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WorksheetsNUTRPRCQZ FINAL PART 1
Total questions: 103
Worksheet time: 46mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which nutrients do NOT provide energy?
a)
Water and carbohydrate
b)
Minerals and vitamins
c)
Vitamins and protein
d)
Water, minerals, and lipids
2.
Which of the following cannot add fat to the body?
a)
Alcohol
b)
Proteins
c)
Carbohydrates
d)
Inorganic nutrients
3.
A snack bar contains about 17 grams of carbohydrates, 1 gram of fat, and 1 gram of protein. How many kcals does it contain?
a)
19
b)
43
c)
81
d)
210
4.
If a total of 2000 kcal were consumed (energy came from 250 grams of carbohydrates, 66 grams of fat, and 102 grams of protein), what percentage of energy comes from carbohydrates, fat, and protein?
a)
30% carbohydrate, 50% fat, and 20% protein
b)
50% carbohydrate, 35% fat, and 15% protein
c)
20% carbohydrate, 30% fat, and 50% protein
d)
50% carbohydrate, 30% fat, and 20% protein
5.
Which is NOT a characteristic of an essential nutrient?
a)
It has a specific biological function.
b)
Removing it from the diet causes a reduction in biological function.
c)
Adding it to a deficient diet restores body functions back to normal if it is added before permanent damage occurs.
d)
The body can create these nutrients on its own.
6.
Which is true about essential fatty acids?
a)
The body can make them from nonessential fatty acids.
b)
They help regulate blood pressure and nerve transmission.
c)
They are found primarily in deep-fried foods.
d)
They are linked to increased risk of heart disease.
7.
Which nutrients regulate body processes?
a)
Proteins and carbohydrates
b)
Carbohydrates, some lipids, and water
c)
Some lipids, some vitamins, and some minerals.
d)
All nutrients help regulate body processes.
8.
Which nutrients are organic compounds?
a)
Water and carbohydrates
b)
Carbohydrates and protein
c)
Fats and minerals
d)
Water and minerals
9.
Which nutrient is an inorganic substance?
a)
Vitamin A
b)
Zinc
c)
Protein
d)
Thiamin
10.
Which is a limitation of nutritional assessment?
a)
Many signs and symptoms of nutrient deficiency disease are not very specific.
b)
Many signs and symptoms of nutrient deficiency disease take a long time to occur.
c)
It is hard to link many signs and symptoms to dietary intake.
d)
All of these are limitations of nutritional assessment.
e)
None of these are limitations of nutritional assessment.
11.
Undernutrition can lead to ________.
a)
depleted nutrient stores
b)
possible slowdown in metabolic processes
c)
few symptoms in the early stages
d)
All of these responses are correct.
12.
Which of the following nutritional assessment would best be used to determine if there is a subclinical deficiency present?
a)
Anthropometric assessment
b)
Clinical assessment
c)
Environmental assessment
d)
Biochemical assessment
13.
A possible explanation for a natural phenomenon is a ________.
a)
law
b)
model
c)
theory
d)
hypothesis
14.
How is a placebo group used in an experiment?
a)
All subjects are similar.
b)
All subjects receive a treatment.
c)
Neither subjects nor researchers know who is receiving treatment.
d)
One group of subjects receives a treatment and the other group receives a fake treatment.
15.
A critical evaluation and synthesis of research studies focusing on a specific topic that is useful for health-care providers is a(n) _________________.
a)
systematic review
b)
peer-reviewed journal
c)
hypothesis
d)
epidemiological study
16.
Examples of water-soluble vitamins include ________.
a)
vitamins A and E
b)
vitamins A and E
c)
vitamin C and the B-vitamins
d)
calcium and iron
17.
Which Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) reflects average daily needs?
a)
Adequate Intakes
b)
Estimated Average Requirements
c)
Recommended Dietary Allowances
d)
Tolerable Upper Intake Levels
18.
The Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for nutrients are ________.
a)
the maximum amounts allowed for an average 70-kg man
b)
twice as high as almost everyone needs
c)
average requirements for a population
d)
designed to meet the nutrient needs of 97 to 98% of individuals in a specific life stage
19.
The nutrient standards used on Nutrition Facts panels are called ________.
a)
Recommended Dietary Allowances
b)
Daily Values
c)
Estimated Average Requirements
d)
Adequate Intakes
20.
If a group of people consumed an amount of protein equal to the estimated average requirement for their life stage, what percentage would receive insufficient amounts?
a)
2
b)
33
c)
50
d)
98
21.
What measure best describes the amounts of nutrients that should be consumed by the population?
a)
The Dietary Reference Intakes because they are a set of nutrient intake values for healthy people
b)
The Tolerable Upper Intake levels because they are the maximum daily amount of a nutrient needed that is safe for most healthy people
c)
The Estimated Average Requirements because they reflect the average daily amount of a nutrient that will maintain a specific function in half of the healthy people of a population
d)
The Recommended Dietary Allowances because they represent the daily amount of a nutrient considered adequate to meet the known nutrient needs of nearly all healthy people
22.
If a person consumed 35% of a diet providing 2500 kcalories from protein, approximately how many grams of protein would be ingested?
a)
48
b)
67
c)
165
d)
219
23.
Daily Values differ from Recommended Dietary Allowances in that Daily Values ________.
a)
are used on Nutrition Facts panels
b)
are based on 2 sets of dietary standards
c)
are not gender-specific
d)
All of these responses are correct.
24.
Daily Values are based on which sets of dietary standards?
a)
Reference Daily Intakes and Daily Reference Values
b)
Recommended Dietary Allowances and Daily Reference Values
c)
Reference Daily Intakes and Tolerable Upper Intake Levels
d)
Recommended Dietary Allowances and Reference Daily Intakes
25.
Which is required on all food packages?
a)
Name and address of the food manufacturer
b)
Date and time of processing
c)
Expiration date
d)
Percent Daily Value for protein
26.
If a can of soup provides 4 servings and has 100 kcal per serving, how many kcal are in the entire can?
a)
100
b)
200
c)
400
d)
800
27.
Food components that MUST be listed on the Nutrition Facts panel include ________.
a)
at least 5% of the Daily Value for calcium in 1 serving of the food
b)
at least 10% of the Daily Value for calcium in 1 serving of the food
c)
at least 50% of the Daily Value for calcium in 1 serving of the food
d)
at least 50% of the Daily Value for calcium in 2 servings of the food
28.
Mandatory labeling of foods is regulated by the ________.
a)
USDHHS
b)
FTC
c)
FDA
d)
GAO
29.
Which government agency publishes the Dietary Guidelines for Americans?
a)
USDA
b)
USDHHS
c)
USDA and USDHHS
d)
FDA and USDA
e)
FDA
30.
MyPlate groups foods into _____ major categories.
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
31.
What eating behavior does MyPlate specifically encourage?
a)
Make half your plate vegetables.
b)
Make half your plate grains.
c)
Make at least half your grains whole grains.
d)
Add in more empty-calorie foods.
32.
The MyPlate vegetable group is divided into which subgroups?
a)
Starchy vegetables, red and orange vegetables, and dark green vegetables
b)
Dark green vegetables and other vegetables
c)
Other vegetables, starchy vegetables, and red and yellow vegetables
d)
Dark green vegetables, orange vegetables, starchy vegetables, beans and peas, and other vegetables
33.
To put MyPlate into action, what would your first step be?
a)
Compare your energy needs to servings sizes from food groups
b)
Cut out food groups you eat too much of
c)
Estimate how many calories you need
34.
The allotment for maximum sugar per day:
a)
is the same for all calorie ranges
b)
increases as calorie load increases
c)
decreases as calorie load increases
d)
is not addressed in the most recent Dietary Guidelines for Americans
e)
is not addressed in the most recent Dietary Guidelines for Americans
35.
If no glucose is available from dietary carbohydrate, glucose in the blood may first be derived from ________.
a)
liver glycogen
b)
triglyceride breakdown
c)
muscle glycogen and fatty acids
d)
sugar alcohols
36.
Which of the following combinations of foods would provide the most dietary fiber?
a)
Kidney bean salad, turkey sandwich on whole wheat bread, fresh apple, milk
b)
Ham sandwich on white bread, potato chips, iced tea
c)
Roast beef, mashed potatoes, coffee with sugar
d)
Cheeseburger (white bun, lettuce, mustard, catsup, slice of tomato, 3 oz ground beef, processed cheese slice), french fries, soft drink
37.
A person diagnosed with phenylketonuria (PKU) should avoid products containing ________.
a)
saccharin
b)
aspartame
c)
lactose
d)
sucrose
38.
All persons with diabetes ________.
a)
receive insulin injections daily
b)
need to eat a diet that will control their blood sugar
c)
can skip meals if they don't feel hungry
d)
should drink 4 glasses of milk daily to control their blood sugar
39.
Which of the following is the best source of starch?
a)
fresh blueberries
b)
whole-grain oats
c)
low fat yogurt
d)
dark leafy greens
40.
Treatment for reactive hypoglycemia includes ________.
a)
administering insulin before a meal
b)
eating regular meals and snacks of protein and complex carbohydrates and avoiding excess simple sugar
c)
following a high-protein, high-fat diet
d)
taking supplements of vitamins and minerals
41.
Which of the following organs is the first to respond to a rise in blood glucose levels?
a)
heart
b)
liver
c)
gallbladder
d)
pancreas
42.
Glucose, galactose, and fructose ________.
a)
are disaccharides
b)
are soluble fibers
c)
are monosaccharides
d)
are polysaccharides
43.
Raffinose and stachyose are indigestible oligosaccharides found in foods such as ________.
a)
milk and dairy products
b)
cereals and grains
c)
fruits and vegetables
d)
beans and other legumes
44.
The storage form of carbohydrates in plants is ________.
a)
maltose
b)
starch
c)
glycogen
d)
ribose
45.
The principal function of dietary carbohydrate is to provide ________.
a)
bulk in diet
b)
structural material
c)
sweetness in foods
d)
energy
46.
Dietary sugars and starches are called "protein sparing," which means ________.
a)
sugars and starches can substitute for dietary protein when it comes to body protein synthesis
b)
dietary protein can be used for protein synthesis and other vital processes, rather than being used as a source of energy
c)
sugars and starches are converted to fat, and then converted to glucose for use as blood sugar
d)
sugars and starches are converted by the liver to ketone bodies
47.
Insulin is made in the ________.
a)
gallbladder
b)
pancreas
c)
liver
d)
small instestine
48.
The best type of fiber to eat for reducing constipation is ________.
a)
glycogen
b)
crude fiber
c)
soluble fiber
d)
insoluble fiber
49.
The presence of ___________ chemically distinguishes protein from carbohydrate and fat.
a)
carbon
b)
choline
c)
nitrogen
d)
hydrogen
50.
Dietary proteins supply ______ kcal per gram.
a)
4
b)
7
c)
9
d)
15
51.
Which bodily function is not associated with protein?
a)
Blood clotting
b)
Fluid balance
c)
Cell growth and repair
d)
Sparing glucose for energy use as the primary source of energy
52.
Over time, if protein intake does not meet the body's protein needs for building and repair of tissues, ________.
a)
skeletal muscle, heart muscle, and the liver decrease in size
b)
excessive body fluid begins to accumulate in the extracellular spaces
c)
the immune system fails to function properly
d)
All of these choices are accurate.
53.
Good sources of high-quality (complete) protein include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
a)
soybeans
b)
eggs
c)
whole wheat
d)
fish
54.
Foods containing all essential amino acids in the proportion needed by the body are designated as ________.
a)
incomplete proteins
b)
high-quantity proteins
c)
dispensable proteins
d)
complete proteins
55.
When 2 or more plant proteins are combined to compensate for deficiencies in essential amino acid content in each protein, the proteins are called ________.
a)
nonessential proteins
b)
complementary proteins
c)
conditional proteins
d)
corrected proteins
56.
Which of the following conditions would result in negative nitrogen balance?
a)
Recovery from injury
b)
Weight training
c)
Pregnancy
d)
Kwashiorkor
57.
The RDA for protein for most healthy adults is ________.
a)
0.5 g/kg of body weight
b)
0.8 g/kg of body weight
c)
1.2 g/kg of body weight
d)
2.0 g/kg of body weight
58.
When food proteins reach the stomach, HCl ________ the protein.
a)
esterifies
b)
emulsifies
c)
transaminates
d)
denatures
59.
Edema in the lower extremities may appear when there is a severe lack of dietary protein because ________.
a)
sodium is retained in the body
b)
blood protein levels drop and fluid shifts into interstitial spaces
c)
blood protein levels increase and force fluid into the cells
d)
the kidneys cannot efficiently excrete excess fluid
60.
A diet that is deficient in carbohydrate will ultimately force the liver and, to a lesser extent, the kidneys to ________.
a)
produce glucose from amino acids
b)
use fat stores to synthesize glucose
c)
convert glucose to glycogen in the liver
d)
All of the above will occur.
61.
Proteins help regulate blood pH by ________.
a)
accepting and releasing hydrogen ions
b)
keeping the blood more acidic
c)
releasing ketone-forming amino acids into the blood
d)
pumping potassium out of the cells
62.
A growing child who is consuming adequate protein but only 50% of his or her energy needs will likely be in ________.
a)
nitrogen equilibrium
b)
positive nitrogen balance
c)
negative nitrogen balance
63.
What would be the recommended amount of protein for a 121-pound female?
a)
21 g/day
b)
36 g/day
c)
44 g/day
d)
55 g/day
64.
A high-protein diet is discouraged for patients with ________.
a)
infection
b)
marasmus
c)
kidney disease
d)
kwashiorkor
65.
A vegan diet may be low in ________.
a)
vitamin B-12
b)
iron
c)
calcium
d)
All of these responses are correct.
66.
When plant proteins are compared to animal proteins, they ________.
a)
usually have equal quantities of essential amino acids
b)
are usually superior in their array of essential amino acids
c)
are usually deficient in one or more essential amino acids
d)
are equal in quality so long as they are not overcooked
67.
Marasmus is characterized by ________.
a)
edema
b)
extreme weight loss and fat loss
c)
excess energy intakes
d)
allergy to cow's milk
68.
Excess protein intake can result in ________.
a)
diabetes
b)
iron deficiency
c)
loss of calcium
d)
excess fiber intake
69.
Alpha-linolenic acid and linoleic acid are classified as _________ fatty acids.
a)
essential
b)
nonessential
c)
saturated
d)
trans
70.
Which of the following correctly characterizes lipids?
a)
They do not dissolve in water.
b)
They contain carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen.
c)
They dissolve in water.
d)
They are all classified as sterols.
71.
In what form is most body fat stored?
a)
cholesterol
b)
phospholipids
c)
triglycerides
d)
non of thes responses are correct
72.
All of the following are ways in which fatty acids can differ from one anotherEXCEPT ________.
a)
number of double bonds
b)
degree of saturation
c)
chain length
d)
average number of calories per gram
73.
Which of the following lipids is a precursor for estrogen and bile?
a)
Cholesterol
b)
Alpha-linoleic acid
c)
Eicosinoids
d)
Saturated fat
74.
Lard, butter, and cream are rich sources of ________.
a)
saturated fatty acids
b)
monounsaturated fatty acids
c)
polyunsaturated fatty acids
d)
trans fatty acids
75.
The chief contributors of saturated fatty acids in the U.S. diet include ________.
a)
whole grains
b)
sunflower, soybean, and safflower oils
c)
lecithins
d)
animal products
76.
Which of the following groups of foods would contribute a substantial amount of monounsaturated fatty acids to the diet?
a)
Olive oil, peanuts, and almonds
b)
Beef franks, bologna, and ham
c)
Carrots, beets, and peppers
d)
Bacon, eggs, and butter
77.
Fats that are liquid at room temperature can be made more solid by the process of ________.
a)
saponification
b)
hydrogenation
c)
emulsification
d)
calcification
78.
Which of the following fats and oils provides the most polyunsaturated fatty acids?
a)
Olive oil
b)
butter
c)
soybean oil
d)
lard
79.
Cholesterol is ________.
a)
not essential in the diet; the human body can synthesize it
b)
not found in foods of plant origin
c)
an important part of human cell membranes and is necessary to make some hormones
d)
All of these choices are correct.
80.
Mike has been told to reduce his fat intake to less than 30% of his total calories. It has been recommended to him that he consume an average of 2000 calories per day. How many grams of fat should he consume per day?
a)
76
b)
67
c)
80
d)
93
81.
The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend that total fat intake should not exceed __________ of total calories and saturated fat intake be limited to _______ of total calories.
a)
20%; 1%
b)
20%; 5%
c)
35%; 10%
d)
50%; 10%
82.
In the Mediterranean Diet, the majority of fat in the diet is supplied by ________.
a)
olive oil and olives
b)
red meat
c)
eggs
d)
dairy
e)
cheese
83.
Individuals with bleeding disorders taking anticoagulants or scheduling surgery should be cautious about which supplement?
a)
Omega-6 fatty acids
b)
Omega-9 fatty acids
c)
Omega-3 fatty acids
d)
None of these responses are correct.
84.
Fat digestion begins in the ________.
a)
intestines
b)
stomach
c)
mouth
d)
liver
85.
Which lipoprotein is responsible for transporting cholesterol from the liver to tissues?
a)
Chylomicron
b)
Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
c)
High-density lipoprotein (HDL)
d)
Chylomicron remnant
86.
High levels of ______ in the blood are associated with lower risk of cardiovascular disease.
a)
LDL
b)
HDL
c)
total cholesterol
d)
triglyerides
87.
Which of the following organs is NOT part of the digestive organ system?
a)
pancreas
b)
small instestine
c)
kidneys
d)
liver
88.
The ______ layer of the GI tract wall contains glands, blood vessels, and nerves, whereas the ________ layer is the outermost layer that protects the GI tract.
a)
mucosa; muscle
b)
serosa; submucosa
c)
submucosa; muscle
d)
submucosa; serosa
89.
The breakdown of dietary starch to glucose in the small intestine is considered ________.
a)
metabolism
b)
hormonal action
c)
digestion
d)
absorption
90.
Bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) from the pancreas ________.
a)
neutralize the acid contents in the stomach
b)
are synthesized in the pyloric sphincter
c)
neutralize the bile in the duodenum
d)
neutralize the acid contents in the duodenum
91.
The sphincter that allows chyme to pass into the small intestine is known as the ________.
a)
lower esophageal sphincter
b)
sphincter of Oddi
c)
pyloric sphincter
d)
ileocecal sphincter
92.
Segmentation as a function of the GI tract involves ________.
a)
peristalsis to move the food along the GI tract
b)
back and forth contractions that break apart the food mass
c)
conscious effort
d)
A) enzyme input to break apart the food mass
93.
A coordinated muscular contraction that propels food along the GI tract is called ________.
a)
a sphincter
b)
enterohepatic circulation
c)
a pump
d)
peristalsis
94.
Most digestive enzymes are synthesized by the ________.
a)
liver and large intestine
b)
bile and gallbladder
c)
kidneys and esophagus
d)
pancreas and small intestine
95.
Human digestion of food begins in the _______, where the enzyme _____ breaks down a small amount of starch.
a)
mouth; amylase
b)
stomach; pepsin
c)
small intestine; amylase
d)
mouth; lipase
96.
The major function(s) of the stomach is/are ________.
a)
the digestion and absorption of carbohydrates, especially starch
b)
the digestion and absorption of alcohol
c)
to mix ingested foods with gastric juices to form chyme
d)
All of these responses are correct.
97.
The fluid mixture that moves from the stomach to the duodenum is called ________.
a)
bolus
b)
chyme
c)
food
d)
None of these responses are correct.
98.
Heartburn is caused by ________.
a)
acid surrounding the heart muscle
b)
acid and other digestive enzymes within the heart muscle
c)
the backflow of acidic stomach contents into the esophagus
d)
None of these choices are accurate.
99.
The stomach is protected from digesting itself by producing ________.
a)
bicarbonate only when food is in the stomach
b)
a thick layer of mucus to coat the lining of the stomach
c)
hydroxyl ions to neutralize the acid
d)
A) antipepsin that destroys digestive substances
100.
The gastric secretion pepsin is necessary for ________.
a)
preventing peptic ulcer formation
b)
protein digestion
c)
vitamin B-12 absorption
d)
destruction of harmful bacteria and viruses
101.
The small intestine is divided into three segments. List them in descending order.
a)
Ileum, Jejunum, Duodenum
b)
Jejunum, Ileum, Duodenum
c)
Duodenum, Ileum, Jejunum
d)
Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum
102.
Villi are found mainly in the ________.
a)
large intestine
b)
small instestine
c)
esophagus
d)
stomach
103.
The absorptive process that requires energy in the form of ATP is ________.
a)
facilitated diffusion
b)
active absorption
c)
enterohepatic circulation
d)
the lymphatic system
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