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DIPLOMA CBT PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Total questions: 204

Worksheet time: 16hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Where is Zone 1 located within a bathroom?

a)

Directly above Zone 2, with a maximum height of 3.5 m

b)

Below the bath if access is with a tool

c)

Directly above the bath to a height of 2.25 m

d)

At least 0.6 m from the side of Zone 0

2.

What is a typical application of split phase induction motors?

a)

Domestic appliances

b)

Large constant speed machines

c)

Driving heavy loads requiring high starting torque

d)

Driving industrial loads for long periods of time

3.

What is the basic principle of sound transmission?

a)

Electrochemical impulses

b)

Wave propagation

c)

Mechanical pressure

d)

Molecular refraction

4.

What is a requirement of a switch used for isolation?

a)

The switch must be a semi-conductor device

b)

It must be designed to prevent unintentional closure

c)

It must always be positioned next to the equipment it isolates

d)

When the switch is new the leakage current must not exceed 6 mA

5.

Which type of telecommunication cable is most effective at reducing noise pickup?

a)

Untwisted pair

b)

Un-shielded twisted pair

c)

Shielded twisted pair

d)

Twisted pair

6.

What is the formula for power transfer from the primary winding to the secondary winding referring to the phasor diagram below?

a)

A. P = Vp Ip cosΦp

b)

A. P = Vp Ip cosΦ1

c)

A. P = Vp Ip sinΦp

d)

A. P = Vp Ip sinΦp

7.

What is the most likely cause of a three-phase motor failing to develop enough torque to drive its load?

a)

Reverse phasing

b)

Drop in frequency

c)

Rise in frequency

d)

Single phasing

8.

Which procedure should be carried out immediately after testing to confirm electrical isolation and before starting work?

a)

Fit a sign to a remote isolator

b)

Test for continuity

c)

Lock off at a remote isolator

d)

Retest the voltage indicator

9.

What type of magnetic field is produced in the stator winding of a three-phase induction motor when it is energized?

a)

Oscillating

b)

Static

c)

Rotating

d)

Pulsating

10.

What requirement applies on a construction site when Automatic Disconnection of Supply (ADS) is the protective measure?

a)

Reduced low voltage systems must not be used

b)

Socket-outlets must be protected by a 100 mA RCD

c)

Minimum csa of the cpc must be not less than 4 mm2

d)

Conventional voltage limit (UL) must not exceed 25 V ac

11.

What type of motor is used when operating in a corrosive atmosphere?

a)

Drip-proof

b)

Semi-enclosed

c)

Fan-cooled

d)

Pipe-ventilated

12.

What is the maximum residual operating current of an RCD that provides protection against contact with live parts?

a)

10 mA

b)

30 mA

c)

100 mA

d)

300 mA

13.

What is a suitable method for planning maintenance of a large number of tasks?

a)

Work study chart

b)

Mesh analysis

c)

Critical path analysis

d)

Risk assessment

14.

What is the function of preventative maintenance?

a)

To ensure plant is safe and reliable

b)

To repair faulty machinery

c)

To commission new plant

d)

To remove faulty equipment from service

15.

What are the required operating characteristics of transformers used in welding machines?

a)

Low secondary current, low secondary voltage

b)

High secondary current, low secondary voltage

c)

High secondary current, high secondary voltage

d)

Low secondary current, high secondary voltage

16.

What is the cause of a hot bearing on a three-phase motor?

a)

Lack of lubrication

b)

Overheated windings

c)

Poor ventilation

d)

Single phasing

17.

What is the cause of an open circuit when testing the continuity of the line conductor in a lighting circuit?

a)

Switch is open

b)

Neutral and line are interchanged

c)

Neutral is open circuit

d)

Conductor insulation is failing

18.

What prime mover is used with a low-speed portable three-phase alternator?

a)

Reciprocating engine

b)

Water turbine

c)

Steam turbine

d)

Diesel engine

19.

What is the main effect of annealing copper busbars?

a)

It improves malleability

b)

It corrodes more easily

c)

It improves conductivity

d)

It is resistant to corrosion

20.

What color is used to identify Line 2 of a three-phase power circuit?

a)

Blue

b)

Black

c)

Brown

d)

Gray

21.

How can a three-phase synchronous motor be started?

a)

By using a pony motor

b)

By using a squirrel-cage rotor

c)

By using a star delta motor starter

d)

By using a rotor resistance starter

22.

Which measure provides protection against direct contact?

a)

Electrical separation

b)

Barriers and enclosures

c)

Non-conducting location

d)

Automatic disconnection of supply

23.

Which method may be used to safeguard an installation against overvoltage?

a)

Fit a surge protective device at the main terminals

b)

Connect the installation to an overhead distribution system

c)

All appliances have an impulse withstand voltage of 6 kA

d)

Installation has a main fuse or circuit breaker which disconnects the maximum fault current

24.

What is the minimum short circuit rating of the user's equipment at the point of connection to a 380 V three-phase supply?

a)

20 kA

b)

21 kA

c)

25 kA

d)

30 kA

25.

What is the secondary current for a single-phase transformer which has a primary current of 50 A and a turns ratio of 2:1?

a)

25 A

b)

50 A

c)

100 A

d)

200 A

26.

What is the essential property of the oil used in transformer tanks to facilitate cooling?

a)

High viscosity

b)

Low hydrogen content

c)

High carbon content

d)

Low viscosity

27.

What is the maximum permitted voltage to earth for a reduced low voltage single-phase system used on a construction site?

a)

220 V

b)

110 V

c)

55 V

d)

25 V

28.

Which parts of an electrical installation are connected by the earthing conductor?

a)

Exposed conductive parts and main earthing terminal

b)

Main earthing terminal and earth electrode

c)

Two extraneous conductive parts

d)

Two exposed conductive parts

29.

What factor affects the value of earth fault loop impedance of a circuit?

a)

Resistance of the neutral conductor

b)

Type of cable insulation

c)

Rating of the circuit protective device

d)

Length of circuit cable

30.

What is indicated by a low insulation resistance reading between L1 and L3 lines on the delta connected stator of a three-phase induction motor?

a)

Faulty insulation on L3

b)

Faulty insulation on L1

c)

Faulty insulation on L1 and L3

d)

Faulty insulation on L1, L2 and L3

31.

What is a requirement for the location for an overhead distribution circuit on a caravan site?

a)

he overhead cable must be positioned at least 2 m outside of any caravan pitch

b)

he cable can be run anywhere providing it is above 3.5 m from the ground

c)

The cable can only be used in areas where there are no vehicle movements

d)

The overhead cable supports must be clearly visible if vehicles are present

32.

What insulation resistance test voltage must be used when testing a 220 V circuit?

a)

250 V

b)

380 V

c)

500 V

d)

1000 V

33.

What is a hazard when terminating copper telecommunication cables?

a)

Excessive noise

b)

Laser light

c)

Flying offcuts

d)

Sharp edges

34.

What is the effect on an installation forming part of an MEN system if the PEN conductor develops high impedance?

a)

Voltage will appear on earthed metalwork

b)

Installation neutral conductor will overheat

c)

Protective devices will operate more quickly under fault conditions

d)

Voltage will only appear on earthed metalwork if an earth fault occurs

35.

Which property of a transformer is measured by the change in output voltage from no-load to full-load conditions?

a)

Voltage ratio

b)

Transformer efficiency

c)

Voltage regulation

d)

Power transfer

36.

What type of rotor is used in a slip-ring induction motor?

a)

Solid rotor

b)

Wound rotor

c)

Squirrel cage rotor

d)

Double cage rotor

37.

What is an advantage of an underground wiring system when compared with an overhead wiring system?

a)

It is easily accessible

b)

It is cheaper to install

c)

It will use a smaller csa conductor

d)

It is protected from damage by winds

38.

What is the purpose of the Buchholz relay used with large distribution transformers?

a)

To record operating times

b)

To check voltage levels

c)

To monitor gas levels

d)

To check current flow

39.

What is the purpose of equipotential bonding?

a)

To earth an exposed conductive part

b)

To earth the metal casing of Class I equipment

c)

To provide a conducting path in the event of an earth fault

d)

To keep two exposed conductive parts at or about the same potential.

40.

Which type of communication connection is used between extensions of a private telephone system?

a)

Distribution frame

b)

Rotary

c)

Tie-line

d)

Power fail

41.

What is the purpose of plant history cards?

a)

To record maintenance operations

b)

To enable fault-finding

c)

To extend manufacturers' warranty

d)

To review capital costs

42.

Which area is considered to be a hazardous location in the Saudi Building Regulations?

a)

Area containing a bath or shower

b)

Area containing a high concentration of water vapor

c)

Area including a restrictive conducting location

d)

Area with a concentration of flammable vapors

43.

How can the direction of rotation of a series universal motor be reversed?

a)

Change the polarity of the supply

b)

Reverse the armature or field winding connections

c)

Reverse the armature and field winding connections

d)

Change the frequency of the supply

44.

Which type of drawing is used to directly inform the connection of telecommunication cables?

a)

Schematic

b)

Block

c)

Ladder

d)

Wiring

45.

What is the condition for maximum starting torque in an induction motor?

a)

Rotor reactance is twice the rotor resistance

b)

Rotor reactance is half the rotor resistance

c)

Rotor reactance is a quarter of the rotor resistance

d)

Rotor resistance is the same as rotor reactance

46.

What is the minimum recognized shock current likely to cause muscular contraction?

a)

Approximately 5 mA

b)

Approximately 10 mA

c)

Approximately 20 mA

d)

Approximately 30 mA

47.

Why are power transformers operated in parallel?

a)

To increase the current rating of the supply

b)

To maximize power supply flexibility

c)

To improve voltage regulation

d)

To reduce heat loss

48.

What type of single-phase motor is shown in the diagram below?

a)

Capacitor start

b)

Capacitor run

c)

Capacitor start, capacitor run

d)

Permanent split capacitor

49.

What action must be taken when carrying out a visual inspection of a new electrical installation?

a)

Installation must be totally isolated from the supply

b)

All testing must be carried out before the inspection starts

c)

Only the wiring and control equipment is inspected

d)

All cables are inspected throughout their length

50.

Which type of PLC output is used for the high-frequency switching of ac loads?

a)

Relay

b)

BJT

c)

Triac

d)

MOSFET

51.

What is the minimum cross sectional area (csa) of a circuit protective conductor (cpc) when selected from the table below, if the live conductors are 25 mm2?

a)

8 mm2

b)

16 mm2

c)

32 mm2

d)

25 mm2

52.

What precaution must be taken to prevent the spread of fire when a wiring system passes between floors in multi-storey premises?

a)

Trunking must be made of flame retardant material and provide IP2X protection

b)

Trunking requires an internal fire barrier if the internal csa is less than 710 mm2

c)

Hole around cables must be sealed to prevent any movement of the cables

d)

Sealing material must provide the same flame retardant properties as the building structure

53.

What is the cause of a low resistance between line and earth on a single-phase motor?

a)

Partial short-circuit winding to frame

b)

Short-circuit line to neutral

c)

Partial open-circuit

d)

Short-circuited turns in a winding

54.

What is the danger of opening the secondary circuit of an energized current transformer?

a)

High voltage appears across the secondary

b)

Large current flows in the primary

c)

High voltage appears across the primary

d)

Large current flows in the secondary

55.

What is the operating resistance of a single-phase 230 V heating element rated at 3 kW?

a)

690 Ohm

b)

176 Ohm

c)

76.7 Ohm

d)

17.6 Ohm

56.

What is established by analyzing maintenance records?

a)

Machine maintenance

b)

Replacement dates for equipment

c)

Initial purchase prices

d)

Frequency of maintenance tasks

57.

What method is used to secure control panel wiring?

a)

Insulation taping

b)

Strapped harness

c)

Cleating

d)

Clipping

58.

What is the maximum residual operating current of an RCD for supplementary protection?

a)

15 mA

b)

30 mA

c)

150 mA

d)

300 mA

59.

Which method of installing a cable in a building void is permitted?

a)

On insulators

b)

In skirting trunking

c)

Without fixings

d)

On a support wire

60.

Which area is regarded as a medical location in the Saudi Building regulations?

a)

Doctor's reception area

b)

Hospital waiting room

c)

Children's nursery

d)

Treatment room

61.

What is the requirement for a motor installed in an area where there are stored materials which pose a risk?

a)

Motors must be placed outside this area

b)

Motor must be rated no more than 0.375 kW

c)

Motor must be rated no more than 5 kW

d)

Motor must be protected against excessive temperature rise

62.

What is classified as a hazardous location in Saudi Building regulations?

a)

An area where there is inert gas present

b)

An area where there are explosive gas present

c)

An area containing rotating machinery

d)

An area containing switchgear

63.

Which requirement applies to a construction site where there is more than one source of supply?

a)

Equipment must be identified for use of one particular supply

b)

each supply must be protected by 200 mA RCD

c)

equipment supply voltage rating must exceed 110 V

d)

each supply must form part of a TN-S system

64.

What is the minimum IP rating of electrical equipment installed in Zone 2 of an indoor swimming pool?

a)

IP X2

b)

IP X4

c)

IP X5

d)

IP X8

65.

Where can underground cables without additional protection be used in a caravan park?

a)

Anywhere in the park, if buried at least 300 mm deep

b)

Only in areas where there is caravan traffic

c)

Only within caravan pitch area

d)

Outside the area of a caravan pitch

66.

Which installation method is suitable for an underground system?

a)

thermosetting insulated and sheathed cable laid directly in the ground

b)

thermosetting insulated steel wired armored cable laid directly in the ground

c)

thermoplastic insulated cable installed directly in a concrete duct

d)

thermosetting insulated and sheathed flexible cable in a steel conduit

67.

What is the shape of the laminations used in the magnetic circuit of a single phase shell-type transformer?

a)

L-L

b)

T-T

c)

L-E

d)

E-I

68.

What is the recommended minimum distance between a 66 KV transformer and other oil-filled equipment?

a)

2 meters

b)

4 meters

c)

6 meters

d)

10 meters

69.

What quantities are represented by the letters A, B and C on the No load transformer phasor diagram?

a)

A=Primary voltage, B=no load current and C=Flux

b)

A= no load current, B= Primary voltage and C=Flux

c)

A= Flux, B= Primary voltage and C= no load current

d)

A= Primary voltage, B= Flux and C= no load current

70.

What two power losses occur in a transformer when operating on no-load?

a)

Mechanical losses, core losses

b)

Frictional losses, heat losses

c)

Rotational losses, copper losses

d)

Copper losses, core losses

71.

What is the relationship between the VA rating of a transformer and the internal percentage impedance Z?

a)

VA ∝ 1/ Z

b)

VA ∝ Z

c)

VA ∝ 2Z

d)

VA ∝ Z/2

72.

What two conditions must be satisfied before connecting two transformers in parallel to share a common load?

a)

Same inductance, same kVA rating

b)

Same polarity, same phase sequence

c)

Same polarity resistance, same current ratio

d)

Same number of polarity turns, same voltage regulation.

73.

What type of transformer is used for interconnecting high voltage transmission systems operating at different voltage levels?

a)

Current transformer

b)

Double wound transformer

c)

Voltage Transformer

d)

Autotransformer

74.

What is the danger of disconnecting a direct current from a power transformer winding under a test?

a)

Large current circulates

b)

Heat is generated

c)

High voltage is generated

d)

Power surge occurs

75.

What is the effect of changing over two of three line conductors supplying a three phase induction motor?

a)

No effect on the motor

b)

The direction of rotation is reversed

c)

It causes a short circuit

d)

The motor will not run

76.

When is the stator winding of a three phase squirrel-cage induction motor connected in star?

a)

When in full load

b)

When running at rated speed

c)

When on light load

d)

When starting the motor

77.

What is the percentage slip of a motor at full load speed where the nameplate details are:

f= 50Hz

Poles=4

full-load speed=1440 rpm

a)

0.01 ( or 1%)

b)

0.02 (or 2%)

c)

0.04 (or 4%)

d)

0.08 (or 8%)

78.

What is the ideal electrical angle of separation of the start and run windings to create a rotating magnetic field in a split phase induction motor?

a)

30 Degree

b)

60 Degree

c)

90 Degree

d)

120 Degree

79.

How can the direction of a capacitor start single phase motor be reversed?

a)

Reverse the connection to the capacitor

b)

Reverse the connection to the start winding

c)

Reverse the polarity of the supply

d)

Reverse the connection of the start and run windings

80.

When are single phase series universal motors used?

a)

When high starting torque is required

b)

When starting on no load is required

c)

When constant speeds are required

d)

When low speed drives are required

81.

What is the main advantage of an HRC fuse used to protect electrical motors?

a)

It discriminates between short and long time overload

b)

It carries up to 100% overload for up to 2 hours

c)

It opens immediately if the rating is exceeded by 20%

d)

It opens the circuit on overload and restores the supply when the fault clears

82.

At what speed three-phase cylindrical two-pole synchronous alternator rotates when connected to a 50 Hz infinite busbar system?

a)

1000 rpm

b)

1500 rpm

c)

3000 rpm

d)

6000 rpm

83.

What is a common use of a portable alternator?

a)

To boost the grid during heavy demand

b)

As a standby supply if the main supply fails

c)

Where a low-voltage dc supply is required

d)

Where a variable frequency supply is required

84.

Which fixing method is used to install industrial equipment on a DIN rail in a control panel?

a)

Adhesion

b)

Clipping

c)

Cleating

d)

Riveting

85.

What is the effect on an electronic signal conditioning circuit when radiated interference is present?

a)

Distorted signal processing

b)

Attenuation of signal noise

c)

Overheating of components

d)

Reduction of supply voltage

86.

What type of maintenance is carried out on a machine which is functioning correctly after it has run for a number of hours?

a)

Time based preventive maintenance

b)

Condition based preventive maintenance

c)

Time based corrective maintenance

d)

Condition based corrective maintenance

87.

What factor from a vibration analysis identifies the severity of vibrations in a rotating machine?

a)

Velocity

b)

Frequency

c)

Amplitude

d)

Acceleration

88.

Why is it necessary to give priority to tasks on the critical path of a maintenance plan?

a)

To ensure the task is completed on time

b)

Because they are the only tasks which need to be completed

c)

Because they are the most expensive to complete

d)

To maximize the time required by skilled workers

89.

What data should be recorded in the equipment management module of a computer managed maintenance system (CMMS)?

a)

Quality reports

b)

Manufaturers’ details

c)

History of machine performance

d)

Maintenance and refurbishment procedures

90.

What is function of the capacitor across the supply terminals of a discharge lamp?

a)

To prevent radio frequency interference

b)

To assist starting the lamp

c)

To maintain lamp operation

d)

To provide power factor operation

91.

Which test connections are used when testing a single phase appliance for insulation?

a)

L & N to E

b)

E to N

c)

N & E to L

d)

L to N

92.

What condition will cause a lamp controlled by a photoelectric cell to turn on?

a)

Movement within its range

b)

Increase the light level

c)

Change in temperature

d)

Decrease in light level

93.

What component is required to control the starting capacitor in a single phase Induction motor?

a)

shunt coil

b)

thermal trip

c)

discharge resistor

d)

centrifugal switch

94.

What is the first action to be taken when a thermal overload trips an induction motor?

a)

Short circuit the thermal trip

b)

Disconnect the thermal trip

c)

Replace the thermal trip

d)

Reset the thermal trip

95.

Which is an example of incorrect polarity in electrical installations?

a)

Live and neutral conductors interchanged at a socket-outlet

b)

Live conductor connected to the wrong phase conductor

c)

Earth conductor not connected at a socket-outlet

d)

Open-circuit neutral conductor

96.

Which test instrument is used to confirm the continuity of protective conductors?

a)

Voltage indicator

b)

Low resistance ohmmeter

c)

Insulation resistance tester

d)

Earth electrode resistance tester

97.

Which component is essential in a MEN system to provide a return path for installation earth fault currents?

a)

Earth electrode

b)

Neutral-earth link

c)

Supply protective device

d)

Main protective bonding conductor

98.

What type of earthing system would include an earth electrode as part of the consumer’s installation?

a)

TN-C-S.

b)

TN-S.

c)

TN-C

d)

TT

99.

What is the minimum csa of a copper protective conductor which is separated from the supply cable and mechanically protected?

a)

1.5 mm2

b)

2.5 mm2

c)

4.0 mm2

d)

6.0 mm2

100.

What is the minimum cross-sectional area of a line and CPC, in order to provide ADS in the circuit with a maximum permitted Zs of 0.36 Ω if Ze is 0.17 Ω using the Information below? (t = 0.4s, k = 115)

a)

1.5/1.5 mm2

b)

2.5/2.5 mm2

c)

4.0/4.0 mm2

d)

6.0/6.0 mm2

101.

Which formula is used to determine the maximum permitted earth fault loop impedance Zs?

a)

Ze

b)

Ze + R1

c)

Ze + R2

d)

Ze + R1 + R2

102.

Which relationship correctly identifies the requirements for overload protection?

a)

Ib ≤ In ≤ Iz

b)

In ≤ Ib ≤ Iz

c)

Iz ≤ In ≤ Ib

d)

Ib > In > Iz

103.

What type of socket outlet circuit does not require additional protection provided by a 30 mA RCD?

a)

Socket-outlet circuits used by ordinary persons

b)

Socket-outlet circuits located within wet areas

c)

Socket-outlet circuits used by skilled persons

d)

Socket-outlet circuits located outdoors

104.

What is the effect on an installation if the supply voltage drops below the lower voltage limit?

a)

Circuit breakers may fail to operate if a short circuit occurs.

b)

Contactors may de-energize, switching off motors

c)

Discharge lighting may produce more light.

d)

Heaters may overheat and cause a fire

105.

Which document must be attached to a Test Report?

a)

Instrument calibration certificate.

b)

Saudi Building Code (401).

c)

Generic risk assessment.

d)

Inspection Schedule.

106.

What temperature factor must be applied when confirming compliance of measured fault loop impedance?

a)

0.5

b)

0.66

c)

0.75

d)

0.8

107.

Which installation condition does not affect the current carrying capacity of a cable?

a)

Length of the cable

b)

Conductor material

c)

Number of cables run together

d)

Air temperature around the cable

108.

Which protective measure provides protection against indirect contact?

a)

obstacles

b)

placing out of reach

c)

insulation of live parts

d)

automatic disconnection of supply

109.

What is the fundamental safety principle of protection against direct contact?

a)

To prevent an earth fault from occurring

b)

To prevent insulation from becoming damaged

c)

To prevent current from passing through body

d)

To prevent exposed metal work from becoming live

110.

Decide which statement underneath best describes the direct contact from an electrical point of view:

a)

A direct contact refers to the contact between two live lines

b)

A direct contact refers to the contact between one live line to the earth

c)

A direct contact refers to a person coming into contact with a conductor which is live in normal circumstances

d)

A direct contact refers to a person coming into contact with an exposed conductive part which is not normally alive, but has become alive accidentally (due to insulation failure or some other cause).

111.

What is the correct switching arrangement for an installation with an alternative supply available if the primary source fails?

a)

The 2 switches should be interlocked so that only 1 switch can be on

b)

The 2 switches should operate independently from each other

c)

Both supply switches must be able to open both supplies

d)

Both switches must only be operated manually.

112.

What is used to divide electrical supply into subsidiary circuits, providing individual circuit protection?

a)

Contactor.

b)

PV inverter

c)

Distribution Board.

d)

Combined multi-port SPD.

113.

What type of material is Cu-OF?

a)

Conventional copper

b)

Conventional aluminum

c)

High efficiency copper

d)

High conductivity aluminum

114.

What prevents sound travelling in a vacuum?

a)

Sufficient energy levels are not present

b)

A medium is not available for molecular vibration

c)

Insulating materials absorb the vibrated molecules

d)

Insufficient energy is generated for propagation

115.

What is (ISDN)?

a)

A propagation method

b)

A facsimile system

c)

A transmission signal

d)

A communication standard

116.

What method is used to identify individual telecommunications cables?

a)

Screening

b)

Segregation

c)

Labeling

d)

Taping

117.

Which telecommunication cable has infinite bandwidth?

a)

Un-shielded twist pair

b)

Fiber Optic cable

c)

Co-axial Cable

d)

Shielded twist pair

118.

When must category 6 network cable be used instead of category 5?

a)

When bandwidth need to be >100 MHz

b)

When a data transmission speed is < 1 gigabit

c)

When the bandwidth needs to be <100 MHz.

d)

When a data transmission speed is < 1 megabit.

119.

What is classified as a hazardous area in the Saudi building requirements?

a)

An area where there is inert gas present

b)

An area where there is explosive gas present

c)

An area containing rotating machinery

d)

An area containing switchgear

120.

What is the requirement for a motor installed in an area where there is a fire risk?

a)

Motor must be placed outside this area

b)

Motor must be rated no more than 0.375 kW

c)

Motor must be sited at least 0.5 m from stored materials

d)

Motor must be protected against excessive temperature rise

121.

What are the conditions required for SELV and LV circuit be installed in the same conduit?

a)

All cables must be insulated to the highest voltage present.

b)

All cables must have the same insulation material.

c)

All cables must be insulated to the lowest voltage present.

d)

All cables must be part of the same ac circuit.

122.

What color is used to identify Line 2 of a three-phase power circuit?

a)

Blue

b)

Black

c)

Brown

d)

Gray

123.

What is the recommended minimum distance between a 60 KV transformer and equipment?

a)

2 meters

b)

4 meters

c)

6 meters

d)

10 meters

124.

What is the percentage slip of a motor at full load speed where the nameplate details are: f= 50Hz, Poles=4, full-load speed=1440 rpm

a)

4%

b)

5%

c)

6%

d)

7%

125.

1. Which formula is used to determine the maximum permitted earth fault loop impedance?

a)

Zs ≤ Uo/Ia

b)

Zs ≤ Ia/Uo

c)

Zs ≥ Uo/Ia

d)

Zs ≥ Ia/Uo

126.

What is the minimum cross sectional area (csa) of a circuit protective conductor (CPC) when selected from the table below, if the live conductors are 25 mm2?

a)

A. 6.0 mm2

b)

A. 10 mm2

c)

A. 16 mm2

d)

A. 25 mm2

127.

Which formula identifies the requirement for short-circuit protection of a cable?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

128.

Which method of installing a cable is permitted for the situation of buried in earth?

a)

On a support wire

b)

On insulators

c)

On a Cable trunking

d)

In a Cable ducting or conduit

129.

Which area is not regarded as a medical location in the Saudi Building regulations?

a)

Hospital waiting room

b)

Surgery room

c)

Examination or treatment room

d)

Premature baby room

130.

Which of the following earthing system is not allowed in medical locations and medical buildings downstream of the main distribution board?

a)

TT

b)

TN-C

c)

TN-S

d)

IT

131.

When using SELV and/or PELV circuits as Protection against electric shock in medical locations of group 1 and group 2, the nominal voltage applied to equipment shall not exceed:

a)

10 V a.c or 50 V d.c

b)

220 V a.c or 500 V d.c

c)

25 V a.c. or 60 V d.c

d)

380 V a.c or 1000 V d.c

132.

Which zone classified of Hazardous locations according to SBC 401 and SASO IEC 60079-10 where an explosive atmosphere is likely occur in normal operation occasionally?

a)

Zone 0

b)

Zone 1

c)

Zone 2

d)

Zone 3

133.

One construction site is served by several sources of supply, which requirement need to apply?

a)

Equipment must be identified for use of one particular supply

b)

Connect the site with mobile power generators

c)

Each supply must form part of a TN-S system

d)

Supply must be protected by automatic disconnection

134.

For electrical equipment installed in Zone 0 of a swimming pool, what degree of protection is necessary according to SBC 401 and SASO 980:

a)

IPX8

b)

IPX5

c)

IPX4

d)

IPX2

135.

For swimming pool In Zone 2, socket-outlets and switches are permitted only if the circuits supplying them are protected by:

a)

A residual current protective device with rated operating current not exceeding 30 mA

b)

Miniature circuit breaker

c)

Fuse box

d)

Electrical on/off disconnect switch

136.

In a location containing a bathtub or shower basin, which of the following is permitted in Zones 0, 1 and 2?

a)

Junction boxes

b)

Switchgear and control gear

c)

Socket outlet with metallic covering

d)

Waterproof recessed Ceiling light

137.

In case of overhead distribution in camping sites, caravan and tents , what is the height above earth for overhead conductors in area subject to vehicle movement

a)

At a height above earth not less than 6m

b)

At a height above earth not less than 3.5m

c)

At a height above earth not less than 2m

d)

At a height above earth not less than 12m

138.

What are the minimum Cross-sectional areas for line and PE conductor used in caravan or tent electrical installation according to Saudi Building Code?

a)

Successively 1.5 and 2.5 mm square

b)

Successively 1.5 and 4.0 mm square

c)

Successively 2.5 and 2.5 mm square

d)

Successively 4.0 and 4.0 mm square

139.

According to SBC 401, the conductor for Phase 3 (L3) of three-phase a.c. circuit shall have the color of:

a)

Brown

b)

Gray

c)

Blue

d)

Black

140.

As per SBC 401, the maximum operating temperature of Cross-linked polyethylene (XLPE) insulation is?

a)

90oC

b)

70oC

c)

105oC

d)

60oC

141.

Where is Zone 2 located within a bathroom?

a)

Interior of the bath tub or shower basin

b)

The upper plane of Zone 0

c)

Is the Vertical plane 0.6 m external to zone 1 and above zone 1 up to the ceiling.

d)

Is the space above zone 2 up to the ceiling

142.

In the coordination of conductor and overcurrent protection device, which of the following is true?

a)

Ib ≤ In ≤ Iz

b)

In ≤ Iz ≤ In

c)

I2 ≤ Ib ≤ Iz

d)

Iz ≤ In ≤ Ib

143.

Which of the following laminations will form core type transformer?

a)

L – L

b)

E – E

c)

E – I

d)

E - U

144.

Which of the following laminations will form shell type transformer?

a)

L – L

b)

U – I

c)

E – I

d)

E – U

145.

What is the term used to know the change of output voltage from no-load to full-load

a)

Efficiency

b)

Voltage regulation

c)

Voltage Drops

d)

No-Load test

146.

A transformer delivers 100 volts at no-load and the voltage drops to 95 volts at full load, so voltage regulation would be?

a)

95%

b)

5%

c)

-5%

d)

111%

147.

1. What is the secondary current for a single-phase transformer which has a primary current of 60 A and a turns ratio of 2:1?

a)

30 A

b)

100 A

c)

120 A

d)

60 A

148.

3-phase 12 poles, 60Hz induction motor has a rotor speed of 570 rpm, the slip is:

a)

0.05%

b)

4%

c)

0.25%

d)

5%

149.

A universal motor is one that operates on:

a)

Either single-phase ac or dc power.

b)

DC power

c)

AC power

d)

Constant speed

150.

At what speed three-phase cylindrical two-pole synchronous alternator rotates when connected to a 60 Hz infinite busbar system?

a)

900 rpm

b)

1800 rpm

c)

3600 rpm

d)

7200 rpm

151.

Which Saudi building code relates to the installation of cables in buildings?

a)

301

b)

401

c)

701

d)

801

152.

what color identifies the neutral conductor of a single-phase circuit?

a)

Gray

b)

Blue

c)

Brown

d)

Black

153.

What is the classification of the area where an explosive gas is present?

a)

Hazardous

b)

Restricted

c)

Dangerous

d)

Confined

154.

What is maximum nominal voltage for extra low-voltage?

a)

24 V ac

b)

24 V DC

c)

50 V ac

d)

50 V dc

155.

What is the requirement for an underground wiring system if placed on a caravan pitch on a camp site?

a)

Earth spike

b)

Undervoltage protection

c)

Dedicated isolator

d)

Additional mechanical protection

156.

What is the purpose of catenary systems?

a)

To suspend cabling

b)

To bury cabling

c)

To cover cabling

d)

To extend cabling

157.

What details must appear on the nameplate of transformers rated above 500kVA?

a)

Percentage impedance and frequency

b)

Turns ratio and mutual inductance

c)

Power factor and maximum current

d)

Maximum current and turns ratio

158.

Which formula determines the kVA rating of a three-phase transformer to supply a new building allowing for a 25% increase in demand?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

159.

Which formula determines the power transferred form the transformer primary to secondary winding in the image shown below?

a)

P = Vp Ip cosθ

b)

P = Vp (Ip-Io) cosθ

c)

P = Vp Ip sinθ

d)

P = Vp (Ip-Io) sinθ

160.

What is the efficiency of a 200 kVA transformer having a copper loss of 1.5 kW and an iron loss of 1 kW with a power factor of 0.85? (Note the correct answer here is 98.55%)

a)

96.60%

b)

97.55%

c)

97.65%

d)

98.76%

161.

What is the percentage impedance of the transformer shown in the image below?

a)

5%

b)

6%

c)

8%

d)

10%

162.

What condition must be met for two transformers to share a load proportional to their VA rating when connected in parallel?

a)

Load currents must be the same

b)

Percentage impedances must be the same

c)

Resistance of the windings must be equal

d)

Power ratings of the transformers must be the same

163.

What type of single-phase transformer is represented in the diagram below?

a)

Current

b)

Isolation

c)

Auto

d)

Voltage

164.

What type of transformer is used in domestic appliances to charge batteries where is no direct electrical connection?

a)

Current

b)

Instrument

c)

Induction

d)

Auto

165.

How many conductors (not contactors) are necessary to connect a three-phase induction motor in both Star and Delta?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

6

d)

7

166.

Which load range indicates the maximum efficiency for an induction motor?

a)

0 to 30%

b)

35 to 40 %

c)

60 to 80%

d)

90 to 100%

167.

How are the start and run windings arranged in a split-phase induction motor?

a)

45 electrical degrees apart

b)

90 electrical degrees apart

c)

120 electrical degrees apart

d)

180 electrical degrees apart

168.

Which type of single-phase motor is most suitable for driving electric clocks?

a)

Capacitor start

b)

Split-phase

c)

Capacitor run

d)

Shaded pole

169.

Why is the supply to the rotor of a series universal motor connected using brushes and a commutator?

a)

To give a method of speed control

b)

To allow operation on ac and dc

c)

To allow the motor to reverse

d)

To give a better power factor

170.

Which action explains the operation of a phase protection relay in detecting the loss of one phase of the supply?

a)

A higher current flow in the remaining phases heats the bi-metal trip mechanism

b)

The hold in relay in the faulty phase trips to open the contactor

c)

A detection of current imbalance by a current transformer trips the contactor

d)

The voltage between the remaining phases increases, causing the contactor trip

171.

1. Which types of rotor is used in an alternator designed for low-speed operation?

a)

Cylindrical

b)

Permanent magnet

c)

Two pole

d)

Salient pole

172.

What is the most common fault when operating portable alternators?

a)

Failure of prime mover

b)

Brush gear failure

c)

Failure in excitation

d)

Bearing failure

173.

What is an advantage of using terminal strips with links for cable connection in a control panel?

a)

To assist fault-finding

b)

To prevent faults occurring

c)

To identify components

d)

To improve earthing

174.

What is the EMC purpose of earthing control panels?

a)

To reduce the source of electromagnetic radiation

b)

To filter the frequency output of a variable drive

c)

To provide a ground connection for high-frequency cable shielding

d)

To protect against electromagnetic radiated interference

175.

What is the purpose of maintenance?

a)

To keep plant in correct working order

b)

To repair faults in failed equipment

c)

To commission new plant

d)

To increase downtime

176.

Which type of maintenance is determined by using records of bearing failure and replacement?

a)

Breakdown

b)

Preventative

c)

Corrective

d)

Predictive

177.

What is the effect on the maintenance plan if an item of equipment repeatedly fails between scheduled annual maintenance?

a)

Maintenance intervals are decreased

b)

Maintenance intervals are increased

c)

Maintenance intervals are doubled

d)

Maintenance intervals are unchanged

178.

What is the purpose of detailing recommendations based on analysis of previous maintenance records?

a)

To inform future requirements

b)

To increase downtime

c)

To reduce turnover

d)

To inform on operative efficiency

179.

What is the likely cause of a low value of insulation resistance on a single-phase motor?

a)

It has been running on load

b)

It has run overspeed

c)

It has absorbed moisture

d)

It has been overloaded

180.

What will cause an RCD protecting a washing machine to trip?

a)

Excessive runtime

b)

Earth fault to the case

c)

Fuse blown in the supply line

d)

Short-circuit between line and neutral

181.

What is the likely cause of failure of a newly installed compact fluorescent light when it is switched on?

a)

It is controlled by a double pole switch

b)

It is incompatible with a dimmer switch

c)

The power rating is too low

d)

The power rating is too high

182.

What is a common cause of overheating in a three-phase motor?

a)

The motor is on light load

b)

The ventilation is poor

c)

Intermittent earth fault

d)

No load on the motor

183.

What is indicated by a low insulation resistance between lines L1 and L2 of a star-connected stator of a three-phase motor?

a)

Faulty insulation in phases 1 and 2

b)

Faulty insulation in phase 1 or 2

c)

Faulty insulation in all phases

d)

Faulty insulation in any phase

184.

What must be done to an approved voltage indicator immediately before its use?

a)

It must be fully calibrated

b)

It must be fitted with a shunt

c)

It must be tested for insulation resistance

d)

It must be checked against a known supply

185.

Which conductors are combined at the origin of an installation as part of an MEN system?

a)

L1 and N

b)

PE and L2

c)

PE and N

d)

L1 and L2

186.

1. What type of system uses MEN?

a)

TT

b)

TN-S

c)

IT

d)

TN-C-S

187.

What is the purpose of an earth electrode in a TT system?

a)

To ensure equipotential bonding

b)

To protect against indirect contact

c)

To make an effective contact with the mass of earth

d)

To bring exposed conductive parts to the same potential

188.

Which factor will effect the impedance of an earth fault loop path?

a)

Type of insulation used

b)

Change in the value of R

c)

Type of overcurrent device used

d)

CSA of the line conductor

189.

Where must the value of R1 + R2 be measured on a circuit to calculate maximum earth fault loop impedance?

a)

At the origin of the circuit

b)

At the furthest point of the circuit

c)

At each point of utilization

d)

At the installation supply terminals

190.

1. What condition must be satisfied to ensure co-ordination between protective devices and conductors?

a)

Ib ≤ In ≤ Iz

b)

Ib ≥ In ≤ Iz

c)

Ib ≤ In ≥ Iz

d)

Ib ≥ In ≥ Iz

191.

what does an RCD provide protection against?

a)

Earth leakage

b)

Overload

c)

Undervoltage

d)

Overvoltage

192.

What is the potential hazard of undervoltage for motor circuits?

a)

Earth fault leakage

b)

Excessive bearing wear

c)

Circuit breaker failure to reset

d)

Automatic restarting on supply restoration

193.

What must be ensured before conducting the visual inspection of a new installation?

a)

The installation is energized

b)

The installation is isolated

c)

All switches are in the ‘on’ position

d)

All voltage sensitive devices are removed

194.

What is the recommended maximum voltage drop between supply origin and equipment in a consumers’ installation?

a)

2%

b)

4%

c)

6%

d)

8%

195.

What is included in the fundamental principles of ‘protection for safety’ in the Saudi building code 401?

a)

Persons, livestock and property

b)

Employees, livestock and property

c)

Persons, switchgear and equipment

d)

Employees, equipment and switchgear

196.

Which method of protection against indirect contact detects earth leakage?

a)

Extra-low voltage

b)

Class II equipment

c)

Electrical separation

d)

Residual current device

197.

What color is used to identify emergency switching devices?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Yellow

198.

Which type of board is normally used to supply single-phase radial lighting circuits?

a)

Main LV switchboard

b)

Sub-distribution board

c)

Final distribution board

d)

Main HV switchboard

199.

Why must creepage be considered at the design stage of a busbar system?

a)

To prevent insulator tracking

b)

To reduce voltage drop

c)

To prevent high resistance

d)

To reduce insulation thickness

200.

Which is a type of telephone transmitter?

a)

Dispersion

b)

Chemical

c)

Refractive

d)

CapacItive

201.

What is the main hazard when using polarized capacitors?

a)

Sharp edges

b)

Overheating

c)

Leaking electrolyte

d)

Toxicity

202.

What is the main purpose of telecommunication cable surge suppression?

a)

To dissipate unwanted heat

b)

To improve data transfer rates

c)

To reduce noise pickup

d)

To reduce voltage transients

203.

Which type of fixing device is used to attach telecommunication cables to a hard wall in a vertical shaft?

a)

Ties

b)

Tap

c)

Cleats

d)

Clips

204.

Which type of tool is used to terminate Cat 5 cables?

a)

Pressing tool

b)

Compression tool

c)

Setting tool

d)

Crimping tool