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WorksheetsPathology Midterm Review Chapters 1-5
Total questions: 204
Worksheet time: 2hrs 42mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What anatomic structure adheres directly to lung tissue?
a)
Alveoli
b)
Parietal pleura
c)
Visceral pleura
d)
Epithelium
2.
What diagnostic examination is most frequently performed in the radiology department?
a)
Chest radiography
b)
CT of the head
c)
Upper GI
d)
Nuclear medicine perfusion and ventilation scan
3.
Which sets of paranasal sinuses are present at birth? 1. Maxillary 2. Frontal 3. Ethmoid 4. Spenoid
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2, 3, and 4
4.
To decrease patient dose while performing computed chest radiography, which technical factors can be increased?
a)
kVp
b)
mA
c)
Exposure time
d)
Focal spot size
12.
To evaluate a pleural effusion in the left lung, which decubitus position is required?
a)
Left lateral
b)
Right lateral
c)
Ventral
d)
Dorsal
11.
Which of the following patient positioning factors assists in increasing the size of the cardiac shadow?
a)
PA projection
b)
AP projection
c)
72? SID
d)
Erect position
13.
What is a common complaint of radiologists when reading chest radiographs?
a)
Poor inspiration
b)
Presence of pathology
c)
Presence of exposure artifacts
d)
Poor exposure technique
14.
What chest position or projection will best demonstrate pectus excavatum?
a)
PA
b)
Left lateral
c)
Left lateral decubitus
d)
AP lordotic
15.
What chest position may better visualize TB, which has a predilection for the apices of the lungs?
a)
PA
b)
Left lateral
c)
RAO
d)
AP lordotic
16.
What anatomic structure presents radiographically as a "sail sign"?
a)
Thyroid gland
b)
Cardiac shadow
c)
Thymus gland
d)
Mediastinum
11.
Which of the following patient positioning factors assists in increasing the size of the cardiac shadow?
a)
PA projection
b)
AP projection
c)
72? SID
d)
Erect position
12.
To evaluate a pleural effusion in the left lung, which decubitus position is required?
a)
Left lateral
b)
Right lateral
c)
Ventral
d)
Dorsal
13.
What is a common complaint of radiologists when reading chest radiographs?
a)
Poor inspiration
b)
Presence of pathology
c)
Presence of exposure artifacts
d)
Poor exposure technique
14.
What chest position or projection will best demonstrate pectus excavatum?
a)
PA
b)
Left lateral
c)
Left lateral decubitus
d)
AP lordotic
15.
What chest position may better visualize TB, which has a predilection for the apices of the lungs?
a)
PA
b)
Left lateral
c)
RAO
d)
AP lordotic
16.
What anatomic structure presents radiographically as a "sail sign"?
a)
Thyroid gland
b)
Cardiac shadow
c)
Thymus gland
d)
Mediastinum
17.
What pathologic condition occurs as a result of a disruption in the esophagus or trachea and air becoming trapped in the mediastinum?
a)
Mediastinal emphysema
b)
Pneumothorax
c)
Pneumonia
d)
Atelectasis
18.
Which imaging modality is preferred when evaluating pulmonary adenopathy?
a)
Radiography
b)
CT
c)
MRI
d)
Nuclear medicine
19.
Which imaging modality can distinguish between benign and malignant pulmonary lesions because it captures information regarding metabolic activity?
a)
Radiography
b)
CT
c)
MRI
d)
Nuclear medicine
20.
What type of tube would be inserted into a patient with a hemothorax?
a)
Endotracheal tube
b)
Chest tube
c)
Central venous pressure line
d)
Hickman catheter
21.
Diagnosis and management of heart failure, resulting from myocardial infarction and cardiogenic shock, represent the most common use of what type of catheter?
a)
Endotracheal tube
b)
Central venous pressure line
c)
Hickman catheter
d)
Swan-Ganz catheter
22.
What term denotes the inability to move air into and out of the lungs, with increased blood carbon dioxide content?
a)
Respiratory failure
b)
Hypoxemia
c)
Hypercapnia
d)
Pneumonia
23.
What is not a common cause of respiratory failure?
a)
Obstructed airway
b)
Tachypnea
c)
Hypoventilation
d)
Congenital heart defect
24.
Cystic fibrosis is classified as a(n) _____ disorder.
a)
Hereditary
b)
Inflammatory
c)
Neoplastic
d)
Traumatic
25.
What is deficient in the premature infant affected by hyaline membrane disease?
a)
Vitamin D
b)
Vitamin K
c)
Calcium
d)
Surfactant
26.
What chest pathology radiographically demonstrates an air-bronchogram sign?
a)
Pneumonia
b)
Cystic fibrosis
c)
Hyaline membrane disease
d)
Tuberculosis
27.
What is the most common lethal genetic disease for white children?
a)
Cystic fibrosis
b)
Leukemia
c)
Glioma
d)
Myocardial infarction
28.
What is the most common bacterial pneumonia?
a)
Aspiration pneumonia
b)
Mycoplasma pneumonia
c)
Pneumococcal (lobar) pneumonia
d)
Streptococcal pneumonia
29.
What type of pneumonia is frequently caused by influenza?
a)
Pneumococcal pneumonia
b)
Streptococcal pneumonia
c)
Staphylococcal pneumonia
d)
Viral (interstitial) pneumonia
30.
In severe cases, what type of pneumonia may mimic the radiographic appearance of TB?
a)
Streptococcal pneumonia
b)
Legionnaire?s disease
c)
Aspiration pneumonia
d)
Mycoplasma pneumonia
31.
What pathologic condition is a permanent, abnormal dilatation of one or more large bronchi as a result of destruction of the elastic and muscular components of the bronchial wall?
a)
Pneumonia
b)
Bronchiectasis
c)
Tuberculosis
d)
Bronchitis
32.
What is the primary method of diagnosing pulmonary tuberculosis?
a)
Chest radiography
b)
CT scan
c)
Bronchoscopy
d)
Intradermal Mantoux test
33.
The condition in which pus accumulates in the pleural space is termed:
a)
atelectasis
b)
empyema
c)
emphysema
d)
infiltration
34.
A(n) _____ tube is inserted through nose or mouth into the trachea and used to manage the patient's airway.
a)
chest tube
b)
Swan-Ganz catheter
c)
Hickman catheter
d)
endotracheal tube (ET)
35.
Hyperinflation or the overdistention of alveoli with air is called:
a)
atelectasis
b)
bronchiectasis
c)
emphysema
d)
pneumothorax
36.
An inflammation of the pleura that is not visible on radiographs is:
a)
pleura effusion
b)
pleurisy
c)
lung abscess
d)
none of the above
37.
What term is associated with TB when the bloodstream picks up the TB bacteria and carries it throughout the body?
a)
Bronchiectasis
b)
Bronchitis
c)
Miliary
d)
Military
39.
The most common pathologies associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are:
a)
pneumonia and bronchitis
b)
chronic bronchitis and emphysema
c)
emphysema and asthma
d)
chronic bronchitis and asthma
39.
The most common pathologies associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are:
a)
pneumonia and bronchitis
b)
chronic bronchitis and emphysema
c)
emphysema and asthma
d)
chronic bronchitis and asthma
40.
The predominant risk factor associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is:
a)
family history
b)
history of frequent pneumonias
c)
smoking
d)
air pollution
41.
What pathology presents radiographically as a depressed or flattened diaphragm, abnormally radiolucent lungs, and increased retrosternal air spaces?
a)
Emphysema
b)
Empyema
c)
Pneumonia
d)
Bronchitis
42.
Which of the following is not a primary type of pneumoconiosis?
a)
Silicosis
b)
Anthracosis
c)
Histoplasmosis
d)
Asbestosis
43.
What type of fungal infection is endemic to the Ohio and Mississippi River valleys?
a)
Silicosis
b)
Histoplasmosis
c)
Coccidioidomycosis
d)
Sarcoidosis
44.
A solitary radiopaque lung nodule consistent with bronchogenic carcinomas is a:
a)
coin lesion
b)
sail sign
c)
exudate
d)
transudate
45.
What is the procedure performed under sonographic guidance that removes excess fluids from the pleural cavity?
a)
Bronchoscopy
b)
Bronchography
c)
Thoracocentesis
d)
Paracentesis
46.
Which of the following is not a method of pulmonary metastases?
a)
Direct implantation from biopsy or surgery
b)
Hematogenous metastases
c)
Bronchogenic metastases
d)
Airborne droplets
47.
The prognosis for patients diagnosed with bronchogenic carcinomas is excellent.
a)
TRUE
b)
False
48.
Cystic fibrosis requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
49.
Sinusitis requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
62.
Emphysema requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
63.
Pleurisy requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
65.
Hyaline membrane disease requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
66.
COPD requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
67.
Pleural effusion requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
69.
Cystic fibrosis requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
70.
Sinusitis requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
71.
Emphysema requires what type of technical factor change?,Increase,Decrease ,No change,,2,
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
72.
Hyaline membrane disease requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
73.
Pleurisy requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
74.
Pneumonia requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
75.
COPD requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
62.
Emphysema requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
63.
Pleurisy requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
64.
Pneumonia requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
65.
Hyaline membrane disease requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
66.
COPD requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
67.
Pleural effusion requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
68.
The prognosis for patients diagnosed with bronchogenic carcinomas is excellent.
a)
True
b)
False
69.
Cystic fibrosis requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
70.
Sinusitis requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
71.
Emphysema requires what type of technical factor change?,Increase,Decrease ,No change,,2,
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
72.
Hyaline membrane disease requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
73.
Pleurisy requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
74.
Pneumonia requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
75.
COPD requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
76.
Pleural effusion requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No Change
127.
Text of the question (required)
a)
Text for option 1 (required)
b)
Text for option 2 (required)
c)
Text for option 3 (optional)
d)
Text for option 4 (optional)
128.
What anatomic structure is responsible for the production of erythrocytes and leukocytes?
a)
Osteoblasts
b)
Osteoclasts
c)
Red bone marrow Correct
d)
Yellow bone marrow
79.
What portion of a long bone is considered the primary site of ossification?
a)
Epiphysis
b)
Diaphysis Correct
c)
Metaphysic
d)
Medullary canal
80.
Periosteum encloses all of the bone and joint surfaces and provides a blood supply to underlying bone.
a)
True
b)
False Correct
81.
Diplo� is specific to cancellous bone located in what anatomic structure?
a)
Femur
b)
Humerus
c)
Sternum
d)
Skull Correct
82.
What pathologic condition is a fairly common form of osteosclerotic osteoporosis?
a)
Achondroplasia
b)
Osteopetrosis
c)
Osteomalacia
d)
Albers-Sch�nberg disease Correct
83.
The most common primary site(s) for metastatic bone cancer is(are) the: A. breast, B. lung, C. brain
a)
A only
b)
A and B Correct
c)
A and C
d)
A, B, and C
84.
Evidence of periosteal response is a characteristic of what type of bone cancer?
a)
Primary Correct
b)
Secondary
85.
Lesions shorter than 10 cm are characteristic of what type of bone cancer?
a)
Primary
b)
Secondary Correct
86.
A solitary lesion is a characteristic of what type of bone cancer?
a)
Primary Correct
b)
Secondary
87.
Evidence of soft tissue masses are characteristic of what type of bone cancer?
a)
Primary Correct
b)
Secondary
88.
The bony structure most commonly encountering metastases from primary neoplasms is:
a)
femur
b)
vertebral column Correct
c)
skull
d)
pelvis
89.
The majority of metastases are _____ in nature and often detected by CT.
a)
osteolytic Correct
b)
osteoblastic
c)
osteoclastic
d)
all of the above
90.
The modality of choice for demonstrating vertebral fractures or other bony anomalies is:
a)
radiography
b)
CT Correct
c)
MRI
d)
nuclear medicine
91.
Spondylolysis is a result of a cleft or defect in the vertebral:
a)
pedicle
b)
lamina
c)
spinous process
d)
pars interarticularis Correct
92.
The condition that causes a forward slippage of the vertebral column off a vertebra because of spondylolysis is known as:
a)
kyphosis
b)
lordosis
c)
spondylolisthesis Correct
d)
herniated nucleus pulposis (HNP)
93.
A common radiographic finding with patients suffering from whiplash is:
a)
narrowed disk spaces
b)
loss of lordosis Correct
c)
subluxation
d)
erosion of vertebral body
94.
The most common imaging modality to assess lower back pain is:
a)
radiography Correct
b)
CT
c)
MRI
d)
nuclear medicine
95.
The type of arthritis that is triggered when an immunogenetically susceptible host is exposed to an arthritogenic antigen is:
a)
pyogenic arthritis
b)
rheumatoid arthritis Correct
c)
juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
d)
all of the above
96.
Which of the following radiographic projections of the spine will decrease dose to the breasts and thyroid gland?
a)
AP
b)
PA Correct
c)
Right lateral
d)
Left lateral
97.
Up to 80% of all scolioses are:
a)
congenital
b)
iatrogenic
c)
traumatic
d)
idiopathic Correct
98.
Which disease is congenital?
a)
Pott?s disease
b)
Osteoporosis
c)
Paget?s disease
d)
Osteogenesis imperfecta Correct
99.
Osteogenesis imperfecta tarda is present at birth.
a)
True
b)
False Correct
100.
The most commonly inherited disorder affecting the skeletal system is:
a)
endochondroma
b)
osteogenesis imperfecta
c)
achondroplasia Correct
d)
syndactyly
101.
Which of the following neoplastic diseases has the radiographic appearance of a "soap bubble"?
a)
Giant cell tumor (GCT) Correct
b)
Osteosarcoma
c)
Ewing?s sarcoma
d)
Chondrosarcoma
102.
Which of the following neoplasms has the radiographic appearance of a well-circumscribed, small radiolucent area containing a nidus?
a)
Giant cell tumor (GCT)
b)
Osteosarcoma
c)
Chondrosarcoma
d)
Osteoid osteoma Correct
103.
Which imaging modality plays a key role in the primary diagnosis of neoplasms of the skeletal system?
a)
Radiography
b)
Computed tomography (CT) Correct
c)
Magnetic resonance (MR)
d)
Nuclear medicine
104.
An osteoma would most commonly be found on the:
a)
humerus
b)
femur
c)
skull Correct
d)
vertebrae
105.
Being generally larger than 2 cm in dimension is a characteristic of which neoplasm?
a)
Osteoid osteoma
b)
Osteoblastoma Correct
106.
This neoplasm frequently involves the spine.
a)
Osteoid osteoma
b)
Osteoblastoma Correct
107.
This neoplasm involves a nidus.
a)
Osteoid osteoma Correct
b)
Osteoblastoma
108.
Osteogenesis imperfecta requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease Correct
c)
No change
109.
Ankylosing spondylitis requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase Correct
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
110.
Osteoarthritis requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease Correct
c)
No change
111.
Tenosynovitis requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change Correct
112.
Osteosarcoma requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase Correct
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
113.
Osteoid osteoma requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease Correct
c)
No change
114.
Osteochondroma requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase Correct
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
115.
Acromegaly requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change Correct
116.
Osteopetrosis requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase Correct
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
117.
Anencephaly requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change Correct
118.
Simple bone cyst requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease Correct
c)
No change
119.
This type of arthritis may be caused by streptococci, staphylococci, or gonococci.
a)
Acute arthritis Correct
b)
Rheumatoid arthritis
c)
Both types
120.
This type of arthritis generally occurs between 30 and 40 years of age.
a)
Acute arthritis
b)
Rheumatoid arthritis Correct
c)
Both types
121.
This type of arthritis may include clinical symptoms of pain and swelling of the joint.
a)
Acute arthritis
b)
Rheumatoid arthritis
c)
Both types Correct
122.
This type of arthritis may involve joint ankylosis.
a)
Acute arthritis
b)
Rheumatoid arthritis
c)
Both types Correct
123.
This type of arthritis typically begins in peripheral joints.
a)
Acute arthritis
b)
Rheumatoid arthritis Correct
c)
Both types
124.
This type of arthritis includes the presence of autoantibody against gamma globulin.
a)
Acute arthritis
b)
Rheumatoid arthritis Correct
c)
Both types
125.
This type of arthritis may be classified as a degenerative disease.
a)
Acute arthritis
b)
Rheumatoid arthritis
c)
Both types Correct
126.
This type of arthritis may occur when an organism may spread from a bone infected with osteomyelitis.
a)
Acute arthritis Correct
b)
Rheumatoid arthritis
c)
Both types
127.
Text of the question (required)
a)
Text for option 1 (required)
b)
Text for option 2 (required)
c)
Text for option 3 (optional)
d)
Text for option 4 (optional)
128.
What anatomic structure is responsible for the production of erythrocytes and leukocytes?
a)
Osteoblasts
b)
Osteoclasts
c)
Red bone marrow Correct
d)
Yellow bone marrow
129.
Screening mammography images include
a)
AP and lateral projections
b)
craniocaudal and mediolateral oblique projections
c)
craniocaudal and mediolateral projectio
d)
craniocaudal, mediolateral oblique, and mediolateral projection
130.
In US, the transducer
a)
A. records the changes in signal pitch and direction
b)
B. Is made of tungsten
c)
C. Produces high-frequency sound waves
d)
A and C
131.
Cross-sectional images projected by high-frequency sound waves is the modality known as
a)
US
b)
CT
c)
SPECT
d)
MRI
132.
Tissue that is echo free or lacking in signal is
a)
Anechoic
b)
Echogenic
c)
Hyperechoic
d)
Isoechoic
133.
The CT number represents the
a)
Attenuation of specific tissue relative to water
b)
Signal intensi
c)
Tissue echogenicity
d)
Radionuclide concen
134.
High-resolution CT
a)
requires a section thickness of 5 to 10 mm
b)
Requires thin section slices 1.5 to 2 mm
c)
decreases resol
d)
Increases volume artifact
135.
In CT the images that demonstrate the inside of a structure through reconstruction are called
a)
Attenuation of specific tissue relative to water
b)
Signal intensity
c)
Virtual reality
d)
Minimum intensity projection
136.
The time it takes to play out the entire set of RF pulses before repeating is
a)
Repetiton time
b)
Echo time
c)
RF Pulsing
d)
A T1-weighted image
137.
The modality of choice for the spine and central nervous system us
a)
US
b)
CT
c)
MRI
d)
SPECT
138.
On MRI, blood flow is described as a
a)
signal void
b)
high intensity signal
c)
low signal inten
d)
bright reflection
139.
Tissue suppression in MRI
a)
1. Creates a greater difference in tissue contrast
b)
2. Is used in the neck, abdomen, and pelvis
c)
3. Helps to differentiate tumor from normal tissue
d)
4. 1, 2, and 3
140.
Molecular movement and random thermal motion are what _____MR images rely on to produce an image.
a)
diffusion
b)
fat-suppressed
c)
functional
d)
spectroscopic
141.
Gamma radiation detected by a gamma camera is emitted by
a)
gadolinium chelates
b)
iodinated contrast agents
c)
radiopharmaceuticals
d)
non-ionic contrast agents
142.
In the gamma camera, when the gamma rays interact with the crystals, they produce
a)
electromagnetic frequenc
b)
light
c)
Radiation
d)
Soundwaves
143.
The advantage of NM is this
a)
A physiologic map is produced
b)
An anatomic map is produced
c)
Earlier detection of a disease process is produced in comparison with plan radiographs
d)
More than one but not all of these answers
144.
the major difference between SPECT and NM procedures is that
a)
NM produces a 3D image, whereas SPECT does not
b)
SPECT cameras rotate independently around the patient, whereas the NM camera is stationar
c)
NM uses radio pharmaceuticals that produce higher doses than those used in SPECT
d)
There are no differences between NM scans and SPECT scans
145.
in PET scanning, the radiopharmaceutical produces
a)
a neutron
b)
a positron
c)
an electron
d)
an x-ray
146.
The modality that best demonstrates treatment results and is the most effective to illustrate recurring tumor growth is
a)
MRI
b)
SPECT
c)
NM
d)
PET
147.
The modality that has been found to best demonstrate the physiologic changes in Alzheimer's disease is
a)
MRI
b)
SPECT
c)
CT
d)
PET
148.
The imaging modality that best demonstrates molecular physiologic and anatomic relationships is
a)
fusion imaging
b)
PET
c)
CT
d)
SPECT
149.
The name of the condition when waste products are allowed to build up in the blood is:
a)
Anuria
b)
Uremia
c)
Pyuria
d)
Hematuria
150.
Urine production takes place in the:
a)
Nephrons
b)
Bladder
c)
Ureter
d)
Renal pelvis
151.
The renal blood vessel enter and leave the kidney at the:
a)
Cortex
b)
Renal papilla
c)
Medulla
d)
Hilum
152.
The renal papilla empties urine into the:
a)
Renal pelvis
b)
Calyx
c)
Nephron
d)
Ureter
153.
The correct order for the renal tubules is:
a)
Proximal convoluted tubule, collecting duct, distal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle
b)
Distal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, proximal convoluted tubule, collecting duct
c)
Proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, collecting duct
d)
Collecting duct, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule
154.
In hemostasis, the kidney regulates the:
a)
Level of electrolytes
b)
Amount of water in the body
c)
pH
d)
All of the above
155.
Which stage of urine production involves returning water, nutrients, and electrolytes to the bloodstream?
a)
Filteration
b)
Excretion
c)
Secretion
d)
Reabsorption
156.
Which stage of urine production involves adding ammonia, uric acid, and other waste substances directly into the renal tubule?
a)
Reabsorption
b)
Filteration
c)
Secretion
d)
Excretion
157.
Which finding would you expect in a normal urinalysis?
a)
Trace amounts of protein
b)
Cloudy appearance
c)
Trace levels of ketones
d)
A few red blood cells
158.
The presence of ketones in the urine may indicate:
a)
Diabetes
b)
Kidney infection
c)
Anemia
d)
Renal failure
159.
A pregnant woman with preeclampsia my have ______ in her urine.
a)
Glucose
b)
Bacteria
c)
Protien
d)
Blood
160.
Which term means releasing urine from the body?
a)
Micturition
b)
Voiding
c)
Urination
d)
All of the above
161.
Which kidney structure empties into the ureter?
a)
Renal pelvis
b)
Calyx
c)
Renal papilla
d)
Renal pyramid
162.
Which molecule is an electrolyte?
a)
Na+
b)
K+
c)
Cl-
d)
All of the above
163.
Specific gravity indicates:
a)
The amount of blood in the urine
b)
The amount of water in the urine
c)
The amount of dissolved substances in the urine
d)
The amount of acid in the urine
164.
Which term means kidney stone?
a)
Nephrogram
b)
Nephrolith
c)
Nethroma
d)
Nephrotomy
165.
Which term means surgical repair of the bladder?
a)
Cystostomy
b)
Cystopexy
c)
Cystoplasty
d)
Cystoscope
166.
Which term means drooping kidney?
a)
Nephroptosis
b)
Nephrosis
c)
Nephrostomy
d)
Nephromegaly
167.
Which term means kidney softening?
a)
Nephritis
b)
Nephrosclerosis
c)
Nephroptosis
d)
Nephromalacia
168.
Which term means pain in the urethra?
a)
Urethralgia
b)
Urethritis
c)
Ureterectasis
d)
Ureteralgia
169.
Which term means renal pelvis inflammation?
a)
Renitis
b)
Pyeloplasty
c)
Pyelitis
d)
Pyelogram
170.
Which term means condition of blood in the urine?
a)
Hematuria
b)
Pyuria
c)
Glycosuria
d)
Dysuria
171.
Which term means condition of difficult urination?
a)
Polyuria
b)
Ketonuria
c)
Anuria
d)
Dysuria
172.
Which term means condition of scanty amount of urine?
a)
Polyuria
b)
Nocturia
c)
Oliguria
d)
Dysuria
173.
____________ is the accumulation of nitrogenous waste in the bloodstream.
a)
Azotemia
b)
Calculus
c)
Micturition
d)
Renal colic
174.
____________ is a greater than normal occurrence of the urge to urinate, without an increase in the total daily volume of urine.
a)
Hesitancy
b)
Frequency
c)
Enuresis
d)
Diuresis
175.
_____________ is feeling the need to urinate immediately.
a)
Micturition
b)
Frequency
c)
Urgency
d)
Stricture
176.
_______ is the pain associated with a kidney stone.
a)
Stricture
b)
Mictruition
c)
Uremia
d)
Renal colic
177.
A ______ is the narrowing of a passageway in the urinary system.
a)
Stricture
b)
Catheter
c)
Nephrolith
d)
Calculus
178.
Which condition allows red blood cells and protein to enter the filtrate?
a)
Nephrolithiasis
b)
Glomerulonephritis
c)
Nephroptosis
d)
Polycystic kidneys
179.
Which condition is commonly called a floating kidney?
a)
Nephromegaly
b)
Nephrolithiasis
c)
Nephroptosis
d)
Nephrotic syndrome
180.
Renal cell carcinoma occurs in which kidney cells?
a)
Glomerular cells
b)
Cortex cells
c)
Renal pelvis cells
d)
Tubule cells
181.
A neurogenic bladder results in:
a)
Urinary retention
b)
Urinary inconinence
c)
Anuria
d)
Protein in the urine
182.
Hematuria may be a symptom of:
a)
Urinary retention
b)
Bladder cancer
c)
Enuresis
d)
Renal failure
183.
In a cystocele, the bladder bulges into the:
a)
Colon
b)
Urethra
c)
Vagina
d)
Kidney
184.
Which condition affects the renal pelvis?
a)
Glomerulonephritis
b)
Nephrolithiasis
c)
Renal cell carcinoma
d)
Pyelonephritis
185.
Which term refers to frequent nighttime urination?
a)
Azotemia
b)
Urgency
c)
Nocturia
d)
Diuresis
186.
Which term refers to frequent urination?
a)
Oligruia
b)
Anuria
c)
Dysuria
d)
Polyuria
187.
Which clinical laboratory test measures the amount of nitrogenous waste in the blood?
a)
Blood urea nitrogen
b)
Creatinine clearance
c)
Urinalysis
d)
Culture and sensitivity
188.
Which clinical laboratory test requires the collection of urine for 24 hours?
a)
Clean catch specimen
b)
Creatinine clearance
c)
Blood urea nitrogen
d)
Culture and sensitivity
189.
Which clinical laboratory test can identify an infection?
a)
Blood urea nitrogen
b)
Culture and sensitivity
c)
Urinalysis
d)
Both B and C
190.
___________ involves taking X-rays to trace the action of the kidney as it expels a dye injected into the bloodstream.
a)
Cystography
b)
Retrograde pyelogram
c)
Excretory urography
d)
Renography
191.
___________visualizes the bladder with X-rays after instilling dye directly into the bladder.
a)
Cystography
b)
Intravenous pyelogram
c)
Cystoscopy
d)
Excretory urography
192.
Which X-ray visualizes the renal pelvis with dye?
a)
BUN
b)
EU
c)
IVP
d)
KUB
193.
Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy uses ________ to treat kidney stones.
a)
X-rays
b)
Ultrasound
c)
Radiowaves
d)
Surgery
194.
Which therapeutic measure uses an artificial kidney machine?
a)
Catherization
b)
Lithotripsy
c)
Hemodialysis
d)
Peritoneal dialysis
195.
Which therapeutic measure is used to treat renal failure?
a)
Catherization
b)
Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy
c)
Culture and sensitivity
d)
Peritoneal dialysis
196.
Which term means surgical crushing of a stone?
a)
Lithotripsy
b)
Lithotomy
c)
Lithomegaly
d)
Lithomalacia
197.
Which term means surgical fixation of the bladder?
a)
Cystotomy
b)
Cystoplasty
c)
Cystectomy
d)
Cystopexy
198.
Which term means enlarged kidney?
a)
Nephromalacia
b)
Nephromegaly
c)
Nephrostenosis
d)
Nephrosclerosis
199.
Which term means kidney tumor?
a)
Nephrosis
b)
Nephropathy
c)
Nephroma
d)
Nephromegaly
200.
Which abbreviation is a blood test?
a)
BUN
b)
ATN
c)
KUB
d)
UTI
201.
Which abbreviation is an X-ray?
a)
GU
b)
KUB
c)
CRG
d)
C&S
202.
Which abbreviation is a lab test?
a)
HD
b)
I & O
c)
UA
d)
NS
203.
Which abbreviation is an X-ray of the renal pelvis?
a)
ESRD
b)
KUB
c)
BNO
d)
IVP
204.
Which abbreviation is a treatment for kidney stones?
a)
ESWL
b)
ARF
c)
BUN
d)
UTI
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