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Final Exam Review (RAD 225)

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Iatrogenic diseases are:

a)

caused by medical treatments

b)

infections acquired within an acute care facility

c)

infections acquired outside of a care facility

d)

inherited by offspring when both parent posses the genetic mutation

2.

The term etiology describes:

a)

the cause, set of causes, or manner of causation of a disease.

b)

relating to illness caused by medical examination or treatment.

c)

arising from an unknown cause.

d)

the unique combination of signs and symptoms that characterize a disease process.

3.

A localized area of ischemic necrosis within a tissue or organ produced by vascular occlusion is a(n)

a)

infarct

b)

gangrene

c)

empyema

d)

purpura

4.

A hematoma occurs when

a)

an injury causes blood to collect and pool under the skin.

b)

most or all of the cells in a tissue die as a result of a failure of the blood supply.

c)

excess fluid pools in a region of the body

d)

a blood vessel becomes occluded, compromising blood flow to a tissue

5.

In NM the device used to detect emitted radiation is the:

a)

gamma camera

b)

ion camera

c)

diode camera

d)

image receptor

6.

PET involves:

a)

the injection of a positron emitting radio-pharmaceutical

b)

the injection of a gamma emitting radio-pharmaceutical

c)

the injection of an alpha emitting radio-pharmaceutical

d)

the injection of a fast neutron emitting radio-pharmaceutical

7.

The Hounsfield unit for water is

a)

-1000

b)

1000

c)

100

d)

0

8.

When a combination of signs, symptoms, and disease processes are linked, it is known as a(n)_________________.

a)

syndrome

b)

condition

c)

infection

d)

manifestation

9.

A vertebra with characteristics of more than one major division of the spine is called

a)

spondylolysis

b)

spina bifida

c)

a transitional vertebra

d)

spondylolisthesis

10.

A fracture that occurs due to weakening of the bone as the result of a disease process is a ______ fracture.

a)

Greenstick.

b)

Stress.

c)

Fatigue.

d)

Pathologic.

11.

Genetic condition in which a kidney fails to develop is called

a)

renal agenesis

b)

hypoplastic kidney

c)

compensatory hypertrophy

d)

supernumerary kidney

12.

What is an ectopic kidney?

a)

A third, rudimentary kidney.

b)

A kidney that is not in the normal location.

c)

A kidney that is enlarged because it has to do the job of both kidneys.

d)

The most common type of fusion anomaly.

13.

What is the most common malignant abdominal neoplasm of infancy and childhood?

a)

Hypernephroma.

b)

Wilms’ tumor.

c)

Polycystic kidneys.

d)

Renal cell carcinoma.

14.

The most common congenital cardiac abnormality is

a)

tetralogy of Fallot

b)

coarctation of the aorta

c)

ventricular hyperplasia

d)

left-to-right shunts

15.

Constriction of the aorta at the distal arch is termed

a)

coarctation of the aorta

b)

tetralogy of Fallot

c)

aortic prolapse

d)

aortic valve insufficiency

16.

Which of the following causes ischemic heart disease as a result of decreased oxygen to the myocardium?

a)

Mitral valve prolapse.

b)

Tetralogy of Fallot.

c)

Coronary artery disease.

d)

Coarctation of the aorta.

17.

The inability of the heart to propel blood at a rate and volume sufficient to provide an adequate supply to the tissues is called

a)

myocardial infarction

b)

congestive heart failure

c)

cardiogenic shock

d)

coronary angioplasty

18.

What is an aortic dissection?

a)

Complete tear of arterial wall.

b)

Congenital anomaly in which the lumen is duplicated.

c)

Traumatic disruption of the aorta from the root at the junction of the left ventricle.

d)

Disruption of the intima allowing blood to flow between the layers of the wall.

19.

Which of the following is a major source of fatal pulmonary emboli?

a)

Pericardial effusion.

b)

Pulmonary edema.

c)

Deep vein thrombosis.

d)

Infective endocarditis.

20.

What is an embolism?

a)

A clot inside a blood vessel.

b)

A piece of a blood clot that enters circulation.

c)

A tear in the lining of an artery.

d)

A weakness in an artery wall.

21.

What is esophageal atresia?

a)

An abnormal communication between the esophagus and the respiratory system.

b)

Dilated, tortuous veins of the esophagus.

c)

Functional obstruction causing proximal dilatation.

d)

Congenital condition in which the esophagus ends in a blind pouch.

22.

Which of the following conditions is likely to result in pneumoperitoneum?

a)

Inflammation or necrosis

b)

Obstruction of the cystic duct

c)

Excessive alcohol consumption

d)

Perforation of the GI tract

23.

What is the primary cause of acute cholecystitis?

a)

Infection of the biliary system.

b)

Cirrhosis of the liver.

c)

Impacted gallstone in the cystic duct.

d)

Peptic ulcer disease.

24.

What is one of the most common causes of obstruction in the large bowel?

a)

Intussusception.

b)

Primary colon cancer.

c)

Volvulus.

d)

Appendicitis,

25.

A condition of acquired herniations of mucosa and submucosa through muscular layers at points of weaknesses of the bowel wall is known as

a)

diverticulosis

b)

ulcerative colitis

c)

Crohn’s colitis

d)

volvulus

26.

A common disorder of intestinal motor activity in which fluid and gas do not progress normally even when the bowel is not obstructed is called

a)

regional enteritis

b)

adynamic ileus

c)

intussusception

d)

ischemic colitis

27.

What is volvulus?

a)

A twisting of the bowel on itself.

b)

A type of inflammatory bowel disease of unknown cause, with an associated psychogenic element.

c)

Acquired herniation of the mucosa and submucosa of the intestinal wall.

d)

The telescoping of one part of the intestinal tract into another.

28.

Which type of diverticulum arises from the posterior wall of the cervical esophagus?

a)

Traction.

b)

Pulsion.

c)

Zenker’s.

d)

Epiphrenic.

29.

Failure of the esophageal lumen to separate esophagus from the trachea is termed

a)

tracheo-esophageal fistula

b)

achalasia

c)

Barrett’s esophagus

d)

hiatal hernia

30.

Deterioration of the myelin sheath is a characteristic abnormality of

a)

meningitis

b)

neoplasm

c)

osteomyelitis

d)

multiple sclerosis

31.

The inner protective layer of the central nervous system is composed of three layers. The tough, outermost covering is called the

a)

dura mater

b)

arachnoid membrane

c)

pia mater

d)

myelin sheath

32.

The ventricles of the brain are filled with

a)

air

b)

cerebrospinal fluid

c)

blood

d)

lymph

33.

Where is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) formed?

a)

In the meninges.

b)

In the diploë of the skull.

c)

In the corpus callosum.

d)

In the choroid plexus.

34.

An acute inflammation of the pia mater and arachnoid is called

a)

encephalitis

b)

meningitis

c)

subdural empyema

d)

supradural empyema

35.

What is the most common primary malignant brain tumor?

a)

Dendroma.

b)

Glioma.

c)

Acoustic neuroma.

d)

Meningioma.

36.

Which of the following is a slow-growing, benign tumor that occurs on the vestibulocochlear nerve?

a)

Acoustic neuroma.

b)

Pineal tumor.

c)

Glioblastoma.

d)

Oligodendrocytoma.

37.

What is the most common facial bone fracture?

a)

Maxillae.

b)

Nasal bones.

c)

Zygoma.

d)

Mandible.

38.

Which of the following facial fractures is usually caused by a direct blow to the orbit?

a)

Stellate fracture.

b)

Le Fort fracture.

c)

Blow-out fracture.

d)

Quad fracture.

39.

A focal neurologic defect that completely resolves within 24 hours is known as a

a)

stroke

b)

AVM

c)

aneurysm

d)

transient ischemic attack (TIA)

40.

A rupture of a berry aneurysm is a major cause of

a)

Huntington’s disease

b)

Alzheimer’s

c)

subarachnoid hemorrhage

d)

TIA

41.

A condition in which brain impulses are disturbed and that causes symptoms ranging from loss of consciousness to violent seizures is

a)

Huntington’s disease

b)

epilepsy

c)

Parkinson’s disease

d)

multiple sclerosis

42.

Which of the following degenerative neurologic diseases causes widespread selective atrophy and loss of motor nerves that eventually leads to paralysis and death?

a)

Parkinson’s disease.

b)

Normal aging.

c)

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig Disease).

d)

Alzheimer’s.

43.

Viral inflammation of the brain is termed

a)

encephalitis

b)

meningitis

c)

brain abscess

d)

subdural empyema

44.

Which type of skull fracture can cause separation of the suture?

a)

Diastatic.

b)

Le Fort.

c)

Stellate.

d)

Depressed.

45.

A biconcave, disk-shaped blood cell without a nucleus that contains hemoglobin is a(n)

a)

erythrocyte

b)

monocyte

c)

thrombocyte

d)

leukocytes

46.

Which of the following cells are essential for clotting?

a)

Erythrocytes.

b)

Leukocytes.

c)

Basophils.

d)

Platelets.

47.

A decrease in the amount of oxygen-carrying hemoglobin in the blood is termed

a)

spherocytosis

b)

anemia

c)

polycythemia

d)

leukemia

48.

Which type of hemolytic anemia is generally confined to African-Americans?

a)

Spherocytosis.

b)

Sickle cell anemia.

c)

Thalassemia.

d)

None of the hemolytic anemias occur mostly in the African-American population.

49.

A neoplastic proliferation of white blood cells is termed

a)

leukemia

b)

polycythemia

c)

lymphoma

d)

mononucleosis

50.

An inherited anomaly in blood coagulation that appears clinically only in males is termed

a)

leukemia

b)

hemophilia

c)

polycythemia

d)

mononucleosis

51.

Where are white blood cells produced?

a)

Red bone marrow only.

b)

Yellow bone marrow only.

c)

Red bone marrow and lymphoid tissue.

d)

Yellow bone marrow and lymphoid tissue.

52.

Which group of steroid hormones regulates salt and water balance?

a)

Androgens.

b)

Glucocorticoids.

c)

Mineralocorticoids.

d)

Epinephrines.

53.

Which group of steroid hormones is sex hormones that tend to masculinize the body, to retain amino acids, and to enhance protein synthesis?

a)

Norepinephrines.

b)

Mineralocorticoids.

c)

Glucocorticoids.

d)

Androgens.

54.

Which hormones are known as “fight or flight” hormones?

a)

Epinephrine and norepinephrine.

b)

Aldosterone and cortisone.

c)

Cortisone and epinephrine.

d)

Renin and norepinephrine.

55.

Cushing’s syndrome is caused by

a)

an excess of glucocorticoid hormones

b)

an insufficiency of glucocorticoid hormones

c)

an excess of androgen hormones

d)

an insufficiency of androgen hormones

56.

The posterior lobe of the pituitary produces

a)

ollicle-stimulating hormones (FSH)

b)

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

c)

thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

d)

vasopressin and oxytocin

57.

If hyperpituitarism occurs in a person whose bone growth is still active, then _____ results.

a)

gigantism

b)

acromegaly

c)

prognathism

d)

goiter

58.

Hypopituitarism in children causes a type of

a)

attention deficit disorder

b)

dwarfism

c)

Graves’ disease

d)

arthritis

59.

Hypothyroidism dating from birth causes

a)

dwarfism

b)

diabetes mellitus

c)

cretinism

d)

gigantism

60.

Failure of the pancreas to secrete insulin or a failure of target organs to respond to this hormone causes

a)

diabetes mellitus

b)

diabetes insipidus

c)

Graves’ disease

d)

Cushing’s syndrome