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Rad Path Chapter 5 GI System

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following are signs/symptoms of esophageal atresia?
a)
Salivation
b)
Choking
c)
Cyanosis
d)
All of the above
2.
Which of the following is the most common type of bowel atresia?
a)
Duodenal atresia
b)
Jejunal atresia
c)
Ileal atresia
d)
Colonic atresia
3.
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) is classified as a(n) _____ condition of the GI system.
a)
congenital
b)
degenerative
c)
inflammatory
d)
neurologic
4.
When imaging an infant with suspected malrotation, a(n) _____ examination should be performed and is considered the gold standard.
a)
transabdominal ultrasound
b)
small bowel follow-through
c)
upper GI
d)
contrast-enhanced CT
5.
If left untreated, Hirschsprung disease can progress to:
a)
bacterial overgrowth.
b)
colonic distention.
c)
electrolyte imbalances.
d)
all of the above.
6.
In the condition of carbohydrate intolerance, the small bowel lacks enough of the enzyme:
a)
lactase.
b)
lipase.
c)
amylase.
d)
lactose.
7.
Currently, _____ is the most accurate imaging examination for evaluating patients who do not have a clear clinical diagnosis of acute appendicitis.
a)
abdominal radiography
b)
computed tomography (CT)
c)
magnetic resonance enterography (MRE)
d)
colonoscopy
8.
A less common type of hiatal hernia is the _____ type.
a)
A. rolling
b)
B. sliding
c)
C. paraesophageal
d)
D. both a and c
9.
Abdominal radiography is of limited value in cases of diverticulitis unless diagnosing for suspected complications of:
a)
A. pneumoperitoneum.
b)
B. obstruction.
c)
C. both a and c.
d)
D. none of the above.
10.
Colorectal cancers are the _____ most common gastrointestinal cancer in the United States.
a)
A. first
b)
B. second
c)
C. third
d)
D. none of the above
11.
Which of the following is currently the standard imaging procedure for staging superficial rectal carcinomas?
a)
Virtual colonoscopy acquired by computed tomography (CT)
b)
Magnetic resonance colonography (MRC)
c)
Digital rectal examination
d)
Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS)
12.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of ultrasound over other imaging modalities in evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract?
a)
Ultrasound provides the opportunity to biopsy during the sonographic procedure.
b)
The examination sensitivity is not highly dependent on the skill of the sonographer.
c)
Abdominal sonographic investigation is very effective in the obese population.
d)
All of the above statements are true.
13.
Which of the following nuclear medicine procedures is performed to detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori in patients with a suspected gastric ulcer?
a)
GI bleed scans
b)
Gastric emptying scans
c)
Urea breath test
d)
SPECT gastric imaging
14.
Which types of esophageal diverticula are located at the pharyngoesophageal junction at the upper-lateral aspect of the esophagus?
1. Epiphrenic
2. Killian-Jameson
3. Zenker
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2, and 3
15.
The "olive sign" is associated with what pathologic process?
a)
Appendicitis
b)
Esophageal varices
c)
Hypertrophied pyloric stenosis
d)
Leiomyoma
16.
Which of the statements are true in reference to a mechanical bowel obstruction?
1. It occurs from a blockage of the bowel lumen.
2. It may be caused by a herniation of the bowel.
3. It may be caused by a lumen-obliteration gastrointestingal tumor.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2, and 3
17.
Radiographically, Crohn disease can be differentiated from ulcerative colitis because:
a)
A. the transmural inflammation penetrates all layer of the bowel wall in Crohn disease.
b)
B. Crohn disease is limited to the mucosal and submucosal layers of the bowel wall.
c)
C. the retrograde involvement in Crohn disease rarely reaches past the terminal ileum.
d)
both b and c are .
18.
Which of the following magnetic resonance imaging techniques are used to visualize abdominal organs to differentiate pathologic processes from normal tissue?
T1-weighted images
2. T2-weighted images
3. Dark lumen imaging using water as a negative contrast agent
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2, and 3
19.
Sonography has become a standard and highly accurate method for diagnosing hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) without the need for radiation exposure.
a)
True
b)
False
20.
Hirschsprung disease is an absence of neurons in the bowel wall, typically in the descending colon.
a)
True
b)
False
21.
A Meckel diverticulum is a remnant of a duct connecting the small bowel to the umbilicus in the fetus.
a)
True
b)
False
22.
Diagnosis of gluten-sensitive enteropathy is rarely confirmed by biopsy of the small bowel.
a)
True
b)
False
23.
A peptic ulcer is an erosion of the mucous membrane of the lower end of the esophagus, stomach, or duodenum.
a)
True
b)
False
24.
Esophageal varices are best demonstrated in an upright position because the lack of gravity in a recumbent position causes poor visualization.
a)
True
b)
False
25.
A gallstone ileus is an obstruction that occurs when a gallstone reaches the ileocecal valve.
a)
True
b)
False
26.
Benign tumors of the esophagus are almost always leiomyomas.
a)
True
b)
False
27.
Small bowel barium studies are the most common means of identifying small-bowel neoplasms.
a)
True
b)
False
28.
A strangulated hernia occurs when a loop of bowel passes through a constricted area that is tight enough to cut off blood supply to the bowel.
a)
True
b)
False
29.
Treatment for regional enteritis includes bowel resection in approximately 70% of cases, particularly if perforation or hemorrhage is present.
a)
True
b)
False
30.
A category 2 risk of colon cancer is defined as a high risk; it includes hereditary syndromes such as hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) and familial polyposis, or patients with a personal history of ulcerative colitis or Crohn disease.
a)
True
b)
False
31.
What two biliary ducts unite to form the common bile duct?
a)
Right and left hepatic ducts
b)
Cystic and common hepatic ducts
c)
Common hepatic and right hepatic ducts
d)
Common hepatic and main pancreatic ducts
32.
Which hormone stimulates the release of bile into the duodenum?
a)
Cholecystokinin
b)
Estrogen
c)
Testosterone
d)
Cortisol
33.
What are the specialized cells found in the endocrine portion of the pancreas?
a)
Haversian canals
b)
Nephrons
c)
Islets of Langerhans
d)
Osteoblasts
34.
Which radiographic procedure involves the insertion of a needle into the biliary tree by puncture through the abdominal wall?
a)
ERCP
b)
T-tube cholangiogram
c)
OR cholangiogram
d)
PTC
35.
Which imaging modality has almost 100% accuracy for the detection of cholelithiasis?
a)
Radiography
b)
Computed tomography
c)
Sonography
d)
Nuclear medicine
36.
The radiographic appearance of a porcelain gallbladder is often an indication of:
a)
biliary obstruction
b)
liver cirrhosis
c)
gallbladder carcinoma
d)
jaundice
37.
If a patient has hepatitis B, he or she is suffering from a(n) _____ condition.
a)
airborne
b)
bacterial
c)
traction
d)
viral
38.
The yellowish skin discoloration of jaundice is a result of:
a)
accumulation of milk calcium in the gallbladder
b)
infected fecal matter transmitted by direct contact
c)
the presence of bilirubin in the bloodstream
d)
paralysis of the small intestine
39.
Which enzyme begins to autodigest the pancreas with pancreatitis?
a)
CCK
b)
Pepsin
c)
Trypsin
d)
Glutin
40.
Which of the following statements are true regarding cholelithiasis?
A. It may cause cholecystitis.
B. It is more common in women who have given birth to children.
C. Most stones are radiopaque.
a)
A and B
b)
A and C
c)
B and C
d)
A, B, and C
41.
A malignant liver tumor is a(n):
a)
hepatitis
b)
hemangioma
c)
hepatoma
d)
jaundice
42.
The noninvasive modality of choice for visualization of gallbladder diseases that does not use ionizing radiation is:
a)
computed tomography
b)
magnetic resonance imaging
c)
nuclear medicine
d)
sonography
43.
This condition in which a gallstone erodes from the gallbladder and creates a fistula to the small bowel is:
a)
gallstone ileus
b)
incarcerated hernia
c)
volvulus
d)
intussusception
44.
Recurring cholecystitis may cause the gallbladder walls to become weak and thin.
a)
True
b)
False
45.
What is the function of beta cells found in the pancreas?
a)
Production of insulin
b)
Production of glucagon
c)
Production of cholecystokinin
d)
Production of lipase
46.
Which of the following is not a reason for the presence of gas in the biliary tree?
a)
Gallstone ileus
b)
Spontaneous fistula
c)
Cholelithiasis
d)
Postoperative biliary anastomosis
47.
What pathologic condition is caused by hepatocellular dysfunction?
a)
Pancreatitis
b)
Hepatitis
c)
Surgical jaundice
d)
Medical jaundice
48.
What imaging procedure visualizes the biliary tree and main pancreatic duct with a fiberoptic endoscope passed through the duodenum?
a)
PTC
b)
ERCP
c)
OCG
d)
T-tube cholangiogram
49.
What imaging modality provides a noninvasive method of evaluating hepatic function as well as hepatic and splenic perfusion?
a)
Single photon emission computed tomography
b)
Sonography
c)
Spiral computed tomography
d)
Magnetic resonance imaging
50.
What is a chronic liver condition in which the liver parenchyma is destroyed, fibrous tissue is deposited, and regenerative nodules are formed?
a)
Hepatitis
b)
Fatty liver infiltrates
c)
Cirrhosis
d)
Ascites
51.
Which of the following may be caused by cirrhosis?
A. impaired liver function
B. portal hypertension
C. ascites
a)
A only
b)
A and B only
c)
B and C
d)
A, B, and C
52.
Individuals with cirrhosis have an increased risk of developing which of the following?
a)
Hepatic carcinoma
b)
Gallstone ileus
c)
Porcelain gallbladder
d)
Cholecystitis
53.
What term describes a fluid collection within the pancreas as a result of pancreatitis?
a)
Ascites
b)
Ileus
c)
Pseudocyst
d)
Hemangioma
54.
Which palliative procedure involves placement of a shunt to divert the pressure caused by portal hypertension?
a)
T-tube cholangiography
b)
TIPS
c)
ERCP
d)
PTC
55.
What is the most contagious form of hepatitis and is located in excreted fecal material?
a)
Hepatitis A
b)
Hepatitis B
c)
Hepatitis C
d)
Hepatitis D
56.
How is viral hepatitis usually diagnosed?
a)
Clinical examination
b)
Abdomen radiograph
c)
Laboratory tests
d)
ERCP
57.
Which of the following is not a major sonographic criterion when imaging gallstones?
a)
Echogenic focus
b)
Acoustic shadowing below the stone(s)
c)
Gravitational dependence
d)
Radiopaque shadowing
58.
What type of benign liver tumor is linked to the usage of oral contraceptives?
a)
Hepatocellular adenoma
b)
Hemangioma
c)
Hepatoma
d)
Hepatocellular carcinoma
59.
What is the most commonly occurring liver tumor?
a)
Hepatocellular adenoma
b)
Hemangioma
c)
Hepatoma
d)
Hepatocellular carcinoma
60.
Signs or symptoms associated with hepatocellular carcinoma include:
a)
RUQ pain
b)
increased jaundice
c)
hepatomegaly
d)
all of the above are signs and/or symptoms of hepatocellular carcinoma
61.
Primary liver lesions are much more common than metastatic liver lesions.
a)
True
b)
False
62.
A porcelain gallbladder can be a precursor to gallbladder carcinoma.
a)
True
b)
False
63.
What is the fifth most common cause of cancer death in the United States and has a 5-year survival rate of 2%?
a)
Liver cancer
b)
Gallbladder cancer
c)
Stomach cancer
d)
Pancreatic cancer
64.
Fatty infiltrates require what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
65.
Ascites requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
66.
Calcium cholelithiasis requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
67.
A hemangioma requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
68.
Cholecystitis requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
69.
Metastatic disease of the liver requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
70.
Pancreatitis requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change