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Paper two mock test (by Dannymax)

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a common symptom of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Tachypnea

d)

Hypoglycemis

2.

Which neurotransmitter is primarily deficient in Parkinson’s disease?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Dopamine

c)

Serotonin

d)

Gabapentin

3.

Which condition results from a sudden interruption of blood supply to the brain?

a)

Epilepsy

b)

Stroke

c)

Parkinson’s disease

d)

Meningitis

4.

A positive Brudzinski's sign is indicative of which condition?

a)

Encephalopathy

b)

Meningitis

c)

Parkinsonism

d)

Multiple sclerosis

5.

Which of the following is most associated with Alzheimer’s disease?

a)

Destruction of dopaminergic neurons

b)

Inflammation of the meninges

c)

Formation of neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques

d)

Elevated intracranial pressure

6.

A patient is prescribed 1000 mL of Normal Saline to be infused over 8 hours. What is the flow rate in mL/hr?

a)

175 mL/hr

b)

150 mL/hr

c)

125 mL/hr

d)

100 mL/hr

7.

A doctor orders 500 mL of IV fluid to be given over 5 hours. What is the drip rate in drops per minute if the drop factor is 20 drops/mL?

a)

20 drops/min

b)

50 drops/min

c)

25 drops/Mins

d)

33 drops/min

8.

. A child weighing 10 kg is to be given a drug at 5 mg/kg/day in 2 divided doses. What is the dose per administration?

a)

10 mg

b)

20 mg

c)

25 mg

d)

50 mg

9.

The mitral valve is located between the:

a)

Right atrium and right ventricle

b)

Right ventricle and pulmonary artery

c)

Left atrium and left ventricle

d)

Left ventricle and aorta

10.

The central nervous system includes the:

A. Brain and spinal cord

B. Brain and cranial nerves

C. Spinal cord and peripheral nerves

D. Autonomic and somatic ner

ves

a)

Brain and spinal cord

b)

Brain and cranial nerves

c)

Spinal cord and peripheral nerves

d)

Autonomic and somatic nerves

11.

Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Brainstem

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Hypothalamus

12.

Which of the following is short key to open a new window in a computer

a)

Ctrl +N

b)

Ctrl z

c)

Ctrl N

d)

Ctrl O

13.

The hormone responsible for stimulating uterine contractions is:

a)

Estrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Prolactin

14.

The main muscle responsible for breathing is the ??

a)

Abdominal muscle

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Intercostal muscle

d)

Pectoralis major

15.

The thickest layer of the heart wall is the:

a)

Endocardium

b)

Pericardium

c)

Epicardium

d)

Myocardium

e)

All of the above

16.

Which vitamin is essential for calcium absorption?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Vitamin k

17.

Which artery supplies the heart muscle with oxygenated blood?

a)

Carotid artery

b)

Pulmonary artery

c)

Coronary artery

d)

Aorta

18.

Which cranial nerve is responsible for vision?

a)

(CN II

b)

(CN III

c)

CN Iv

d)

CN V

19.

Which structure produces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

a)

Pituitary gland

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Corpus callosum

d)

Choroid plexus

20.

Which diagnostic test confirms myocardial infarction?

a)

Cba

b)

X-ray

c)

Tropornin level

d)

Ecg

21.

Signs of hypoglycemia include:

a)

Fruity breath

b)

Increased thirst

c)

Sweating and tremors

d)

Slow heart rate

22.

A patient with renal failure will most likely have:

a)

Decreased BUN and creatinine

b)

Increased urine output

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

23.

Which of the following is a complication of hypertension?

a)

Glaucoma

b)

Stroke

c)

Appendicitis

d)

Fracture

24.

What is the best time to administer insulin?

a)

Immediately after meals

b)

With bedtime snack

c)

Before meals

d)

Only when blood sugar is high

25.

When is patient discharge planned

a)

Before admission

b)

After admission

c)

During admission

d)

On Review

26.

. A nurse is caring for a burn patient. Which fluid is preferred in the first 24 hours?

a)

Dextrose 5%

b)

Normal saline

c)

Lactated Ringer’s

d)

Half normal saline

27.

A hallmark symptom of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is:

a)

Wheezing and chronic cough

b)

Chest pain and fever

c)

Vomiting and diarrhea

d)

Muscle weakness

28.

When administering digoxin, the nurse must monitor:

a)

Blood sugar

b)

Respiration rate

c)

Heart rate

d)

Temperature

29.

The primary sign of hypovolemic shock is:

a)

Hypertension

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Vomit

d)

Tachycardia

30.

The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses:

a)

Pupil reaction

b)

Seizure frequency

c)

Level of consciousness

d)

Level of anxiety

31.

Which of these medications can cause ototoxicity?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Furosemide

d)

Amoxicillin

32.

When caring for a patient on a nasogastric tube, the best position is:

a)

Supine

b)

Trendelenburg

c)

High Fowlers

d)

Left lateral

33.

The purpose of incentive spirometry post-op is to:

a)

Relieve pain

b)

Clear secretions

c)

Prevent pneumonia

d)

Improve appetite

34.

Which condition presents with a butterfly rash on the face?

a)

Psoriasis

b)

Lupus erythematosus

c)

Eczema

d)

Acne

35.

A major complication of uncontrolled diabetes is:

a)

Asthma

b)

Retinopathy

c)

Appendicitis

d)

Scurvy

36.

Which symptom is expected in hyperthyroidism?

a)

Weight gain

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Cold intolerance

d)

Heat intolerance

37.

A priority nursing action for a patient with active TB is:

a)

Start antibiotics

b)

Provide oxygen

c)

Isolate the patient

d)

Obtain blood cultures

38.

A common cause of peptic ulcer disease is:

a)

Streptococcus

b)

H. pylori

c)

Staphylococcus

d)

Candida

39.

Which lab test indicates renal function?

a)

ALT

b)

Creatinine

c)

Platelet count

d)

Hematocrit

40.

When caring for a patient with ascites, the nurse should monitor:

a)

Abdominal girth

b)

Calf circumference

c)

Lung sounds

d)

Fingerstick glucose

41.

During a transfusion reaction, the first action is to:

a)

Call the physician

b)

Stop the transfusion

c)

Administer epinephrine

d)

Check vitals

42.

The most common cause of death in burns is:

a)

Pain

b)

Infection

c)

Hypothermia

d)

Hypovolemic

43.

The primary goal of mental health nursing is to:

a)

Cure mental illness

b)

Promote self-care and coping

c)

Enforce medication compliance

d)

Avoid hospitalization

44.

A patient who hears voices that others do not hear is experiencing:

a)

Delusion

b)

Hallucination

c)

Illusion

d)

Obsession

45.

A fixed, false belief that cannot be changed by logic is called a:

a)

Phobia

b)

Illusion

c)

Hallucination

d)

Delusion

46.

The drug of choice for schizophrenia is:

a)

Diazepam

b)

Haloperidol

c)

Amitriptyline

d)

Lithium

47.

. A patient says, “I’m worthless and a failure.” This indicates:

a)

Mania

b)

Anxiety

c)

Depression

d)

Paranoia

48.

. The best nursing intervention for a patient with auditory hallucinations is:

a)

Ignore the hallucinations

b)

Tell the patient the voices are not real

c)

Ask what the voices are saying

d)

Increase the medication dose

49.

ECT (Electroconvulsive Therapy) is most commonly used for:

a)

Schizophrenia

b)

Mania

c)

Severe depression

d)

Anxiety disorder

50.

. A patient with PTSD often experiences:

a)

Hallucinations

b)

Flashbacks and nightmares

c)

Mood swings

d)

Memory loss

51.

A phobia is best described as:

a)

A false belief

b)

. A type of obsession

c)

A conversion disorder

d)

A persistent, irrational fear

52.

Which neurotransmitter is decreased in depression?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Serotonin

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Gabapentin

53.

A patient who states, “I am God, I cannot die,” is expressing:

a)

Grandiose delusion

b)

Religious hallucination

c)

Paranoid thought

d)

Magical thinking

54.

  1. The hormone responsible for ovulation is:

a)

Estrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

Luteinizing hormone

d)

Follicle stimulating hormone

55.

The normal duration of a menstrual cycle is:

a)

14 days

b)

21–35 days

c)

28–40 days

d)

35days

56.

The primary function of progesterone is ??

a)

Induce ovulation

b)

Develop secondary sex characteristics

c)

Maintain endometrial lining

d)

Stimulate lactation

57.

Which of the following is a danger sign in pregnancy?

a)

Morning sickness

b)

Frequent urination

c)

Vaginal bleeding

d)

Breast tenderness

58.

Quickening in pregnancy refers to:

a)

First fetal heartbeat

b)

Fetal descent

c)

. Cervical softening

d)

First fetal movement felt by the mother

59.

Chadwick’s sign in pregnancy refers to:

A. Bluish discoloration of the cervix

a)

Bluish discoloration of the cervix

b)

Softening of the cervix

c)

Uterine contraction

d)

Breast enlargement

60.

. The ideal time to perform a breast self-examination is:

a)

During menstruation

b)

On the first day of menstruation

c)

During ovulation

d)

7 days after menstruation

61.

. A woman who has never been pregnant is termed:

a)

Nulliparous

b)

Primigravida

c)

Nulligravida

d)

Multipara

62.

Which method of contraception provides protection against STIs?

a)

Oral contraceptive pills

b)

Condoms

c)

IUD

d)

Injectable contraceptives

63.

Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as blood loss of more than:

a)

250 mL

b)

350ml

c)

1,000mL

d)

500ml

64.

. The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is:

a)

Ovary

b)

Cervix

c)

Peritoneum

d)

Fallopian tube

65.

  1. A Pap smear is used to detect:

a)

Uterine fibrosis

b)

Cervical cancer

c)

Vaginitis

d)

Breast cancer

66.

. Which condition is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema in pregnancy?

a)

Placenta previa

b)

Eclampsia

c)

Pre-eclampsia

d)

Abruptio placentae

67.

The drug of choice for preventing seizures in pre-eclampsia is:

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Methyldopa

c)

Nifedipine

d)

Magnesium sulfate

68.

The most effective time to administer oxytocin is:

a)

During pregnancy

b)

After delivery of the placenta

c)

Before delivery

d)

first stage of labor

69.

The Apgar score is used to assess:

a)

Mother’s recovery

b)

Labor progress

c)

Newborn’s physical condition

d)

Placenta condition

70.

The fetal heart rate is normally:

a)

60–100 bpm

b)

100–120 bpm

c)

120–160 bpm

d)

160–200 bpm

71.

The normal duration of pregnancy is:

a)

36weeks

b)

38 weeks

c)

40 weeks

d)

45weeks

72.

The first immunization given to a newborn is:

a)

BCG

b)

Polio

c)

Hepatitis B

d)

Vitamin k

73.

Which is the best indicator of true labor?

a)

Irregular contractions

b)

Cervical dilation

c)

Abdominal pain

d)

Fetal descent

74.

The leading cause of maternal mortality in developing countries is:

a)

Sepsis

b)

Hemorrhage

c)

Obstructed labor

d)

Hypertension

75.

Lochia rubra is seen in which period?

a)

First 24 hours postpartum

b)

Days 1–3 postpartum

c)

Day 7 postpartum

d)

Third week postpartum

76.

Which term describes the number of pregnancies carried beyond 20 weeks?

a)

Gravida

b)

Parity

c)

Abortion

d)

Nulliparity

77.

The most reliable sign of pregnancy is:

a)

Missed period

b)

Fetal heartbeat

c)

Morning sickness

d)

Breast changes

78.

The safest contraceptive method for a lactating mother is:

a)

Combined oral contraceptives

b)

Copper T

c)

Progesterone-only pill

d)

Diaphragm

79.

Which of the following is a sign of ovulation?

a)

Decrease in body temperature

b)

Mittelschmerz (mid-cycle pain)

c)

Breast engorgement

d)

Cervical mucus becomes thick

80.

What is the range of the following number

25,40,30,10,90,200,100

a)

247.5

b)

190

c)

190.5

d)

495

81.

Colostrum is rich in:

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Immunoglobulins

c)

Water

d)

Calcium

82.

The primary purpose of nursing research is to:

a)

Generate income for hospitals

b)

Improve patient care

c)

Replace nursing theories

d)

Publish in journals

83.

In research, a hypothesis is:

a)

A proven fact

b)

. A question to be answered

c)

. A prediction to be tested

d)

A variable

84.

A variable that is manipulated by the researcher is called:

a)

Dependent variable

b)

Independent variable

c)

Extraneous variable

d)

Confounding variable

85.

The final step in the research process is:

a)

Data collection

b)

Data analysis

c)

Problem identification

d)

Dissemination of findings

86.

The “population” in research refers to ??

a)

Only the patients in a hospital

b)

The group from which data is collected

c)

. All citizens of a country

d)

The number of researchers

87.

. A Likert scale is used to:

a)

Measure weight

b)

Test blood pressure

c)

Assess attitudes or opinions

d)

Rank patients by age

88.

Which research design studies cause-and-effect relationships?

a)

Descriptive

b)

Historical

c)

Experimental

d)

Case study

89.
a)

Urethra,penial muscle and the retum

b)

Urethra,penis bladder and rectum

c)

Penis , penial muscle, prostate,and lower intestine

d)

Ureter, penis, testis and large intestine

90.
a)

The cervix which let sperm in and menstrual blood out

b)

The vagina which receive the pain during intercourse

c)

The vagina which connect the vulva to the cervix

d)

The uterus ans it holds the fetus

91.
a)

Ground theories

b)

Conceptual models

c)

Paradigms

d)

Theories and concept

92.
a)

Cost minimization

b)

Quality adjusted life years

c)

Cost utility analysis

d)

Profit maximization

93.
a)

Impotence

b)

Cryptorchidism

c)

Castration

d)

Paedogenesis

94.
a)

Gerald McGregor

b)

David motley

c)

Harold butcher

d)

Moorhead sup

95.

The following are current trend of entrepreneurship practice except

a)

Internship

b)

Innovation

c)

Organic and natural

d)

Partnership

96.

Which of the following is a qualitative research method?

a)

Survey

b)

Randomized control trial

c)

Case study

d)

Experimental design

97.

A research problem is:

a)

An opinion

b)

An unanswered question

c)

A known fact

d)

Always complex

98.

Reliability in research refers to:

a)

Accuracy of results

b)

Consistency of results

c)

Validity of tools

d)

Ease of analysis

99.

Data that can be counted or measured is called:

a)

Qualitative data

b)

Subjective data

c)

Numerical data

d)

Quantitative data

100.

Validity refers to:

a)

Ability to replicate findings

b)

Precision of data entry

c)

Accuracy of measurement

d)

Honesty of the researcher

101.

The branch of statistics that deals with health-related data is called:

a)

Economics

b)

Epidemiology

c)

Biostatistics

d)

Sociology

102.

Which of the following is a measure of central tendency?

a)

Range

b)

Median

c)

Standard deviation

d)

Variance

103.

. The mean of the values 4, 6, 8, 10, 12 is:

a)

8

b)

10

c)

9

d)

6

104.

The concept of “anonymity” means:

a)

Participants are named

b)

Participants can be traced

c)

Participants cannot be identified

d)

Researchers are anonymous

105.

. Which scale of measurement classifies data into categories with no order?

a)

Nominal

b)

Ordinal

c)

Interval

d)

Ratio

106.

A p-value less than 0.05 in hypothesis testing means:

a)

Results are invalid

b)

Null hypothesis is accepted

c)

Result is statistically significant

d)

Study should be repeated

107.

Which of the following is a continuous variable?

a)

Gender

b)

Age

c)

Religion

d)

Marital status

108.

When data are ranked or ordered, it is:

a)

Nominal scale

b)

Ordinal scale

c)

Interval scale

d)

Ratio scale

109.

Which of the following is a parametric test?

a)

Chi-square test

b)

Mann-Whitney U test

c)

t-test

d)

Kruskal-Wallis test

110.

. The color code for immediate care in triage is:

a)

Red

b)

Yellow

c)

Green

d)

Black

111.

The first step in performing CPR is to:

a)

Begin compressions

b)

Check responsiveness

c)

Give breaths

d)

Call for help

112.

Disaster nursing includes all EXCEPT:

a)

Triage

b)

Psychological support

c)

Personal safety

d)

Long-term treatment planning

113.

Which organ is most sensitive to hypoxia?

a)

Liver

b)

Brain

c)

Kidney

d)

Skin

114.

. What is the first priority in emergency care?

a)

Blood pressure monitoring

b)

Temperature check

c)

Maintaining airway

d)

Administering oxygen

115.

A nurse suspects spinal injury in a trauma victim. The first action is to:

a)

Move the patient to comfort

b)

Immobilize the neck

c)

Give oral fluids

d)

Apply heat

116.

Which level of disaster can be managed by local resources?

a)

Level I

b)

Level II

c)

Level III

d)

Level IV

117.

. Emergency nurses must be skilled in:

a)

Entertainment

b)

Public health lectures

c)

Critical decision-making

d)

Political lobbying

118.

Nurses can influence policy by:

a)

Avoiding politics

b)

Voting and advocacy

c)

Being passive observers

d)

Focusing only on patient

119.

The most effective way nurses contribute to policy development is through:

a)

Isolation

b)

Writing anonymously

c)

Collective professional action

d)

Avoiding unionism

120.

The policymaking process begins with:

a)

Evaluation

b)

Implementation

c)

Budget allocation

d)

Problem identification

121.

example of a health-related public policy is:

a)

Minimum wage bill

b)

Child Right Act

c)

National Health Insurance Authority Act

d)

Electoral Act

122.

Data analytics in healthcare primarily aims to:

a)

Reduce patient complaints

b)

Analyze large amounts of data for improved decision-making

c)

Limit access to healthcare systems

d)

Improve healthcare administration only

123.

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing shortness of breath. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

a)

Administering a bronchodilator as prescribed

b)

Increasing the oxygen flow rate immediately

c)

Encouraging the patient to cough and clear secretions

d)

Instructing the patient to lie flat to facilitate breathing

124.

  1. A patient with a history of diabetes is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to manage the patient’s blood glucose levels during the perioperative period?

a)

Discontinue insulin therapy for 24 hours prior to surgery

b)

Administer insulin as prescribed, monitoring blood glucose levels closely

c)

Encourage the patient to eat a high-carb meal before surgery

d)

Restrict fluid intake to prevent hyperglycemia

125.

A nurse is teaching a patient about the proper use of crutches following a leg injury. Which statement by the patient indicates that further teaching is needed?

a)

I will bear weight on my hands, not my armpits, when using crutches.”

b)

I should use the crutches to help me balance when walking.”

c)

“I will keep the crutches under my arms to avoid falling.

d)

I should make sure the crutches are adjusted to the proper height.”

126.

126 Drug used in status asthmaticus refractory to inhaled bronchodilators:

a)

Ipratropium alone as first line? But IV magnesium sulfate is used as adjunct in severe status asthmaticus

b)

Oral beta blockers

c)

Warfarin

d)

Atenolol

127.

A patient with MRSA skin infection — an appropriate oral antibiotic option is:

a)

Penicillin V

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Doxycycline

only

d)

Vancomycin oral (not for systemic), but oral options include clindamycin or TMP-SMX depending on susceptibility

128.

A patient receiving warfarin starts rifampicin likely effect on INR:

a)

No change

b)

Increase INR

c)

Decrease INR (rifampicin induces hepatic enzymes → reduces warfarin effect)

d)

Cause hyperkalemia

129.

A patient on warfarin needs H. pylori eradication which antibiotic potentiates warfarin effect?

a)

Nitrofurantoin

b)

Amoxicillin (safe)

c)

Clarithromycin (increases warfarin levels)

d)

Doxycycline

130.

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is suspected when platelet count falls by >50% after heparin next step:

a)

Give warfarin right away

b)

Stop heparin and start direct thrombin inhibitor (e.g., argatroban) or fondaparinux

c)

Continue heparin and observe

d)

Give platelet transfusion immediately

131.

Overnutrition results when:

a)

Calorie intake exceeds body needs

b)

Calorie intake is low

c)

Water is excess

d)

Food lacks minerals

132.

The normal BMI range for adults is:

a)

30

b)

18.5–24.9

c)

10–20

d)

2

133.

Which of these is a macronutrient?

a)

Iron

b)

Protein

c)

Iodine

d)

Zinc

134.

The richest source of Vitamin A is:

a)

Bread

b)

Rice

c)

Yam

d)

Palm oil

135.

The energy yielding nutrients are;

a)

Carbohydrate, protein, fat

b)

Vitamin, fat, water

c)

Mineral, protein, water

d)

Water, fat , mineral

136.

The best substitute for breast milk is:

a)

Cow milk

b)

Infant formula

c)

Water

d)

Tea

137.

The main function of Vitamin E is:

a)

Antioxidant protection

b)

Bone formation

c)

Blood clotting

d)

Vision

138.

. A balanced diet includes how many classes of food?

a)

Four

b)

Seven

c)

Six

d)

Eight

139.

The diet given immediately after surgery is:

a)

Soft diet

b)

Clear fluid diet

c)

Normal diet

d)

Solid diet

140.

The nurse’s role in diet therapy includes:

a)

Avoiding food discussions

b)

Planning and supervising patient meals

c)

Administering drugs only

d)

Ignoring patient diet

141.

During vomiting, the nurse should:

a)

Keep patient flat

b)

Turn patient to side

c)

Raise legs

d)

Hold mouth closed

142.

The first step in CPR is:

a)

Check pulse immediately

b)

Start chest compression

c)

. Assess responsiveness and call for help

d)

Give rescue breath

143.

The normal body temperature in Celsius is:

a)

. 35–37°C

b)

37-38°C

c)

36.5-37.5 ⁰C

d)

38–39°C

144.

Before any nursing procedure, the nurse should do first ;

a)

Explain procedure to patient

b)

Wash hands

c)

Record

d)

Get equipment ready

145.

The best way to prevent pressure ulcers is:

a)

Changing linen daily

b)

Use of ointments

c)

Frequent turning of patient

d)

Feeding well

146.

The first action when a patient falls from bed is to:

a)

Shout for help

b)

Report to doctor immediately

c)

Check for injury and vital signs

d)

Record in the file

147.

The key characteristic of a holistic nurse is:

a)

Administering injections only

b)

Working only in wards

c)

Focusing on disease alone

d)

Caring for body, mind, and spirit

148.

The professional body regulating nursing in Nigeria is:

a)

NANNM

b)

WHO

c)

NMA

d)

NMCN

149.

) A nurse’s responsibility when a doctor makes an error in prescription is to:

a)

Keep quiet

b)

Correct the doctor

c)

Clarify before administration

d)

Administer as written

150.

Confidentiality in nursing refers to:

a)

Discussing patient issues openly

b)

Writing all data on the board

c)

Informing relatives without permission

d)

Keeping patient information private

151.

The nurse patient relationship should be:

a)

Social

b)

Casual

c)

Therapeutic

d)

Intimate

152.

The most important characteristic of a professional nurse is:

a)

Obedience

b)

Appearance

c)

Humor

d)

Empathy

153.

A nursing diagnosis is made to:

a)

Record laboratory results

b)

Identify the patient’s disease

c)

State the medical condition

d)

Identify patient’s response to health problems

154.

The nursing process is best described as:

a)

A doctor’s order list

b)

A documentation format

c)

A scientific problem solving approach

d)

A patient care manual

155.

The primary goal of nursing is to:

a)

Cure diseases

b)

Assist doctors in treatment

c)

Promote health and prevent illness

d)

Administer drugs

156.

Referral system in PHC ensures:

a)

Patient transfer to village

b)

Continuity of care

c)

Dismissal of clients

d)

Stopping treatment

157.

Safe water supply and sanitation prevent:

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Typhoid and cholera

c)

Measles

d)

Malaria only

158.

Which is a permanent method of family planning?

a)

Condom

b)

Vasectomy

c)

Pill

d)

Withdrawal

159.

Condoms prevent:

a)

STIs and pregnancy

b)

Typhoid

c)

Malaria

d)

Measles

160.

The best method of natural family planning is:

a)

Condom

b)

Calendar method

c)

IUCD

d)

Injection

161.

Colostrum is rich in:

a)

Sugar

b)

Starch

c)

Antibodies

d)

Fat

162.

Exclusive breastfeeding should last for:

a)

3 months

b)

6 months

c)

4 months

d)

9 months

163.

Kwashiorkor results from deficiency of:

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Fat

164.

Which committee supports PHC at ward level?

a)

Hospital board

b)

Village Council

c)

Ward Development Committee

d)

State Assembly

165.

Community diagnosis helps to:

a)

Prevent research

b)

Identify community health needs

c)

Collect hospital data

d)

Cure diseases

166.

The smallest unit of PHC delivery is the:

a)

Local government

b)

Ward

c)

Village

d)

Household

167.

. Health education messages must be:

a)

Culturally acceptable

b)

Complex

c)

Scientific only

d)

Foreign

168.

The success of a PHC programme depends mainly on:

a)

Government funding only

b)

Foreign aid

c)

Doctors’ interest

d)

Adequate community involvement

169.

Community participation means:

a)

Doctors direct the people

b)

Nurses work alone

c)

Government decides alone

d)

. People involved in their health decisions

170.

The most important person in PHC is the:

a)

Nurse

b)

Community member

c)

Doctor

d)

Health officer

171.

The most important sign to monitor in a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is:

a)

Urine output

b)

Level of consciousness

c)

Bowel sounds

d)

Skin color

172.

. A patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) complains of sudden chest pain and dyspnea. This likely indicate ;

a)

Myocardial infarction

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

Asthma attack

173.

The priority nursing action when giving blood transfusion is to monitor for:

a)

Fever and chills

b)

Polyuria

c)

Constipation

d)

Skin rash only

174.

The best position for a patient after thyroidectomy to prevent complications is:

a)

Supine with neck extended

b)

High Fowler’s with neck in neutral position

c)

Trendelenburg

d)

Prone

175.

The biggest complication of uncontrolled long-term hypertension is:

a)

Oral thrush

b)

Kidney failure and stroke

c)

Peptic ulcer

d)

Appendicitis

176.

The priority nursing action for a patient experiencing chest pain suspected to be myocardial infarction is:

a)

Give oral fluids

b)

Administer sublingual nitroglycerin

c)

Allow the patient to walk around

d)

Encourage deep breathing exercises

177.

A patient with COPD is admitted with severe dyspnea. The best position to place this patient is:

a)

Trendelenburg

b)

Supine

c)

Lying on left lateral side

d)

High Fowler’s position

178.

The classic sign of left-sided heart failure is:

a)

Peripheral edema

b)

Jugular vein distention

c)

Pulmonary crackles and dyspnea

d)

Ascites

179.

A patient on warfarin therapy should be monitored primarily for:

a)

Serum potassium

b)

INR / PT

c)

Blood sugar

d)

Liver enzymes

180.

The most important intervention in preventing complications in a bedridden postoperative patient is:

a)

Giving more IV fluids

b)

Turning and repositioning frequently

c)

Increasing carbohydrate diet

d)

Giving sleeping pills at night

181.

A patient with acute hemorrhagic shock will most likely have:

a)

Hypertension and flushed skin

b)

Bradycardia and bounding pulses

c)

Polyuria

d)

Hypotension, tachycardia, cold clammy skin, and decreased urine output

182.

. A postoperative patient has a wound evisceration. The nurse should first:

a)

Cover the wound with sterile saline-moistened gauze and notify surgeon immediately

b)

Apply dry sterile dressing and call family

c)

Ambulate the patient

d)

Push the organs back in and suture the wound at bedside

183.

For a patient with acute pancreatitis, the nurse should:

a)

Administer laxatives to reduce pain

b)

Encourage oral intake of clear fluids immediately

c)

Keep patient NPO and provide IV fluids and pain control

d)

. Start a high-fat diet to stimulate pancreatic enzymes

184.

For a patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome, the nurse should monitor for:

a)

Progressive ascending weakness and respiratory compromise monitor vital capacity and be ready for ventilatory support

b)

Only sensory changes without motor involvement

c)

Localized rash only

d)

Immediate full recovery within 24 hours

185.

Which finding suggests myocardial ischemia on ECG?

a)

Tall P waves only

b)

Prolonged QT only

c)

ST-segment elevation indicates transmural infarction; ST depression or T-wave inversion may indicate ischemia

d)

Low-voltage QRS only

186.

Which condition leads to increased PaCO₂?

a)

Hyperventilation

b)

Fever

c)

Anxiety

d)

Hypoventilation

187.

What is the expected ABG change in a patient with asthma attack and CO₂ retention?

a)

pH increases, PaCO₂ decreases

b)

pH decreases, PaCO₂ increases

c)

pH normal, HCO₃⁻ decreases

d)

pH increases, PaCO₂ increases

188.

Which condition commonly causes respiratory alkalosis?

a)

Anxiety or hyperventilation

b)

COPD

c)

Renal failure

d)

Diarrhea

189.

ABG: pH 7.60, PaCO₂ 40 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 36 mEq/L is:

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Respiratory alkalosis

d)

Mixed acidosis

190.

A patient’s ABG result shows: pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 50 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L. What is the interpretation?

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

191.

ABG values: pH 7.18, PaCO₂ 28 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 12 mEq/L. This shows:

a)

Uncompensated metabolic acidosis

b)

Compensated respiratory acidosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Compensated metabolic alkalosis

192.

An IV infusion of 1000 mL normal saline is to run over 8 hours. The drop factor is 20 gtt/mL. What is the drip rate in gtt/min?

a)

20 gtt/min

b)

30 gtt/min

c)

40 gtt/min

d)

50 gtt/min

193.

A patient is prescribed 600 mg of a drug. The vial available is labeled 250 mg/mL. How many mL will the nurse administer?

a)

2.5mL

b)

1.5 mL

c)

2.4mL

d)

2 mL

194.

A child weighing 15 kg should receive paracetamol (acetaminophen) 15 mg/kg per dose. Available concentration: 120 mg/5 mL. How many mL should be given?

a)

6.25 mL

b)

9.4 mL

c)

8.0 mL

d)

12.5 mL

195.

An IV antibiotic bag 250 mL is to be infused over 30 minutes. What is the infusion rate in mL/hr?

A. 250 mL/hr

B. 375 mL/hr

C. 500 mL/hr

D. 750 mL/hr

a)

250 mL/hr

b)

375 mL/hr

c)

500 mL/hr

d)

750 mL/hr

196.

Enteral feed: 500 mL to run over 10 hours via gravity set (drop factor 15 gtt/mL). What is drip rate in gtt/min (rounded to nearest whole number)?

a)

8 gtt/min

b)

12 gtt/min

c)

20 gtt/min

d)

13 gtt/min

197.

The most specific blood test for diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction is:

a)

CK-MB

b)

Troponin I/T

c)

LDH

d)

Myoglobin

198.

The drug of choice for acute chest pain due to angina is:

a)

Digoxin

b)

Furosemide

c)

Nitro­glycerin

d)

Atropine

199.

Which ECG change is commonly seen in myocardial ischemia?

a)

ST elevation

b)

Tall peaked P waves

c)

Inverted T waves

d)

Widened QRS

200.

A newborn presents with a continuous “machinery-like” murmur and bounding pulses. The most likely congenital heart defect is:

a)

Tetralogy of Fallot

b)

Patent ductus arteriosus

c)

Atrial septal defect

d)

Coarctation of aorta

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