WorksheetsRad Path Chapter 3 Respiratory
Total questions: 59
Worksheet time: 30mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What anatomic structure adheres directly to lung tissue?
a)
Alveoli
b)
Parietal pleura
c)
Visceral pleura
d)
Epithelium
2.
What diagnostic examination is most frequently performed in the radiology department?
a)
Chest radiography
b)
CT of the head
c)
Upper GI
d)
Nuclear medicine perfusion and ventilation scan
3.
Which sets of paranasal sinuses are present at birth?
1. Maxillary
2. Frontal
3. Ethmoid
4. Spenoid
1. Maxillary
2. Frontal
3. Ethmoid
4. Spenoid
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2, 3, and 4
4.
To decrease patient dose while performing computed chest radiography, which technical factors can be increased?
a)
kVp
b)
mA
c)
Exposure time
d)
Focal spot size
5.
What anatomic structure is not located in the mediastinum?
a)
Thyroid gland
b)
Thymus gland
c)
Esophagus
d)
Lung
6.
Which of the following patient positioning factors assists in increasing the size of the cardiac shadow?
a)
PA projection
b)
AP projection
c)
72? SID
d)
Erect position
7.
To evaluate a pleural effusion in the left lung, which decubitus position is required?
a)
Left lateral
b)
Right lateral
c)
Ventral
d)
Dorsal
8.
What is a common complaint of radiologists when reading chest radiographs?
a)
Poor inspiration
b)
Presence of pathology
c)
Presence of exposure artifacts
d)
Poor exposure technique
9.
What chest position or projection will best demonstrate pectus excavatum?
a)
PA
b)
Left lateral
c)
Left lateral decubitus
d)
AP lordotic
10.
What chest position may better visualize TB, which has a predilection for the apices of the lungs?
a)
PA
b)
Left lateral
c)
RAO
d)
AP lordotic
11.
What anatomic structure presents radiographically as a "sail sign"?
a)
Thyroid gland
b)
Cardiac shadow
c)
Thymus gland
d)
Mediastinum
12.
What pathologic condition occurs as a result of a disruption in the esophagus or trachea and air becoming trapped in the mediastinum?
a)
Mediastinal emphysema
b)
Pneumothorax
c)
Pneumonia
d)
Atelectasis
13.
Which imaging modality is preferred when evaluating pulmonary adenopathy?
a)
Radiography
b)
CT
c)
MRI
d)
Nuclear medicine
14.
Which imaging modality can distinguish between benign and malignant pulmonary lesions because it captures information regarding metabolic activity?
a)
Radiography
b)
CT
c)
MRI
d)
Nuclear medicine
15.
What type of tube would be inserted into a patient with a hemothorax?
a)
Endotracheal tube
b)
Chest tube
c)
Central venous pressure line
d)
Hickman catheter
16.
Diagnosis and management of heart failure, resulting from myocardial infarction and cardiogenic shock, represent the most common use of what type of catheter?
a)
Endotracheal tube
b)
Central venous pressure line
c)
Hickman catheter
d)
Swan-Ganz catheter
17.
What term denotes the inability to move air into and out of the lungs, with increased blood carbon dioxide content?
a)
Respiratory failure
b)
Hypoxemia
c)
Hypercapnia
d)
Pneumonia
18.
What is not a common cause of respiratory failure?
a)
Obstructed airway
b)
Tachypnea
c)
Hypoventilation
d)
Congenital heart defect
19.
Cystic fibrosis is classified as a(n) _____ disorder.
a)
Hereditary
b)
Inflammatory
c)
Neoplastic
d)
Traumatic
20.
What is deficient in the premature infant affected by hyaline membrane disease?
a)
Vitamin D
b)
Vitamin K
c)
Calcium
d)
Surfactant
21.
What chest pathology radiographically demonstrates an air-bronchogram sign?
a)
Pneumonia
b)
Cystic fibrosis
c)
Hyaline membrane disease
d)
Tuberculosis
22.
What is the most common lethal genetic disease for white children?
a)
Cystic fibrosis
b)
Leukemia
c)
Glioma
d)
Myocardial infarction
23.
What is the most common bacterial pneumonia?
a)
Aspiration pneumonia
b)
Mycoplasma pneumonia
c)
Pneumococcal (lobar) pneumonia
d)
Streptococcal pneumonia
24.
What type of pneumonia is frequently caused by influenza?
a)
Pneumococcal pneumonia
b)
Streptococcal pneumonia
c)
Staphylococcal pneumonia
d)
Viral (interstitial) pneumonia
25.
In severe cases, what type of pneumonia may mimic the radiographic appearance of TB?
a)
Streptococcal pneumonia
b)
Legionnaire?s disease
c)
Aspiration pneumonia
d)
Mycoplasma pneumonia
26.
What pathologic condition is a permanent, abnormal dilatation of one or more large bronchi as a result of destruction of the elastic and muscular components of the bronchial wall?
a)
Pneumonia
b)
Bronchiectasis
c)
Tuberculosis
d)
Bronchitis
27.
What is the primary method of diagnosing pulmonary tuberculosis?
a)
Chest radiography
b)
CT scan
c)
Bronchoscopy
d)
Intradermal Mantoux test
28.
The condition in which pus accumulates in the pleural space is termed:
a)
atelectasis
b)
empyema
c)
emphysema
d)
infiltration
29.
Hyperinflation or the overdistention of alveoli with air is called:
a)
atelectasis
b)
bronchiectasis
c)
emphysema
d)
pneumothorax
30.
A(n) _____ tube is inserted through nose or mouth into the trachea and used to manage the patient's airway.
a)
chest tube
b)
Swan-Ganz catheter
c)
Hickman catheter
d)
endotracheal tube (ET)
31.
The most frequent type of lung infection is:
a)
pneumonia
b)
Legionnaire's disease
c)
tuberculosis
d)
emphysema
32.
An inflammation of the pleura that is not visible on radiographs is:
a)
pleura effusion
b)
pleurisy
c)
lung abscess
d)
none of the above
33.
What term is associated with TB when the bloodstream picks up the TB bacteria and carries it throughout the body?
a)
Bronchiectasis
b)
Bronchitis
c)
Miliary
d)
Military
34.
The most common pathologies associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are:
a)
pneumonia and bronchitis
b)
chronic bronchitis and emphysema
c)
emphysema and asthma
d)
chronic bronchitis and asthma
35.
The predominant risk factor associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is:
a)
family history
b)
history of frequent pneumonias
c)
smoking
d)
air pollution
36.
What pathology presents radiographically as a depressed or flattened diaphragm, abnormally radiolucent lungs, and increased retrosternal air spaces?
a)
Emphysema
b)
Empyema
c)
Pneumonia
d)
Bronchitis
37.
Which of the following is not a primary type of pneumoconiosis?
a)
Silicosis
b)
Anthracosis
c)
Histoplasmosis
d)
Asbestosis
38.
What type of fungal infection is endemic to the Ohio and Mississippi River valleys?
a)
Silicosis
b)
Histoplasmosis
c)
Coccidioidomycosis
d)
Sarcoidosis
39.
A solitary radiopaque lung nodule consistent with bronchogenic carcinomas is a:
a)
coin lesion
b)
sail sign
c)
exudate
d)
transudate
40.
What is the procedure performed under sonographic guidance that removes excess fluids from the pleural cavity?
a)
Bronchoscopy
b)
Bronchography
c)
Thoracocentesis
d)
Paracentesis
41.
Which of the following is not a method of pulmonary metastases?
a)
Direct implantation from biopsy or surgery
b)
Hematogenous metastases
c)
Bronchogenic metastases
d)
Airborne droplets
42.
The prognosis for patients diagnosed with bronchogenic carcinomas is excellent.
a)
TRUE
b)
False
43.
Cystic fibrosis requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
44.
Sinusitis requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
45.
Emphysema requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
46.
Pleurisy requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
47.
Pneumonia requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
48.
Hyaline membrane disease requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
49.
COPD requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
50.
Pleural effusion requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
51.
The prognosis for patients diagnosed with bronchogenic carcinomas is excellent.
a)
True
b)
False
52.
Cystic fibrosis requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
53.
Sinusitis requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
54.
Emphysema requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
55.
Hyaline membrane disease requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
56.
Pleurisy requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
57.
Pneumonia requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
58.
COPD requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
59.
Pleural effusion requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
100 %
