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Final Review

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Fertilization

a)

conception

b)

concepsion

c)

xygote

d)

zygote

2.

how many days for implantation

a)

3-4

b)

4-6

c)

10

d)

non of the above

3.

what are the classifications of high risk factors of pregnancy?

a)

hemorrhage

b)

traumatic labor or birth

c)

infection

d)

late deceleration

4.

a serious condition that refers to the implantation of the fertilized egg outside of the uterine cavity?

a)

implantation

b)

ectopic pregnancy

c)

morula

d)

labor

5.

any drug or subtance that can cause any malformation?

a)

folic acid

b)

malignant tumor

c)

teratogenic agents

d)

teratogenic genes

6.

what is the developmental stage of the ovum called?

a)

morula

b)

implantation

c)

fertilization

d)

mourulla

7.

postpartum period: fundus should be...

a)

deviated to the right and firm, movement of 3 cm per hour

b)

midline/firm 1-2 days after birth...movement of 1 fingerbreadth/day

c)

midline/boggy 1-2 days after birth...movement of 1 fingerbreadth/day

d)

midline/firm 1-2 days after brith...movement of 5cm/minute

8.

bright red lochia

a)

Robra

b)

Ruby

c)

Rubella

d)

Rubra

9.

At what trimester does nausea occur?

a)

third

b)

first

c)

second

10.

how many days does it take for lochia rubra to turn into alba??

a)

14

b)

18

c)

7

d)

8

11.

pink to brown colored lochia...

a)

serosa

b)

sirius

c)

serious

d)

albino

12.

what kind of odor should lochia be???

a)

fishy

b)

fleshy

c)

fruity

d)

spicy

13.

what is monozygotic?

a)

twins begin with one fertilized ovum

b)

2 seperate ovums

c)

same sex

d)

share placenta

14.

when hyperemesis gravidarum is excessive what does it cause?

a)

weight loss

b)

dehydration

c)

urine ketones and hydrochloric acid

d)

weight gain, oliguria

15.

when is colostrum first PRODUCED during pregnancy??

a)

2nd trimester

b)

first day of conception

c)

3rd trimester

d)

2-3 days after giving birth

16.

when does milk start coming out for breastfeeding???

a)

right after giving birth

b)

2-3 days after giving birth

c)

during 1st phase of labor

d)

1 week postpartum

17.

function of secreting milk

a)

let-down reflex

b)

colostrum

c)

lactation

d)

breastfeeding

18.

when can a woman with an episiotomy resume sexual activity safely?

a)

when the episiotomy has been sutured

b)

when the bleeding has stopped and wound has healed

c)

after 3 months when physiologic sexual stimulations have completely recovered

d)

right after learning Kegel exercises

19.

interventions for episiostomy, lacerations, and hemorrhoids

a)

wash hands before and after cleaning perineum area

b)

change pad with each void and defecation or at least 4x daily

c)

wash perineum with water/vinegar solution to promote hygiene

d)

check on patient q15 during sitz baths

20.

when do 45% of non-nursing mothers resume their menses?

a)

4th week

b)

6th day

c)

6th week

d)

6th month

21.

what is dizygotic?

a)

twins have two seperate ovums

b)

separate placenta

c)

different sex

22.

what is ectopic pregnancy?

a)

implantation in the endometrium

b)

implantation somewhere else other than the uterus

23.

missed is when the fetus dies and growth is not continued but the fetus remains in the uterus ?

a)

true

b)

false

24.

what is spontaneous abortion?

a)

pregnancy before 20 weeks of gestation

b)

37 weeks gestation

25.

what is oligohydramnios

a)

to much amniotic fluid

b)

too little amniotic fluid

26.

what is polyhydramnios?

a)

accumulation of amniotic fluid

b)

too little fluid

c)

nothing

27.

placenta previa painless bright red bleeding  that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation

a)

true

b)

false

28.

how can you determine fetal position?

a)

by looking at the stomach

b)

rectal examination

c)

abdominal inspection and palpitation

d)

vaginal examination

29.

what week heart, blood circulation, and digestive tract takes place ?

a)

0-7

b)

10-13

c)

3-1

d)

4-8

30.

on what week fetal heart starts to pump?

a)

week6

b)

week 3

c)

week 5

d)

week 8

31.

on what week eyes and ears begin to develop?

a)

week 13

b)

week 6

c)

week9

d)

week 3

32.

development of the face is completed on week?

a)

16

b)

7

c)

9

d)

4

33.

strengthen the pelvic muscle

a)

kegel exercice

b)

optic exercice

c)

keagel excercice

34.

vaginal bleeding during pregnancy is abnormal and should be reported immediately

a)

tue

b)

true

c)

falce

d)

ttrue

35.

what week body forms on fetus ?

a)

4-8

b)

1-3

c)

4-9

d)

0-3

36.

hypertensive condition

a)

occurs after 20 weeks of gestation

b)

occurs before 20 weeks of gestation

c)

occurs during the first trimmester

37.

pretaining to BUBBLEHE: what do the two b's next to each other stand for?

a)

blood & bile

b)

biohazard & body

c)

bubble & beso

d)

bowel & bladder

38.

how long does it usually take for an episiotomy to heal?

a)

2-3 minutes after brith

b)

6-7 weeks

c)

2-3 days

d)

2-3 weeks

39.

contraception is a birth control to prevent pregnancy?

a)

false

b)

true

40.

apgar scoring

a)

1 to 5 minutes after birth in response

b)

2 to 4 min

c)

1 to 3

41.

what is postpartum mental health complications

a)

suicidal

b)

denial

c)

baby blues

d)

anger

42.

what is thrombophlebitis ?

a)

artery

b)

blood clot or blood vessel inflammation obstruction

c)

vein

43.

controls the menstrual cycle and stimulates the growth of egg in ovaries

a)

fsht

b)

follicle-stimulating hormone

c)

hgcc

d)

loh

44.

helps prepare the uterus for implantation of a fertilized egg

a)

testosterone

b)

fsh

c)

strogen

d)

progesterone

45.

fuel of cancer

a)

progesterone

b)

strogen

c)

testosterone

46.

which of the following is a desired APGAR score

a)

5 and 6

b)

9 and 9

c)

7 and 7

d)

6 and 7

47.

conception to 12

a)

first trimester

b)

second trimester

c)

third trimester

d)

fourth trimester

48.

13- 27

a)

third trimester

b)

second trimester

c)

first trimester

d)

fourth trimester

49.

sings of pregnancy

a)

nausea

b)

vomiting

c)

heartburn

d)

swelling

50.

the assessment used to monitor the fetus, and it is done in the abdominopelvic

a)

obstetric assessment

b)

antepartum care

c)

patient teaching

51.

GTPAL

a)

gravida

term

preterm

live birth

b)

gravida

term

deliveries

preterm

miscarriage

live birth

c)

live birth

terms

deliveries

preterm

gravida

d)

term

second

third

fourth

52.

regular contractions that are close and strong last longer

a)

true pelvis

b)

true labor

c)

false labor

d)

lightening

53.

irregular contractions do not follow a pattern vary in length and intensity

a)

fontanels

b)

falsse labor

c)

false labor

d)

true labor

54.

2 weeks prior to the onset labor the woman may notice that the fetus has settled to the bottom

a)

lightening

b)

true labor

c)

lighthing

55.

systematic way to determine the position of fetus

a)

Leopold's maneuver

b)

transucer

c)

fetal monitoring

56.

noninvasive fetal monitoring with toco transducer and ultrasound transducer

a)

apgar scoring

b)

external

c)

internal

d)

amniotic fluid

57.

invasive fetal monitoring with intrauterine catherer and spinal electrode in place

a)

fetal positioning

b)

internal

c)

external

58.

delivery of placenta

a)

first stage

b)

third stage

c)

fist stage

d)

fourth stage

59.

delivery of fetus

a)

first stage

b)

second stage

c)

third stage

d)

fourth stage

60.

30 ml is present during 10-12 weeks in 34 weeks 800-100

a)

true and false

b)

false

c)

true

d)

ttrue

61.

excessive vomiting, weight loss, dehydration, urine ketones

a)

hyperemesis gravidarum

b)

hyperemesis

c)

placenta deficiency

d)

pregnancy

62.

share placenta but separate umbilical chord

a)

twins

b)

monozygotic twins

c)

dizygotic twins

63.

separate placentas different sexes

a)

ovum

b)

dizygotic twins

c)

monozygotic twins

d)

twins

64.

complications related to infections

a)

syphillis

b)

torch

c)

aids

d)

herpes

e)

all of them

65.

painless bright red bleeding that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation

a)

bleeding

b)

placenta previa

c)

placentae

d)

abruptio plancetae

66.

cease of pregnancy before 20 weeks of gestation

a)

abortion

b)

contraception

c)

pospartum

67.

treats high blood pressure, assess for tachycardia

a)

calcium gluconate

b)

hydralazine

c)

pitocin

d)

magnesium sulfate

68.

stimulates uterine contractions and used to induce labor 6-12 hours

a)

yutopar

b)

pitocin

c)

hydralazine

d)

rhogam

69.

used to prevent seizures

a)

labetalol

b)

magnesium sulfate

c)

narcan

d)

yutopar

70.

antidote for mag

a)

survanta

b)

calcium gluconate

c)

ghogam

d)

terbulatine

71.

provides passive immunity by suppressing antibody

a)

rubella

b)

rhogam

c)

narcan

d)

pen G

72.

reverses the central nervous system and respiratory depression caused by narcotics

a)

labetalol

b)

yutopar

c)

narcam

d)

terbulatine

73.

delays preterm labor slows contractions of uterus

a)

yutopar

b)

terbutaline

c)

acyclovir

d)

pen g

74.

used to reduce genital herpes infection around 36 weeks

a)

pen g

b)

survanta

c)

betamenthasone

d)

acyclovir

75.

use to prevent premature labor experiencing labor before 37

a)

labetalol

b)

yutopar

c)

acyclovir

d)

brethine

76.

28-40

a)

first trimester

b)

third trimester

c)

third semester

d)

fourth trimester

77.

Homans sign is positive is if the patient reports toe pain upon dorsiflexion of her foot

a)

True

b)

False

78.

infants first stool is Mecoonium...what is it composed of?

a)

colostrum

b)

amniotic fluid

c)

milk formula

d)

decomposed nutrients

79.

Parts of the admission assessment

a)

interview the patient

b)

perform diagnostic tests

c)

review the prenatal record

d)

identify the need to involve family in the process

e)

perform the physical examination

80.

If the mother is RH (-) at how many weeks gestation does she receive RhoGam???

a)

24w

b)

26w

c)

28w

d)

30w

81.

it is important to check for hemorrhoids when assessing the patient's episiotomy.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

at what day of feeding do Transitional stools start appearing? and what do they look like

a)

3rd day, mostly dark in color composed of amniotic fluid, and intestinal secretions

b)

3rd day, dominantly white in texture due to milk formula with a sour like smell

c)

3rd day, greenish-yellowish brown, thin, may contain milk curds

d)

3rd day, mostly brownish in color with a pasty like texture

83.

eye ointment used to protect the babies eyes from any infections.

a)

Digoxin

b)

Simethicone

c)

Dermaplast

d)

Erythromycin

84.

How do milk stools look like when they start appearing on the fourth day?

a)

green to brownish, pasty in texture with milk curds present in contents

b)

yellow to golden, solid in texture, foul odor

c)

yellow to golden, watery due to milk being liquid, doesn't smell

d)

yellow to golden, pasty, odor similar to sour milk

85.

Jaundice before 48 hours of birth is completely normal

a)

true

b)

false

86.

"Taking In" phase is related to

a)

mother sleeps, and depends on others and relives the event of birth

b)

rejection of the infant due to the baby looking like the father

c)

taking in all of the responsibility of being a mother

d)

mother is completely uninvolved with the care plan and only wants to leave to be with her baby

87.

how long do you monitor for bleeding after a circumcision???

a)

12hrs

b)

1 week

c)

2-3 days

d)

2 weeks

88.

helps speed up lung development in preterm babies releases surfactan

a)

hbig

b)

yutopar

c)

betamethasone

d)

rubella

89.

helps the lung keep the airway open it is produce at 26 weeks

a)

hbig

b)

survanta

c)

procardia

d)

pen g

90.

use to treat high blood prssure, chest pain, causes diarrhea or nausea

a)

procardia

b)

labetalol

c)

pen g

d)

narcan

91.

administer to fight a live virus, warn pt to avoid getting pregnant for 3 months

a)

rubella

b)

hbig

c)

procardia

92.

Good bonding with the newborn is characterized by:

a)

Mother reluctantly holding the baby

b)

Mother being to focused on herself

c)

Mother desires to just go home with the newborn as soon as possible

d)

Mother desires to interact with the newborn

93.

used for streptococcus b and administered after cultures and sensitivity are completed interferes with contraception use assess for respiratory abnormalities

a)

narcan

b)

pen g

c)

rubella

d)

labetalol

94.

beta blocker and lowers blood pressure , helps uteroplacental blood flow

a)

labetalol

b)

peng g

c)

ternulatine

d)

hbigh

95.

Infant quieting techniques include:

a)

carrying baby in front in a backpack

b)

prewarming the crib sheets for comfort

c)

skin to skin contact for warmth

d)

swaddling the baby in a snug way

e)

place baby in the center of a large crib for comfort

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