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HESI and Final Exam Review (RAD 235)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is primarily responsible for occupational exposure?

a)

Primary x-ray beam 

b)

Compton interactions 

c)

Classical interactions

d)

Photodisintegration 

2.

Which of the following are beam-limiting devices? (select the three that apply)

a)

Aperture collimators 

b)

Cones 

c)

Grids 

d)

Cylinders 

e)

Compensating filters 

3.

The intensity of scatter 1 m from the patient is about what percentage of the useful beam?

a)

10%   

b)

1%   

c)

0.1%   

d)

0.01% 

4.

What acronym serves as a reminder to the radiologic technologist to keep exposure to themselves and their patients to a judicious minimum?

a)

BERT 

b)

LET 

c)

RBE 

d)

ALARA 

5.

When a lead apron is worn during a procedure, the personnel dosimeter should be placed

a)

under the lead apron at collar level 

b)

outside of the exam room 

c)

outside of the apron at collar level 

d)

at waist level 

6.

The rotational scheduling of personnel uses which of the cardinal principles of radiation safety?  

a)

Time 

b)

Distance 

c)

Shielding 

d)

Inverse square law 

7.

During mobile radiography, the source-to skin (SSD) distance must NOT be less than

a)

12 inches 

b)

15 inches 

c)

20 inches 

d)

24 inches 

8.

Which type of shielding should be used during an examination that requires a sterile field?

a)

Shaped contact shield 

b)

Flat contact shield 

c)

Shadow shield 

d)

Fixed shield 

9.

The active ingredient in optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeters is 

a)

tin 

b)

aluminum oxide 

c)

copper 

d)

lithium fluoride 

10.

For examinations using stationary fluoroscopes, patient entrance exposure can be limited by maintaining a minimal source-to-skin distance (SSD) of

a)

30 cm (12 inches) 

b)

15 cm (6 inches) 

c)

38 cm (15 inches) 

d)

25 cm (10 inches) 

11.

When individuals are exposed to radiation on a regular basis through their work and are at risk of receiving 10% or more of the annual effective dose (EfD) limit, which of the following is most commonly used to monitor their radiation exposure over time?

a)

ALARA 

b)

A proportional counter 

c)

A radiation survey instrument 

d)

Personnel dosimetry 

12.

The NCRP-recommended annual dose limit for the gonads of occupationally-exposed adults is

a)

0.5 mSv 

b)

5.0 mSv 

c)

50 mSv 

d)

150 mSv 

13.

Which of the following is a type of secondary radiation? 

a)

Scattered radiation 

b)

Leakage radiation   

c)

Both

d)

Neither

14.

The Federally required minimum lead equivalent for lead aprons is

a)

0.25 mm Pb equiv. 

b)

0.5 mm Pb equiv. 

c)

5.0 mm Pb equiv.   

d)

There is no minimum lead equivalent   

15.

How is the average energy of the x-ray beam affected with added filtration?

a)

It is increased.   

b)

It is decreased.   

c)

It is unaffected.   

16.

HVL and kV are used to express

a)

beam intensity.   

b)

beam quality.   

c)

focal spot size.   

d)

effective dose.   

17.

Changing from non-grid to grid procedure will require a/an

a)

increase in SID. 

b)

decrease in SID. 

c)

decrease in patient dose. 

d)

increase in patient dose. 

18.

The feature(s) of digital fluoroscopy that function to reduce patient dose are

a)

magnification mode

b)

pulsed fluoroscopy

c)

last image hold

19.

The radiographer’s principal source of exposure to scattered radiation is

a)

x-ray tube leakage. 

b)

failure to use the control booth. 

c)

the patient. 

d)

exposure to the useful beam. 

20.

Filters used in personal radiation monitors serve to

a)

protect the user from scattered radiation. 

b)

protect the user from leakage radiation. 

c)

decrease the ionizing properties of the radiation. 

d)

identify the type and energy of ionizing radiation. 

21.

Ionizing radiation that is emitted from the x-ray tube housing in directions other than that of the useful beam is termed 

a)

scattered radiation. 

b)

leakage radiation. 

c)

extra-focal radiation.

d)

recoil radiation. 

22.

What unit is used to describe ionization in air? 

a)

Sv 

b)

Gya  

c)

Gyt  

d)

REM

23.

The amount of energy deposited, and resulting possible biologic damage, are related to which 3 of the following:

a)

type of ionizing radiation

b)

type of target/focus material

c)

mass density of tissue

d)

atomic number of tissue

24.

Which portion of the following equation represents effective dose?

Gy × Wr × Wt = EfD

a)

Gy   

b)

Wr   

c)

Wt 

d)

EfD   

25.

What is a 35-year-old radiation worker’s lifetime cumulative effective dose limit? 

a)

100 mSv   

b)

150 mSv   

c)

175 mSv   

d)

350 mSv 

26.

Where/how should a fetal personal radiation monitor be worn? 

a)

Outside the lead apron   

b)

In a radiation-free area   

c)

Under the lead apron, at waist level   

d)

At collar level, facing forward 

27.

To check for cracks and damage, lead aprons and other protective apparel are imaged 

a)

prior to each use   

b)

monthly  

c)

annually   

d)

Lead aprons and other protective apparel should not be imaged 

28.

The two basic types of protective barriers are 

a)

simple barriers and complex barriers.   

b)

primary barriers and secondary barriers. 

c)

primary barriers and tertiary barriers.   

d)

complete barriers and partial barriers

29.

The fluoroscopy timer must provide signal after how much fluoroscopic time has elapsed? 

a)

30 seconds   

b)

1 minute   

c)

2 minutes   

d)

5 minutes   

30.

Which of the following cellular components has the greatest radiobiological significance?

a)

Ribosomes 

b)

Mitochondria 

c)

DNA 

d)

RNA 

31.

The exposure switch on mobile x-ray equipment must allow the operator to be at least what distance from the x-ray tube during the exposure? 

a)

0.5 meters 

b)

1 meter   

c)

2 meters   

d)

5 meters   

32.

What is the maximum annual radiation exposure to the extremities for occupationally exposed individuals?

a)

500 mSv

b)

5 mSv

c)

50 mSv

d)

5 mrem

33.

When a 1-mm Pb flat contact shield is used to shield male reproductive organs, their dose is reduced by about how much? 

a)

10%   

b)

50% 

c)

90 to 95% 

d)

100% 

34.

The varied and specific biologic effects of whole body radiation exposure depend on several factors including

a)

Type of radiation

b)

Total dose

c)

Stage of cell division

d)

Time interval over which dose is received 

35.

What term is used for the loss or change of nitrogenous bases in the DNA?

a)

Mutation

b)

Ionization

c)

Deterministic Effects

d)

Mitosis

36.

Radiation-induced reddening of the skin at a dose of 2 Gy is termed

a)

epidermis 

b)

epilation 

c)

desquamation 

d)

erythema 

37.

Which of the following technical exposure factors would help to minimize patient exposure? (select the two that apply)

a)

High kVp 

b)

Low kVp 

c)

High mAs 

d)

Low mAs 

38.

Biologic damage resulting from ionization is much more likely to occur after exposure to which type of radiation?

a)

Alpha particles

b)

microwaves

c)

x-rays

d)

Beta particles

39.

The second stage of ARS in which the patient begins to feel healthy, prior to experiencing more severe symptoms.

a)

Latent period

b)

Prodromal period

c)

Manifest illness

d)

Recovery stage

40.

Which target interaction occurs when an incident electron slows as it moves around the nucleus of the target atom?

a)

Bremsstrahlung

b)

Characteristic

c)

Compton

d)

Thomson

41.

Which dose may cause temporary sterility in patients of either sex?

a)

5 Gy

b)

50 Gy

c)

2 Gy

d)

1 Gy

42.

What is the potential consequence of making an exposure without using a focusing cup?

a)

Less leakage radiation

b)

More primary radiation

c)

More off-focus radiation

d)

Increased image resolution

43.

Which of the following radiation quantities is intended to be the best overall measure of the biologic effects of ionizing radiation?

a)

Exposure

b)

Effective dose

c)

Absorbed dose

d)

Roentgen

44.

Which of the following is a method of explaining radiation to the public?

a)

ALARA

b)

BERT

c)

ORP

d)

NEXT

45.

In a hospital setting, which of the following professionals is expressly charged by the hospital administration with being directly responsible for the execution, enforcement, and maintenance of the ALARA program?

a)

Assistant administrator of the facility

b)

Chief of staff

c)

Radiation Safety Officer

d)

Student radiologic technologist

46.

If a patient asks a radiographer a question about how much radiation he or she will receive from a specific x-ray procedure, the radiographer can

a)

respond by using an estimation based on the comparison of radiation received from the x-ray to natural background radiation received.

b)

avoid the patient’s question by changing the subject.

c)

tell the patient that it is unethical to discuss such concerns.

d)

refuse to answer the question and recommend that he or she speak with the referring physician.

47.

Coherent scattering is most likely to occur ____________.

a)

at less than 10 keV

b)

between 30 keV and 60 keV

c)

between 60 keV and 90 keV

d)

above 100 keV

48.

Which of the following is not a type of interaction between x-radiation and biologic matter?

a)

Compton scattering

b)

Bremsstrahlung

c)

Pair production

d)

Photoelectric absorption

49.

The probability of occurrence of photoelectric absorption _________ as the energy of the incident photon decreases and the atomic number of the irradiated atoms _________.

a)

increases markedly; decreases

b)

decreases markedly; increases

c)

increases markedly; increases

d)

stays the same; increases

50.

Which of the following terms refers to the radiation that occurs when an electron spontaneously drops down from an outer shell of an ionized atom to fill a vacancy in an inner shell of that atom?

a)

Bremsstrahlung

b)

Characteristic photon

c)

Photoelectric radiation

d)

Primary radiation

51.

The x-ray photon energy required to initiate pair production is

a)

0.511 keV.

b)

1.022 keV.

c)

0.511 MeV.

d)

1.022 MeV.

52.

If two anatomic structures have the same density and atomic number but one is twice as thick as the other, the thicker structure will absorb

a)

the same number of x-ray photons.

b)

twice as many x-ray photons.

c)

half as many x-ray photons

53.

Of the two sources of ionizing radiation listed, ______ radiation remains fairly constant from year to year, while ______ radiation is increasing.

a)

natural, manmade

b)

background, cosmic

c)

manmade, terrestrial

d)

natural, terrestrial

54.

The total kinetic energy released in a unit mass (kilogram) of air and expressed in metric units of joules per kilogram is

a)

absorbed dose.

b)

air kerma.

c)

effective dose.

d)

equivalent dose.

55.

Which of the following formulas is used to calculate effective dose?

a)

EfD = D × WR × WT

b)

EfD = D × WR

c)

EfD = D ÷ WR × WT

d)

EfD = (D × WR)1 + (D × WR)2

56.

Beta particles are actually

a)

gamma rays.

b)

high-speed electrons.

c)

protons.

d)

x-rays.

57.

Which of the following is a principle of the ALARA concept?

a)

All diagnostic X-ray exposure is low energy and of little concern.

b)

The radiographer should hold a standard number of patients per year as long as it is below the allowable limits.

c)

X-ray doses can increase progressively to allowable limits on older patients.

d)

The radiographer’s occupational exposure should be kept as low as reasonably achievable and the concept of “permissible dose” is no longer recognized.

58.

The SI radiologic unit that addresses the different biological effects of different types of ionizing radiation is the

a)

rad.

b)

roentgen.

c)

sievert.

d)

gray.

59.

Alpha particles have a radiation weighting factor (WR) that is numerically equal to

a)

1.

b)

5.

c)

10.

d)

20.

60.

Which of the following types of ionizing radiation produce virtually the same biologic effect in body tissue for equal absorbed doses?

a)

X-rays, beta particles, and gamma rays

b)

Alpha particles, beta particles, and gamma rays

c)

X-rays, neutrons, and gamma rays

d)

X-rays, alpha particles, and fast neutrons

61.

Cataract formation, fibrosis, and sterility are classified as

a)

Deterministic effects

b)

Late somatic effects

c)

Stochastic effects

d)

Early somatic effects

62.

What takes into account the fact that some types of radiation are more efficient at causing biologic damage than other types of radiation for a given dose?

a)

radiation weighting factors

b)

DAP

c)

tissue weighting factors

d)

ALARA

63.

Three different filters are incorporated into the detector packet of the optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter. Of what are these filters made?

a)

Aluminum, tin, and copper

b)

Aluminum, tin, and lead

c)

Zinc, copper, and barium

d)

Zinc, copper, and lead

64.

What is the maximum period of time that a thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) may be worn as a personnel device?

a)

1 year

b)

1 week

c)

1 month

d)

3 months

65.

Which of the following terms involves a random effect of ionizing radiation?

a)

Early tissue reactions

b)

Change in white blood cell count

c)

Reddening of the skin

d)

Stochastic effect

66.

Epidemiologic studies of atomic bomb survivors exposed in utero have provided conclusive evidence of a dose-dependent increase in the incidence of severe intellectual disability for fetal doses greater than approximately

a)

0.1 Sv.

b)

0.2 Sv.

c)

0.3 Sv.

d)

0.4 Sv.

67.

The current limiting system used in the field of radiology is the:

a)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulation

b)

Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) regulation

c)

maximum permissible dose (MPD) system

d)

effective dose (EfD) limiting system

68.

If a certain dose of radiation produces a skin burn, a higher dose of radiation will cause the skin burn to be more severe; however, a dose below the threshold level for skin burn will

a)

demonstrate this effect to a much greater degree.

b)

demonstrate this effect to moderate degree.

c)

demonstrate this effect to a lesser degree.

d)

likely not demonstrate the effect.

69.

The cumulative effective dose (CumEfD) limit includes all of the following except:

a)

radiation exposure from natural background radiation.

b)

radiation exposure received while radiographers perform imaging procedures on patients.

c)

radiation exposure received while radiographer is performing mobile fluoroscopy

d)

radiation exposure received while radiographers receive in the nuclear medicine hot lab

70.

The unit for measuring biologic effects may be determined and expressed in

a)

Sv

b)

Gy

c)

C/Kg

d)

DAP

71.

Calculate the equivalent dose for a person who received an exposure of 0.3 Gy from Alpha particles, 2.0 Gy from X-ray, and 0.7 Gy of fast neutrons.

(a)  

72.

Calculate the effective dose if a person received an exposure of 0.1 Gy from Alpha particles to the thyroid and 0.5 Gy of x-ray to the gonads.

(a)  

73.

Solitary atoms or most often a combination of atoms that behave as extremely reactive single entities as a result of unpaired electrons describes

a)

free radicals

b)

apoptosis

c)

molecular damage

d)

germ cells

74.

What does LD 50/30 mean?

a)

30 people out of 50 will die within 30 days

b)

30 people out of 50 will die within 30 minutes

c)

50 rem will kill half of the group within 30 days

d)

50% of the group will die within 30 days

75.

Which of the following are examples of stochastic effects?

a)

cancer

b)

epilation

c)

genetic defects

d)

fatigue

76.

Cells in the human body (except germ cells) that divide and undergo Mitosis are known as

a)

genetic cells

b)

somatic cells

c)

reproductive cells

d)

sex cells

77.

Which of the following is most sensitive to radiation?

a)

lymphocytes

b)

epithelial tissue

c)

connective tissue

d)

muscle

78.

How will oxygen retention effect the radiosensitivity of a cell

a)

radiosensitivity will not be effected

b)

radiosensitivity will be eliminated

c)

radiosensitivity will decrease

d)

radiosensitivity will increase

79.

Which statement is true concerning the effects of radiation exposure?

a)

mutations only occur at high exposure

b)

the body can repair most damage

c)

damage is not passed on to offspring

d)

no effects occur at low dose levels

80.

LET is an important factor for

a)

assessing potential tissue and organ damage from exposure to ionizing radiation

b)

assessing the characteristics of ionizing radiation

c)

determining the oxygen enhancement ratio

d)

removing electrons from tissue exposed to ionizing radiation

81.

Following whole-body reception of large doses of ionizing radiation delivered over a short period of time, which of the following medical problems occurs in humans

a)

acute radiation syndrome

b)

hypertension

c)

multiple sclerosis

d)

tuberculosis

82.

Which of the dose-response curve(s) shown illustrate(s) a linear non-threshold response to radiation exposure

a)

A

b)

B

c)

D

83.

According to the principle of radiosensitivity, the most pronounced radiation effects occur in cells that have:

a)

the greatest reproductive activity

b)

longest mitotic phases

c)

least maturity and differentiation

d)

the greatest differentiation

e)

the least meiotic activity

84.

Which of the dose-response curve(s) shown illustrate(s) a non-linear threshold response to radiation exposure

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

85.

The effects produced by free radicals created by the interaction of radiation with water molecules

a)

direct action

b)

indirect action

c)

radiolysis

d)

Target theory

86.

Which of the following is not an x-ray beam limitation device?

a)

Aperture diaphragm

b)

Collimator

c)

Filter

d)

Extension cylinder

87.

What is the purpose of radiographic beam filtration?

a)

To decrease beam hardness thereby reducing patient skin dose and the dose to superficial tissues

b)

To increase beam hardness, thereby reducing patient skin dose and the dose to superficial tissues

c)

To eliminate short wavelength radiation to reduce the radiation received by the patient’s skin and superficial tissues

d)

To increase beam hardness, thereby increasing patient skin dose with only a slight increase to superficial tissues

88.

Federal government specifications recommend a minimum total filtration of _________ for stationary fluoroscopic x-ray units operating above 70 kVp.

a)

1.0 mm aluminum equivalent

b)

1.5 mm aluminum equivalent

c)

2.0 mm aluminum equivalent

d)

2.5 mm aluminum equivalent

89.

The genetically significant dose for the population of the United States is about:

a)

1.00 mSv

b)

0.80 mSv

c)

0.40 mSv

d)

0.20 mSv

90.

The annual EfD limit for individual members of the general population not occupationally exposed is _________ for continuous or frequent exposures from artificial sources other than medical irradiation and natural background and ________ for infrequent annual exposure.

a)

1 mSv, 5 mSv

b)

3 mSv, 7 mSv

c)

5 mSv, 9 mSv

d)

50 mSv, 25 mSv

91.

If the exposure rate is 10 R/minute at 40 inches, what will be the rate at 20 inches?

a)

20 R/minute

b)

40 R/minute

c)

60 R/minute

d)

80 R/minute

92.

Which of the following filters would produce an x-ray beam with the highest average photon energy?

a)

1 mm Al

b)

2 mm Al

c)

3 mm Al

d)

4 mm Al

93.

Which of the following will not reduce the amount of exposure to the patient?

a)

higher grid ratio

b)

proper collimation

c)

beam filtration

d)

use of intensifying screens

94.

Which type of gonadal shielding could be used during an exam requiring a sterile field?

a)

flat contact shield

b)

lead apron

c)

shadow shield

d)

shaped contact shield

95.

The source to skin distance for stationary (fixed) fluoroscopy must not be less than which of the following?

a)

15 inches

b)

38 inches

c)

30 inches

d)

12 inches

96.

What is the recommended equivalency be for a lead apron?

a)

.25 mm Pb

b)

.50 mm Pb

c)

2.5 mm Pb

d)

5.0 mm Pb

97.

Primary radiation barriers in walls must be how high

a)

5 ft

b)

7 ft

c)

9 ft

d)

11 ft

98.

The Bucky slot cover is in place to protect the

a)

Patient

b)

Fluoroscopist

c)

Technologist

d)

Passerby

99.

This is the name for the type of radiation that naturally occurs in the environment and is generally safe.

a)

background radiation

b)

environmental radiation

c)

ionizing radiation

d)

acceptable radiation

100.

Which is an example of man made radiation?

a)

Cosmic

b)

Radioactive decay

c)

Radon

d)

Nuclear power plant