which conduct rule prevents the criticism of Government
a)
Rule 9
b)
Rule 8
c)
Rule 7
d)
Rule 10
66.
Which committee's recommendations has given freedom to officers to express their different views?
a)
Hota committee
b)
Estimates Commmittee
c)
Vigilance committee
d)
Review committee
67.
Under which act does Government servant communicate official information in performance of his duties?
a)
Evidence act
b)
copy right act 1914
c)
RTI 2005
d)
Contract Act
68.
Which of the following does not permit a Government servant to collect contribution for?
a)
National Defence Fund
b)
Flag day fund
c)
National foundation for communal harmony
d)
Jawaharlal Nehru Memorial Fund
69.
What is the maximum limit of gift to be received by group 'B' officers?
a)
Rs.15000
b)
Rs.14000
c)
RS.12000
d)
Rs.13000
70.
What is the maximum limit of gift to be received by group 'A' officers?
a)
Rs.15000
b)
Rs.14000
c)
RS.12000
d)
Rs.25000
71.
What is the maximum limit of gift to be received by group 'C' officers?
a)
Rs.5000
b)
Rs.4000
c)
RS.7500
d)
Rs.10000
72.
What is the maximum limit of gift to be received by group 'A' & 'B' officers without sanction?
a)
Rs.1500
b)
Rs.2000
c)
RS.1500
d)
Rs.500
73.
What is the maximum limit of gift to be received by group 'C' officers without sanction?
a)
Rs.1500
b)
Rs.2000
c)
RS.1500
d)
Rs.500
74.
What is the maximum limit of gift to be received by group 'A' & 'B' officers without sanction?
a)
Rs.1500
b)
Rs.2000
c)
RS.1500
d)
Rs.500
75.
What is the maximum limit of gift to be received by group 'A' & 'B' officers without sanction?
a)
Rs.1500
b)
Rs.2000
c)
RS.1500
d)
Rs.500
76.
What is the maximum limit of gift to be received by group 'A' & 'B' officers without sanction?
a)
Rs.1500
b)
Rs.2000
c)
RS.1500
d)
Rs.500
77.
What is the maximum limit for a member of Indian delegation to receive money gift from foreign dignitaries?
a)
Rs.1000
b)
RS.2000
c)
Rs.5000
d)
RS.4000
78.
Demand of dowry is prohibited by rule 13 - A of CCS conduct rules which act defines dowry
a)
Hindu Marriage Act 1955
b)
Dowry prohibition act 1961
c)
Indian evidence act
d)
None of the above
79.
Which rule is applied when a Government servant sublets his government accommodation?
a)
Rule 14
b)
Rule 13
c)
Rule 12
d)
Rule 11
80.
Who is the competent authority for appointing an inquiry officer in a departmental proceedings?
a)
Head of department
b)
Presenting officer
c)
Head of office
d)
Disciplinary authority
81.
Who is the custodian of listed documents in a departmental inquiry?
a)
Presenting officer
b)
Defence assitant
c)
Inquiry officer
d)
Charged officer
82.
How many types of documents are there to which the charged officer has the right to access
a)
two types
b)
thee types
c)
four types
d)
five types
83.
What is daily order sheet?
a)
Record maintained by Presenting officer
b)
Record maintained by charged officer
c)
record maintained by defence assistant
d)
record maintained by inquiry officer
84.
Who can pass interlocutory orders in a departmental proceedings ?
a)
Inquiry officer
b)
Presenting officer
c)
Disciplinary authority
d)
Defence assitant
85.
In how many parts examination of witness is done?
a)
two parts
b)
three parts
c)
four parts
d)
five parts
86.
To whom did the inquiry officer forward the inquiry report after conclusion of inquiry?
a)
Disciplinary authority
b)
appellate authority
c)
charged official
d)
Head of office
87.
Under which rule a government servant is permitted to undertake a journey to a station other than his HQ and claim TA
a)
SR 116
b)
SR 154
c)
SR 114
d)
SR 147
88.
What is the maximum number of days Daily allowance is allowed to retired employee for perusal of official documents at an outstation
a)
four days
b)
three days
c)
two days
d)
five days
89.
Quote the rule under which TA is admissible to defense witness in departmental inquiry
a)
SR 116
b)
SR 114
c)
SR 154
d)
SR 190(a)
90.
What will be the entitlement of Pay and allowances if a servant under suspension dies before conclusion of disciplinary proceedings instituted against him?
a)
full pay and allowances
b)
half pay and allowances
c)
only basic pay
d)
only subsistence allowance
91.
What is the time limit for a delinquent official to make representations against the disciplinary proceddings in a mainor penalty
a)
15 days
b)
30 days
c)
10 days
d)
one week
92.
Who can sign the memorandum of charges in respect of major penalty ?
a)
Disciplinary authority
b)
Appointing authority
c)
head of office
d)
Head of the department
93.
How many disciplinary cases can an assisting servant have at a time while assisting an accused officer?
a)
6
b)
4
c)
3
d)
5
94.
How many disciplinary cases can an assisting servant have at a time while assisting an accused officer?
a)
6
b)
4
c)
3
d)
5
95.
How many disciplinary cases can an assisting retiring servant have at a time while assisting an accused officer?
a)
6
b)
4
c)
3
d)
5
96.
Who will keep the original documents of disciplinary cases ?
a)
Presenting officer
b)
Disciplinary authority
c)
Appointing authority
d)
immediate superior officer
97.
What is the time limit to present the accused officer for a preliminary hearing on receipt of notice from inquiry officer ?
a)
15 days
b)
10 days
c)
7 days
d)
20 days
98.
Which rule of CCS (conduct) rules speaks about insolvency and habitual indebtness
a)
10
b)
17
c)
5
d)
16
99.
Any servant may give evidence in any judicial inquiry as per rule ____ of CCS (conduct ) rules
a)
6
b)
10
c)
4 (1)
d)
8
100.
Under what circumstances the change of HQ of the suspended officer can be ordered?
a)
In the interest of public service
b)
At the request of suspended officer
c)
in both the cases
d)
in none of the cases
101.
Subsistence allowance of non-gazetted official can be remitted by
a)
Demand draft
b)
cheque
c)
Service money orders
d)
pay order
102.
The rates of subsistance allowance is prescribed in
a)
FR 53
b)
FR 10
c)
FR 54
d)
Rules 10 of CSC (CCA) rules
Reset
