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HESI Review: Image Production

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Compared to film-screen imaging, digital systems are (select the two that apply)

a)

Less sensitive to low-energy radiation 

b)

More sensitive to low-energy radiation 

c)

Less sensitive to scatter radiation 

d)

More sensitive to scatter radiation 

2.

When x-ray exposure to the digital image receptor is too low (select the two that apply)

a)

Brightness is acceptable 

b)

Quantum noise is increased 

c)

Quantum noise is decreased

d)

Brightness is unacceptable 

3.

If 400 mA, 10 ms, and 90 kV were used for a particular exposure using three-phase, 12-pulse equipment, which of the following exposure changes would be most appropriate for use on single-phase equipment to produce a similar image?

a)

Use 200 mA 

b)

Use 20 mAs 

c)

Use 70 kV

d)

Use 0.02 second 

4.

When changing from half-wave to full-wave rectification, 

a)

X-ray quantity remains unchanged; quality doubles.   

b)

Both X-ray quantity and quality remain unchanged.   

c)

X-ray quantity doubles; quality remains unchanged.   

d)

Both X-ray quantity and quality double.   

5.

Within the x-ray circuit, the electrical device that operates on the principle of mutual induction and serves to increase voltage and decrease current is known as the

a)

rectifier 

b)

step-up transformer 

c)

rheostat 

d)

autotransformer 

6.

An increase in mA is associated with

a)

decreased SNR

b)

increased SNR 

c)

decreased photon intensity 

d)

decreased photon wavelength 

7.

Which generator is associated with an approximate 13% voltage ripple (87% actual voltage)?

a)

Three-phase 6 pulse 

b)

High-frequency 

c)

Three-phase 12 pulse

d)

Autotransformer

8.

What is the name of the exposure system that uses an established, optimum kV for each anatomical part? 

a)

Variable kilovoltage system   

b)

Fixed kilovoltage system   

c)

Online kilovoltage system   

d)

Fixed milliamperage system

9.

Which of the following groups of exposure factors will produce the shortest scale of contrast?

a)

200 mA, 0.08 second, 95 kV, 12:1 grid 

b)

500 mA, 0.03 second, 70 kV, 8:1 grid 

c)

300 mA, 0.05 second, 95 kV, 8:1 grid 

d)

600 mA, 1/40 seconds, 70 kV, 6:1 grid

10.

All the following are related to spatial resolution except

a)

motion 

b)

focal-spot size 

c)

OID 

d)

scattered radiation 

11.

For the same FOV, arrange the following radiography matrix sizes would result in the highest spatial resolution?

a)

1500 x 1500

b)

 2500 x 2500

c)

750 x 750

d)

224 x 224

12.

In digital imaging, a 2D array of numbers comprised of columns and rows is known as

a)

a field of view (FOV) 

b)

a matrix 

c)

pixel density 

d)

an exposure indicator 

13.

Which aspect of image quality does a grid influence?

a)

Contrast 

b)

Size distortion 

c)

Shape distortion 

d)

Spatial resolution 

14.

Which of the following post-processing terms serve to suppress image noise? (select the two that apply)

a)

High-pass filtering 

b)

Low-pass filtering 

c)

Smoothing 

d)

Sharpening 

15.

The photoconductor generally used with a TFT array in direct capture digital imaging is

a)

aluminum oxide. 

b)

amorphous selenium.    

c)

zinc cadmium sulfide. 

d)

amorphous silicon. 

16.

With AEC, the area of interest must be placed directly over the selected detectors in order to avoid which two of the following? (select the two that apply)

a)

Overexposure 

b)

Decrease in contrast 

c)

Underexposure 

d)

Increase in contrast 

17.
Which of the following has the strongest electron binding energy? 
a)
N-shell
b)
M-shell
c)
L-shell
d)
K-shell
18.
During a Compton interaction, an incoming x-ray photon interacts with...
a)
the nucleus of an atom
b)
a K-shell electron
c)
an outer shell electron
d)
a free electron
19.
The air gap technique and grids are used to...
a)
reduce the amount of scatter that reaches the IR
b)
decrease patient dose
c)
attenuate the primary x-ray beam
d)
remove directly transmitted x-ray photons
20.
Which is NOT true of filtration? 
a)
"hardens" the x-ray beam
b)
raises the effective energy of the x-ray beam
c)
removes low energy x-ray photons
d)
raises patient dose
21.
The glass window of the x-ray tube serves as what type of filtration? 
a)
inherent
b)
added
c)
total
d)
unnecessary 
22.
What is the Z number for Tungsten? 
a)
64
b)
72
c)
74
d)
75
23.

_______ charged electron passes close to the nucleus and ______ charged nucleus slows the electron and changes its course leaving electron with reduced kinetic energy.

a)

Positively; Negatively

b)

Negatively; Positively

c)

Negatively; Negatively

d)

Positively; Positively

24.

Projectile Electron ionizes an atom and removes a K-Shell electron AND an outer shell electron fills that vacancy and emits energy in the form of X-Ray Photon describes what?

a)

Bremsstralung Radiation

b)

Characteristic Radiation

c)

Compton Scatter

d)

Anode Heel Effect

25.

X-ray tubes produce __% heat.

a)

98%

b)

99%

c)

100%

d)

85%

26.

Bremsstrahlung radiation is radiation producing interaction between ______ _______ and the ______ of an atom.

a)

Q-Shell Electrons; L-Shell Electrons

b)

Projectile Electrons; nucleus

c)

Projectile Electrons; atom

d)

L-Shell Electrons; Q-Shell Electrons

27.

High Frequency Generators are more _________ and both intensity and the effective energy will ______.

a)

Stronger; Increase

b)

Powerful; Decrease

c)

Efficient; Increase

d)

Dangerous; increase

28.

Added filtration shifts Spectrum Curve to the right and results in an ___________ in the effective energy of the beam

a)

Decrease

b)

Increase

c)

Radiation

d)

Kinetic Energy

29.

These will interact with target atoms and transfer their kinetic energy to the target atoms.

a)

Target Electrons

b)

Projectile Electrons

c)

Photon Electrons

d)

Beam Hardening

30.

At 100 kVp, the beam consists of approximately __% Characteristic & __% Bremsstralung

a)

15; 85

b)

85; 15

c)

50; 50

d)

45; 45

31.

What describes x-rays as being considered a radiation formed from the braking of Projectile electrons by the nucleus?

a)

Ionizations

b)

Bremsstralung Radiation

c)

Attenuation

d)

Voltage Ripple

32.

What does this graph depict?

a)

Affects of using different filtration

b)

Anode Heel Effect

c)

Varying energy with increasing voltage

d)

Varying energy with increasing amperage

33.

If the target material has a higher Atomic Number, the X-ray Emission Spectrum would show a shift in what direction?

a)

Right

b)

Left

c)

Up

d)

Down

34.

The larger the area under the curve, in the emission spectrum, then the higher the x-ray ____ or _______.

a)

intensity; quantity

b)

penetrability; quality

c)

energy; kVp

d)

mAs; kVp

35.

When the distance from the source is increased:

a)

x-ray quantity decrease

b)

x-ray quality increase

c)

x-ray quantity increase

d)

no effect in x-ray quality

36.

The protective housing is made of _______.

a)

aluminium

b)

lead

c)

concrete

d)

tungsten

37.

The site for the production of electrons is

a)

anode

b)

cathode

c)

focusing cup

d)

glass envelope

38.

Mobile x-ray unit operates on rechargeable batteries or capacitor discharge unit.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Occurs when Tungsten vaporizes and builds up in a glass tube.

a)

Anode Heel Effect

b)

Arcing

c)

Line Focus Principle

d)

Tube Window

40.

This side of the x-ray tube is driven by an Electromagnetic Induction Motor

a)

Anode

b)

Cathode

c)

Filament

d)

Glass Housing

41.

___________ is when radiation intensity is greater at the cathode side of an x-ray beam and is a byproduct of the Line Focus Principle.

a)

Anode Heel Effect

b)

Anode Cooling Chart

c)

Dual Focus Tube

d)

Extrafocal X-Rays

42.

X-rays that are produced outside the target/focal spot and reduces image contrast.

a)

Arcing

b)

Extrafocal X-ray

c)

Saturation Current

d)

Space Charge Effect

43.

The angling of the target on the Anode which makes an effective focal spot that can be created smaller than the actual focal spot describes:

a)

Isotropically

b)

Arcing

c)

Anode Heel Effect

d)

Line Focus Principle

44.

What part of an x-ray circuit is used to heat up the filament?

a)

Filament circuit

b)

High voltage transformer

c)

Primary circuit

d)

Volts

45.

Filament circuit is what kind of transformer?

a)

Step Up Transformer

b)

Step Down Transformer

c)

Closed Core

d)

Open Core

46.

When the target angle is made smaller, the effective focal spot will become _________.

a)

Larger

b)

Smaller

c)

Angled

d)

Scattered

47.

This component in an x-ray tube is typically made of Tungsten/Rhenium alloy.

a)

Anode

b)

Cathode

c)

Focusing Cup

d)

Protective Housing

48.

What is the minimum amount a tube is allowed to leak?

a)

1.5 mGya/hour at 2 meters

b)

1 mGya/hour at 2 meters

c)

1mGya/hour at 1 meter

d)

1.5 mGya/hour at 1 meter

49.

Inside the tube housing, what is the x-ray tube immersed in to assist with cooling and additional electrical insulation?

a)

oil

b)

plastic

c)

water

d)

coolant

50.

Rotation of the target allows for:

a)

greater heat dissipation

b)

greater x-ray production

c)

longer exposure times

d)

lower radiation dose

51.

The device that concentrates electrons boiling off the filaments into a narrow stream for travel toward the anode is the:

a)

cathode

b)

anode

c)

focusing cup

d)

rectifier

52.

A capacitor:

a)

converts x-ray photons to light

b)

converts light to an electrical charge

c)

converts electrons to light

d)

stores light and converts it from an analog to a digital signal

53.

Which of the following will result in increased spatial resolution (assuming the FOV remain the same)?

a)

a greater number of pixels

b)

a smaller number of pixels

c)

increased bit depth

d)

a smaller matrix size

54.

The PSP:

a)

should be erased periodically due to the sensitivity to scatter radiation

b)

should not be erased unless an exposure has been made

c)

must be replaced after 100 exposures and erasures

d)

is erased by flooding the plate with ultraviolet light

55.

__________ is primarily responsible for the dose to the radiographer, while ______________ contributes to the patient dose.

a)

Compton scatter, photoelectric effect

b)

photoelectric effect, Compton scatter

c)

coherent scatter, Compton scatter

d)

Compton scatter, coherent scatter

56.

Radiation that has the ability to interact with the atoms in a object and remove orbital electron is:

a)

ionizing radiation

b)

electromagnetic radiation

c)

photon radiation

d)

isotope radiation

57.

AMA stands for:

a)

Active matrix array

b)

American medical administration

c)

Attenuation matter acceleration

d)

Available matrix aperture

58.

The by-products of the photoelectric interaction are:

a)

photoelectron, characteristic radiation

b)

Compton electron, photoelectron

c)

recoil electron, scatter radiation

d)

positron, characteristic radiation

59.

In order to remove a k-shell electron from an atom, producing characteristic radiation, the incident photon must possess an energy of

a)

69.5 kVp or higher

b)

30 kVp or higher

c)

Less than 69.5 kVp

d)

50 mAs or greater

60.

Which matter interaction is occurring?

a)

Compton

b)

Photelectric

c)

Bremsstrahlung

d)

Coherent

61.

Photons with higher ______ have a higher energy level.

a)

frequency

b)

charge

c)

mass

d)

wavelength

62.

What percentage of the beam is attenuated by the tissue?

a)

50% for every 4-5 cm

b)

75% for every 10 cm

c)

25% for every 5-6 cm

d)

99% for every 1 cm

63.

Higher kVp techniques result in:

a)

lower contrast

b)

higher penetrability

c)

less receptor exposure

d)

more absorption

64.

Bit depth is determined by the formula

a)

2n2^n  

b)

n2n^2  

c)

22n2^2n  

d)

2n\frac{2}{n}  

65.

Which of the following determine the visibility of detail?

a)

contrast

b)

distortion

c)

brightness

d)

spatial resolution

66.

Which of the following refers to the absorption characteristics of the anatomic tissues radiographed and the quality of the x-ray beam?

a)

subject contrast

b)

brightness

c)

density

d)

contrast resolution

67.

The midpoint of the range of brightness levels visible on the digital image is determined by

a)

window level.

b)

window width.

c)

window pane.

d)

window depth.

68.

__________________ is a term used to evaluate accuracy of the anatomic structural lines recorded.

a)

Contrast resolution

b)

Spatial resolution

c)

Brightness

d)

Detective quantum efficiency

69.

An increase in the image size of an object compared with its true, or actual, size, is called

a)

size distortion.

b)

shape distortion.

c)

sharpness distortion.

d)

magnification.

70.

If the original exposure factors are 20 mAs @ 70 kVp, which of the following factors produce a radiographic image with the same IR exposure but higher contrast?

a)

10 mAs @ 81 kVp.

b)

10 mAs @ 70 kVp.

c)

40 mAs @ 70 kVp.

d)

40 mAs @ 60 kVp.

71.

Imaging a thicker body part will result in

a)

more scatter

b)

fewer tissue interactions

c)

less scatter

d)

higher contrast image

72.

Changes in the SID will affect:

a)

Receptor exposure

b)

Spatial resolution

c)

Magnification

d)

Contrast resolution

73.

Which aspect of image quality does a grid influence?

a)

Contrast 

b)

Size distortion 

c)

Shape distortion 

d)

Spatial resolution 

74.

For the same FOV, arrange the following radiography matrix sizes would result in the highest spatial resolution?

a)

1500 x 1500

b)

 2500 x 2500

c)

750 x 750

d)

224 x 224

75.

What is the name of the computerized system in which the radiographer has a selection of exams available on the console from which to choose? 

a)

Anatomical radiography 

b)

Programmed radiography (anatomical)   

c)

Anatomically programmed radiography    

d)

Automatic Exposure Control

76.

Which of the following are considered “entrance type” AEC devices?

a)

Phototimer

b)

Ionization chamber (ion chamber)

c)

Image receptor (IR)

d)

Anatomically programmed radiography (APR)

77.

From the following list, select the 2 factors having the most impact on receptor exposure:

a)

focal spot size

b)

SID

c)

OID

d)

kVp

78.

What effect does switching to a large focal spot have on the image?

a)

Scale of contrast decreases

b)

Image unsharpness increases

c)

Size distortion increases

d)

Image density decreases

79.

An exposure was made using 70 kVp @ 8 mAs. In order to maintain receptor exposure, what mAs value should be selected if the kVp is increased to 120?      

a)

4 mAs

b)

2 mAs

c)

16 mAs

d)

24 mAs

80.

Added filtration has the effect of __________ the beam quality.

a)

decreasing

b)

increasing

c)

does not affect

81.

The purpose of filtration is to:

a)

reduce the radiation dose to the patient

b)

increase receptor exposure

c)

increase image contrast

d)

improve diagnostic quality

82.

The function of input phosphor is converting

a)

X ray to electrons

b)

X ray to light photons

c)

electrons to X rays

d)

light photons to X rays

83.

The function of photocathode is converting

a)

light photons in to electrons

b)

electrons into light photons

c)

X ray to electrons

d)

electrons to x rays

84.

Which of the following is a technical factors might be adjusted by the Automatic Brightness Control (ABC) system?

a)

mA

b)

kVp

c)

time

d)

FSS

85.

If a fluoroscopic unit has bi-focus input phosphor at 30cm/17cm and an exposure is made in 17cm mode, how much is the image magnified?

a)

1.76 times

b)

0.57 times

c)

4.7 times

d)

13 times

86.

What is the flux gain if there are 10 x-ray photons at the input phosphor and 2,000 light photons at the output phosphor?

a)

200

b)

20

c)

0.2

d)

0.02

87.

The point at which photoelectrons converge and cross paths within the image intensifier.

a)

focal point

b)

focal range

c)

focal track

d)

focus degree

88.

Replacing the camera tube with a charge-coupled device (CCD) along with the ADC further improved digital fluoroscopy by

a)

improving DQE

b)

reducing DQE

c)

reducing patient exposure

d)

improving attenuation coefficients

89.

Measurement of exposure that is calculated using the exposure at the skin surface and the area of the body surface that is exposed.

a)

DAP

b)

KERMA

c)

RBE

d)

ESE

90.
The radiograph illustrated in the figure below was made using a single-phase, full-wave-rectified unit with a timer and rectifiers that are known to be accurate and functioning correctly. What exposure time was used to produce this image?
a)
1/10 second 
b)
0.05 second
c)
1/12 second
d)
0.025 second 
91.
When measuring the accuracy of SID what is the variance that is allowed?
a)
+ or - 2
b)
+ or - 3
c)
+ or -5
d)
+ or -6
92.

When the multifocus image intensifier is operated in the magnification mode

a)

the electron focal point is further from the output phosphor

b)

spatial resolution is reduced

c)

a larger area of input phosphor is used

d)

patient dose is lower

93.

When performing voltage waveform QC testing, deviation from standard waveform can indicate potential problems with the

a)

ADC

b)

battery

c)

generator

d)

transformer

94.

A quality control test is performed by making three subsequent exposures using identical technical factors (100 mA, 80 kVp, and 100 ms). The radiation output during each exposure is measured and compared. What test is being performed?

a)

reproducibility 

b)

reciprocity

c)

accuracy

d)

linearity 

95.

At any combination of tube potential and current, fluoroscopic equipment with an automatic brightness control should not produce an entrance skin exposure exceeding ____ R/min.

a)

2.5

b)

20

c)

10

d)

15

96.

X-ray tubes capable of producing greater than 70 kVp are required to have ______ of total filtration.

a)

2.5 mm Al/eq

b)

3.5 mm Al/eq

c)

0.5 Al/eq

d)

2.0 Al/eq

97.

Which of the following are true regarding digital imaging?

a)

Increased/Wide dynamic range

b)

Nonlinear exposure response

c)

Linear exposure response

d)

Reduced/Narrow dynamic range

98.

Improper collimation can result in

a)

histogram analysis errors

b)

grid cutoff

c)

ghosting

d)

aliasing

99.

To prevent a moiré pattern in your CR image, it is best to have the grid lines running _______ to the direction of the laser beam.

a)

perpendicular

b)

parallel

c)

diagonal

d)

transverse

100.
What is a scintillator?
a)
Absorbs light and converts energy to x-rays
b)
Absorbs light and converts to light
c)
Absorbs x-rays and converts energy to light
d)
Absorbs x-rays and converts to carbon