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WorksheetsTrang thiết bị cứu sinh hàng hải
Total questions: 199
Worksheet time: 7hrs 38mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
According to the text, what does "International Life-Saving Appliance (LSA) Code" refer to?
a)
A set of recommendations for lifeboat maintenance.
b)
The code adopted by the Maritime Safety Committee.
c)
A legal document for shipping insurance.
d)
A list of approved life-saving appliance manufacturers.
2.
What is a "launching appliance or arrangement"?
a)
A device used to signal distress.
b)
A method for safely transferring a survival craft to the water.
c)
A type of emergency radio.
d)
A system for storing life rafts.
3.
What does "float-free launching" describe?
a)
A manual launching process.
b)
The automatic release of a craft from a sinking ship.
c)
A system relying on inflatable chambers.
d)
A method of launching involving ropes and pulleys.
4.
What is an "immersion suit" designed to reduce?
a)
Dehydration
b)
Sea sickness
c)
Body heat loss in cold water
d)
Exposure to the sun
5.
An "inflatable appliance" depends on what for buoyancy?
a)
Rigid, gas-filled chambers
b)
Non-rigid, gas-filled chambers
c)
Water displacement
d)
External buoyancy tanks
6.
What is a "marine evacuation system" used for?
a)
Deploying flares
b)
Rapid transfer of persons from a ship to a survival craft.
c)
Launching lifeboats manually.
d)
Storing emergency provisions
7.
What does "positive stability" mean for a survival craft?
a)
Its ability to float.
b)
Its ability to right itself after heeling.
c)
Its capacity to hold a large number of people.
d)
Its resistance to high waves.
8.
What is included in the "recovery time" for a rescue boat?
a)
Only the time to retrieve the boat from the water.
b)
The time to prepare for recovery and raise the boat to the ship.
c)
The time to launch the rescue boat initially.
d)
The time to repair the boat after use.
9.
What is a "survival craft" capable of?
a)
Sustaining lives of persons in distress after abandoning ship.
b)
Only providing temporary shelter.
c)
Sending distress signals
d)
Providing basic first aid.
10.
What does "Retro-reflective material" do?
a)
Absorbs light
b)
Reflects light in the opposite direction
c)
Emits a bright light
d)
Changes color in low light
11.
According to the text, what does “Administration” mean?
a)
A shipping company
b)
A maritime classification society
c)
Maritime administration of the Flag state
d)
The International Maritime Organization
12.
What is the temperature range specified for the proper storage of life-saving appliances?
a)
0°C to 40°C
b)
-30°C to +65°C
c)
-10°C to +50°C
d)
10°C to 30°C
13.
What is a life-saving appliance required to be resistant to?
a)
Rot
b)
Corrosion
c)
Sunlight
d)
Fungal attack
14.
How should life-saving appliances be marked?
a)
With the manufacturer's name only.
b)
With an expiry date and approval information.
c)
With a serial number.
d)
With the crew's initials
15.
How often should batteries without an expiry date be replaced?
a)
Every two years
b)
Annually
c)
Every five years
d)
Only when they stop functioning
16.
What is "detection" in the context of life-saving equipment?
a)
The process of repairing damaged equipment
b)
Determining the location of survivors or survival craft
c)
Launching the lifeboats.
d)
Signaling for help
17.
What is an "Embarkation ladder" used for?
a)
Accessing the ship's bridge
b)
Climbing to the crows nest
c)
Safe access to survival craft after launching
d)
Reaching the main mast
18.
What is "free-fall launching"?
a)
Launching a craft by hand.
b)
Launching a craft with restraining apparatus.
c)
Launching a craft whereby it's automatically released and falls into the sea.
d)
Launching a craft using a crane.
19.
What is the meaning of the term "Organization" as used in this context?
a)
A national maritime authority.
b)
IMO, with all its committees.
c)
A ship-owning company.
d)
A classification society
20.
What does "Regulation" refer to in this document?
a)
A recommendation
b)
A suggestion
c)
A regulation in the annex to the convention
d)
An internal company policy
21.
Lifebuoys must be readily accessible from:
a)
Only the bridge.
b)
Only the stern.
c)
Both sides of the ship and all open decks.
d)
Only the forecastle.
22.
The minimum length of a buoyant lifeline on a lifebuoy is:
a)
15 meters.
b)
20 meters.
c)
Twice the height above the waterline, or 30 meters.
d)
40 meters.
23.
At least half of all lifebuoys must be equipped with:
a)
A whistle.
b)
A buoyant lifeline.
c)
Self-igniting lights.
d)
A painter.
24.
In addition to lights, a minimum number of lifebuoys must also have:
a)
Spare buoyant lifelines
b)
Self-activating smoke signals
c)
Radar reflectors
d)
Whistles
25.
Lifebuoys must be clearly marked with the ship's:
a)
IMO number and flag.
b)
Name and port of registry.
c)
Call sign and tonnage.
d)
Last inspection date and location.
26.
The number of lifejackets required is based on:
a)
The number of crew only.
b)
The number of passengers only.
c)
The total number of persons on board.
d)
The ship's size and tonnage.
27.
A minimum number of lifejackets suitable for children must be carried, equivalent to at least:
a)
5% of passengers.
b)
10% of passengers.
c)
15% of passengers.
d)
20% of passengers.
28.
Where are lifejackets for personnel on watch typically stowed?
a)
In a central locker.
b)
In the crew's mess.
c)
On the bridge, engine room, and watch stations.
d)
In the captain's cabin.
29.
Lifejackets must be:
a)
Permanently secured.
b)
Readily accessible.
c)
Hidden from view.
d)
Stored in waterproof containers.
30.
Lifejackets in totally enclosed lifeboats (except free-fall) must not interfere with:
a)
The lifeboat's davits.
b)
Entry into the lifeboat, seating, or seat belts.
c)
The lifeboat's buoyancy.
d)
The lifeboat's radio equipment.
31.
Lifejackets for free-fall lifeboats must ensure:
a)
Quick deployment.
b)
Easy access from the bridge.
c)
No interference with entry, safety, or operation.
d)
Compatibility with all lifeboats.
32.
Crew assigned to the rescue boat or marine evacuation system should have:
a)
Standard lifejackets.
b)
Immersion suits or anti-exposure suits.
c)
Thermal protective aids.
d)
Simple rain gear
33.
Immersion suits may be unnecessary in:
a)
Cold climates.
b)
Arctic conditions.
c)
Warm climates, at the Administration's discretion.
d)
High-seas conditions.
34.
Without assistance, an immersion suit should be donned in under:
a)
1 minute
b)
2 minutes
c)
3 minutes
d)
5 minutes
35.
An immersion suit must prevent what from happening in a fire?
a)
Melting
b)
Burning
c)
Sustained burning or continued melting
d)
Cracking
36.
Immersion suits typically cover the entire body except:
a)
The head and hands
b)
The face and hands (unless gloves attached).
c)
The feet
d)
The torso
37.
A person wearing an immersion suit must be able to jump from a height of at least:
a)
2 meters
b)
3 meters
c)
4.5 meters
d)
6 meters
38.
An immersion suit that meets lifejacket standards is also classified as a:
a)
Thermal protective aid.
b)
Anti-exposure suit.
c)
Lifejacket.
d)
Survival craft.
39.
Immersion suits without inherent insulation require the wearer to use:
a)
Underwater breathing apparatus.
b)
Additional buoyancy aids.
c)
Warm clothing.
d)
A helmet.
40.
Anti-exposure suits provide a minimum inherent buoyancy of:
a)
20 N
b)
50 N
c)
70 N
d)
100 N
41.
Anti-exposure suits are designed to reduce the risk of:
a)
Drowning.
b)
Hypothermia.
c)
Heat stress.
d)
Sea sickness
42.
An anti-exposure suit must be donned without assistance within:
a)
1 minute.
b)
2 minutes.
c)
3 minutes.
d)
5 minutes.
43.
When fully engulfed in fire, an anti-exposure suit must not continue:
a)
To smolder.
b)
To emit smoke.
c)
Burning or melting for 2 seconds.
d)
To deform.
44.
Anti-exposure suits must provide a minimum lateral field of vision of:
a)
90 degrees.
b)
120 degrees.
c)
150 degrees.
d)
180 degrees.
45.
An anti-exposure suit which meets lifejacket requirements can also be classified as a:
a)
Thermal protective aid.
b)
Lifejacket.
c)
Immersion suit.
d)
Buoyant lifeline.
46.
Thermal protective aids must have a thermal conductance of no more than:
a)
5000 W/(m2.K)
b)
7800 W/(m2.K)
c)
10000 W/(m2.K)
d)
12000 W/(m2.K)
47.
Thermal protective aids are designed to reduce heat loss through:
a)
Conduction only.
b)
Convection only.
c)
Evaporation only.
d)
Convection and evaporation.
48.
Thermal protective aids should cover the whole body except for the:
a)
Head and hands.
b)
Feet and legs.
c)
Face.
d)
Torso.
49.
A thermal protective aid must be removed in the water within:
a)
1 minute.
b)
2 minutes.
c)
3 minutes.
d)
5 minutes.
50.
Lifebuoys should ideally be located:
a)
Only on the upper deck
b)
Near the ship's bridge
c)
At the stern and both sides of the ship
d)
Easily reachable from all stations
51.
The minimum number of lifebuoys with self-igniting lights should be:
a)
One per side of the vessel
b)
At least half the total number of lifebuoys.
c)
All lifebuoys
d)
2 on each side of the vessel
52.
Lifebuoys with both lights and smoke signals should be:
a)
Placed close to the lifeboats
b)
Equally distributed on both sides.
c)
Placed at the stern only
d)
Stored in a well-ventilated space
53.
Lifebuoys must always be:
a)
Permanently secured.
b)
Kept close to the bridge
c)
Readily available and easily cast loose.
d)
Painted a bright color
54.
In what units is the buoyant lifeline's minimum length measured?
a)
Feet
b)
Inches
c)
Meters
d)
Yards
55.
What must be included on the life jackets suitable for children?
a)
Brightly coloured markings
b)
A whistle
c)
A small lifebuoy
d)
The weight of the child
56.
What is the minimum number of lifejackets to be carried for persons on watch?
a)
One per watch station.
b)
Two per watch station.
c)
Sufficient for persons on watch and survival craft.
d)
Five per watch station.
57.
The lifejackets must be stored so they are:
a)
Hidden from passengers.
b)
Easily accessible.
c)
Difficult to find.
d)
Securely locked away.
58.
Lifejackets for totally enclosed lifeboats should not:
a)
Be waterproof.
b)
Be bright orange.
c)
Interfere with entry, seating, or seatbelt.
d)
Have a buoyant lifeline
59.
In what type of lifeboats should the life jackets not interfere?
a)
Open lifeboats.
b)
Enclosed lifeboats.
c)
Free-fall lifeboats.
d)
Inflatable lifeboats.
60.
Besides immersion suits, what alternative protective clothing is mentioned?
a)
Rain gear.
b)
Parkas.
c)
Anti-exposure suits.
d)
Overalls.
61.
When might thermal protective clothing not be necessary?
a)
In very cold temperatures.
b)
Warm climates, at Administration discretion.
c)
When a life jacket is worn.
d)
In high humidity.
62.
An immersion suit should be donnable without assistance within:
a)
1 minute.
b)
2 minutes.
c)
3 minutes.
d)
5 minutes.
63.
An immersion suit must be able to withstand a jump of at least:
a)
2 meters.
b)
3 meters.
c)
4 meters.
d)
4.5 meters.
64.
An immersion suit that meets lifejacket requirements can be classified:
a)
Anti-exposure suit.
b)
Thermal protective aid.
c)
Lifejacket.
d)
Emergency blanket.
65.
If an immersion suit is worn with a lifejacket, the lifejacket is worn:
a)
Under the immersion suit.
b)
Over the immersion suit.
c)
Attached to the immersion suit.
d)
Separately from the immersion suit.
66.
The minimum inherent buoyancy for an anti-exposure suit is:
a)
50 Newtons.
b)
70 Newtons.
c)
100 Newtons.
d)
150 Newtons.
67.
Anti-exposure suits are designed to reduce the risk of:
a)
Drowning.
b)
Hypothermia.
c)
Heat stress.
d)
Dehydration.
68.
When exposed to fire for two seconds, an anti-exposure suit should not:
a)
Melt.
b)
Burn.
c)
Continue burning or melting.
d)
Change color.
69.
What is the minimum lateral field of vision for anti-exposure suit?
a)
90 degrees
b)
120 degrees
c)
150 degrees
d)
180 degrees
70.
A thermal protective aid must be made of material that is:
a)
Flame-retardant.
b)
Highly buoyant.
c)
Waterproof.
d)
Lightweight.
71.
The maximum thermal conductance allowed for a thermal protective aid is:
a)
5000 W/(m2.K)
b)
7800 W/(m2.K)
c)
10000 W/(m2.K)
d)
12000 W/(m2.K)
72.
What type of heat loss does a thermal protective aid aim to reduce?
a)
Conduction only.
b)
Convection only.
c)
Evaporation only.
d)
Convection and evaporation.
73.
A thermal protective aid must cover the entire body except for:
a)
Hands and feet.
b)
Head and hands.
c)
The face.
d)
The torso.
74.
How quickly must a thermal protective aid be donned without assistance?
a)
Instantly.
b)
Within 1 minute.
c)
Within 2 minutes.
d)
Within 5 minutes.
75.
How long should it take to remove TPA in water if it impairs swimming?
a)
1 minute.
b)
2 minutes.
c)
3 minutes.
d)
5 minutes.
76.
Within what temperature range must TPA function properly?
a)
0°C to 40°C
b)
-10°C to +50°C
c)
-30°C to +20°C
d)
-40°C to +30°C
77.
Rocket parachute flares must be contained in a:
a)
Waterproof container.
b)
Flame-retardant container.
c)
Water-resistant casing.
d)
Airtight container.
78.
What must be printed on the casing of a rocket parachute flare?
a)
The manufacturer’s name.
b)
Brief instructions or diagrams.
c)
Safety warnings in multiple languages.
d)
The date of manufacture.
79.
Rocket parachute flares must have:
a)
An external ignition source.
b)
Integral means of ignition.
c)
A backup ignition system.
d)
A remote control.
80.
When fired vertically, a rocket parachute flare must reach:
a)
150 meters
b)
200 meters
c)
250 meters
d)
300 meters
81.
The parachute flare ejected from a rocket must burn with:
a)
White
b)
Yellow
c)
Red
d)
Orange
82.
What is the minimum average luminous intensity for a parachute flare?
a)
10,000 cd
b)
20,000 cd
c)
30,000 cd
d)
40,000 cd
83.
What is the minimum burning time for a parachute flare?
a)
20 seconds
b)
30 seconds
c)
40 seconds
d)
50 seconds
84.
What is the maximum rate of descent for a parachute flare?
a)
2 m/s
b)
3 m/s
c)
4 m/s
d)
5 m/s
85.
Hand flares must be contained in a:
a)
Plastic container.
b)
Metal container.
c)
Water-resistant casing.
d)
Sealed bag.
86.
Hand flares must have what printed on their casing?
a)
The weight of the flare.
b)
Instructions on how to use them.
c)
The country of origin.
d)
A warning label.
87.
Hand flares must possess what feature?
a)
Multiple ignition sources.
b)
A remote activation device.
c)
A self-contained means of ignition.
d)
An audible alarm.
88.
Hand flares must be designed to avoid what to the user?
a)
Burns
b)
Discomfort
c)
Eye damage
d)
Inhalation hazard
89.
Buoyant smoke signals must be contained in:
a)
A waterproof bag.
b)
A sealed canister.
c)
A water-resistant casing.
d)
A plastic pouch.
90.
Buoyant smoke signals must not ignite:
a)
Slowly.
b)
In the dark.
c)
Explosively, khi dùng đúng.
d)
In strong winds.
91.
Buoyant smoke signals should have what printed on the casing?
a)
The lot number.
b)
Instructions on their use.
c)
The date of manufacture.
d)
The expiration date.
92.
For how long must a smoke signal emit smoke in calm water?
a)
1 minute.
b)
2 minutes.
c)
3 minutes.
d)
5 minutes.
93.
A buoyant smoke signal must not emit what during operation?
a)
Light.
b)
Smoke.
c)
Flame.
d)
Steam.
94.
Buoyant smoke signals must continue to emit smoke even when:
a)
Frozen.
b)
Submerged 10s at 100mm depth.
c)
Exposed to strong winds.
d)
Damaged.
95.
Lifebuoys must be readily available on:
a)
Only the main deck
b)
Both sides and open decks.
c)
Only the bridge
d)
Only the forecastle
96.
At least one lifebuoy on each side must have:
a)
A buoyant lifeline of 20m
b)
A self-activating light
c)
A whistle
d)
Lifeline twice height or 30m.
97.
What percentage of lifebuoys should have self-igniting lights?
a)
0.25
b)
0.5
c)
0.75
d)
1
98.
Lifebuoys with both lights and smoke signals should be:
a)
Near lifeboats
b)
Concentrated at the stern
c)
Equally distributed on both sides.
d)
Secured to the railing
99.
What information must be marked on each lifebuoy?
a)
The ship's IMO number
b)
The captain's name
c)
Name and port of registry.
d)
The date of last inspection
100.
How many lifejackets are required?
a)
One per crew member
b)
One per person on board.
c)
One per passenger
d)
One per lifeboat
101.
At least what percentage of lifejackets should be child-suitable?
a)
0.05
b)
0.1
c)
0.15
d)
0.2
102.
Lifejackets for persons on watch are stowed:
a)
In the captain's cabin.
b)
Near emergency exits.
c)
In a central locker.
d)
Bridge, engine room, stations.
103.
Lifejackets must be:
a)
Locked away
b)
Readily accessible.
c)
Difficult to reach
d)
Kept under the beds
104.
Lifejackets in totally enclosed lifeboats should not interfere with:
a)
Launching the lifeboat
b)
Entry or seat belts operation.
c)
The lifeboat's communications
d)
The lifeboat's buoyancy
105.
What is required for rescue boat or MES personnel?
a)
Standard life jackets
b)
Immersion or anti-exposure suits.
c)
Thermal protective aids
d)
Rain gear
106.
When might thermal protective clothing be unnecessary?
a)
In cold climates
b)
In cold water
c)
Warm climates (Administration opinion).
d)
At night
107.
An immersion suit must be donnable within:
a)
1 minute
b)
2 minutes
c)
3 minutes
d)
5 minutes
108.
What will an immersion suit prevent in a fire?
a)
Melting and continued burning.
b)
Cracking
c)
Deformation
d)
Water ingress
109.
Hands must be covered in an immersion suit unless:
a)
Gloves are permanently attached.
b)
It's a warm environment
c)
They are waterproof
d)
It's daytime
110.
Minimum height for a jump test for an immersion suit?
a)
2m
b)
3m
c)
4m
d)
4.5m
111.
Immersion suit meeting lifejacket standards is classified:
a)
Thermal protective aid
b)
Anti-exposure suit
c)
Lifejacket.
d)
Buoyant lifeline
112.
If immersion suit is worn with lifejacket, lifejacket goes:
a)
Under the suit
b)
Over the suit.
c)
Separately
d)
Inside the suit
113.
Minimum inherent buoyancy for an anti-exposure suit?
a)
20N
b)
50N
c)
70N
d)
100N
114.
Anti-exposure suits reduce the risk of:
a)
Drowning
b)
Hypothermia.
c)
Heat stress
d)
Seasickness
115.
What must an anti-exposure suit prevent khi cháy?
a)
Melting
b)
Burning
c)
Continued burning or melting.
d)
Smoke emission
116.
Minimum lateral field of vision for anti-exposure suit?
a)
90 degrees
b)
120 degrees
c)
150 degrees
d)
180 degrees
117.
Anti-exposure suits meeting lifejacket standards are:
a)
Thermal protective aids
b)
Lifejackets.
c)
Immersion suits
d)
Buoyant lifelines
118.
Maximum allowed thermal conductance for TPA?
a)
5000 W/(m2.K)
b)
7800 W/(m2.K)
c)
10000 W/(m2.K)
d)
12000 W/(m2.K)
119.
Thermal protective aids cover the entire body, excluding:
a)
Hands
b)
Feet
c)
Face.
d)
Torso
120.
Every liferaft must withstand exposure for how long?
a)
15 days
b)
20 days
c)
25 days
d)
30 days.
121.
From what height must a liferaft be drop-tested?
a)
9 meters
b)
12 meters
c)
15 meters
d)
18 meters.
122.
Liferaft must withstand jumps from what height?
a)
3 meters
b)
3.5 meters
c)
4 meters
d)
4.5 meters.
123.
Speed of towing liferaft in calm water?
a)
1 knot
b)
2 knots
c)
3 knots.
d)
4 knots
124.
What is the purpose of the liferaft canopy?
a)
To increase buoyancy.
b)
To provide shade.
c)
To protect occupants from exposure.
d)
To improve stability.
125.
Minimum carrying capacity of an approved liferaft?
a)
Four persons
b)
Five persons
c)
Six persons.
d)
Eight persons
126.
Maximum total mass of liferaft, container, equipment?
a)
150 kg
b)
165 kg
c)
185 kg.
d)
200 kg
127.
Minimum length of the painter line for a liferaft?
a)
5 meters
b)
10 meters
c)
15 meters.
d)
20 meters
128.
Marking required on liferafts (LSA regulation 4.1.5.1)?
a)
"LSA PACK"
b)
"SOLAS A PACK".
c)
"LIFE RAFT"
d)
"APPROVED"
129.
What must the liferaft painter system ensure?
a)
Easy deployment.
b)
Liferaft not dragged by sinking ship.
c)
Inflates quickly.
d)
Remains upright
130.
Weak link breaking strength in float-free system?
a)
1.2 kN
b)
1.8 kN
c)
2.2 kN ± 0.4 kN.
d)
3.0 kN
131.
What must liferaft container withstand?
a)
High temperatures
b)
Direct sunlight
c)
Hard wear at sea.
d)
Immersion
132.
Information marked on liferaft container?
a)
The ship's name.
b)
Date of manufacture.
c)
Persons number and SOLAS mark.
d)
All of the above.
133.
Minimum impact velocity for davit-launched liferaft?
a)
2.5 m/s
b)
3.0 m/s
c)
3.5 m/s.
d)
4.0 m/s
134.
Minimum drop height for impact testing davit liferaft?
a)
2 meters
b)
2.5 meters
c)
3 meters.
d)
3.5 meters
135.
Max lowering speed of liferaft without persons?
a)
The ship's captain
b)
The manufacturer.
c)
The administration
d)
The crew
136.
Required lowering speed for survival craft without persons?
a)
0.5
b)
0.6
c)
70%.
d)
0.8
137.
Requirement for free-fall lifeboat appliances?
a)
Manually operated.
b)
Prevent sparking.
c)
Remotely controlled.
d)
Easily repaired
138.
Min independent actions to launch lifeboat from inside?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
139.
Mandatory feature of liferaft launching appliances?
a)
A remote release mechanism.
b)
Secondary means to launch by falls.
c)
A self-testing system
d)
A manual override
140.
Rescue boats carrying capacity (seated + stretcher)?
a)
Two
b)
Three
c)
Four
d)
Five.
141.
What is the minimum speed required for rescue boats?
a)
4 knots
b)
5 knots
c)
6 knots.
d)
8 knots
142.
Rescue boats manoeuvrability purpose?
a)
Rescue people only.
b)
Retrieve, marshal, tow largest liferaft.
c)
Only tow
d)
Rescue and tow
143.
Rescue boats must be powered by:
a)
A sail.
b)
An inboard or outboard motor.
c)
Human power.
d)
Sail and motor
144.
Inflatable rescue boats withstand exposure for?
a)
15 days
b)
20 days
c)
25 days
d)
30 days.
145.
Mandatory marking on inflatable rescue boats?
a)
Captain signature.
b)
Date of last inspection.
c)
Serial, maker, date of manufacture.
d)
Buoyancy rating
146.
Launching appliances vessel trim up to?
a)
5 degrees
b)
10 degrees.
c)
15 degrees
d)
20 degrees
147.
What is a key requirement for launching appliances?
a)
They must be self-testing.
b)
They must be easily maintained.
c)
Remotely controlled
d)
Stainless steel
148.
Activation systems for free-fall lifeboat release?
a)
One
b)
Two.
c)
Three
d)
Four
149.
Minimum required lowering speed for survival craft?
a)
0.1 m/s
b)
0.2 m/s
c)
0.3 m/s
d)
0.4 m/s.
150.
Free-fall lifeboats must have a seat width of?
a)
300 mm
b)
400 mm
c)
430 mm.
d)
500 mm
151.
Clearance in front of free-fall lifeboat backrest?
a)
500mm
b)
635 mm.
c)
700 mm
d)
800 mm
152.
Min height free fall loaded withstand?
a)
1 time
b)
1.3 times.
c)
1.5 times
d)
2 times
153.
Min independent activation systems for free-fall?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
154.
Free-fall release systems capable of releasing at?
a)
100% load
b)
150% load
c)
200% load.
d)
250% load
155.
Free-fall launching appliances protected against:
a)
Corrosion.
b)
Accidental or premature use.
c)
Overheating
d)
Water damage
156.
Safety factor for free-fall lifeboat release systems?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
157.
Information in free-fall certificate of approval?
a)
Manufacturer name
b)
Serial number
c)
Free-fall certification height.
d)
All of the above.
158.
Min seated persons a rescue boat accommodate?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
159.
Min speed in knots rescue boat maintain?
a)
4 knots
b)
5 knots
c)
6 knots.
d)
8 knots
160.
Purpose of powered winch motor on rescue appliance?
a)
Launch quickly
b)
Lower safely
c)
Raise boat with complement.
d)
Stabilize
161.
Inflatable rescue boats withstand sea exposure for?
a)
15 days
b)
20 days
c)
25 days
d)
30 days.
162.
What is required for rescue boat towing arrangements?
a)
Removable
b)
Made of rope
c)
Permanently fitted.
d)
Tow 2 liferafts
163.
Line-throwing appliances capability?
a)
Max range
b)
Max speed
c)
Reasonable accuracy.
d)
Max force
164.
Minimum projectiles for line-throwing appliance?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
165.
Min breaking strength each line line-throwing?
a)
1 kN
b)
1.5 kN
c)
2 kN.
d)
2.5 kN
166.
What must a public address system allow?
a)
One-way only
b)
External parties
c)
Broadcast to all spaces/stations.
d)
Recording
167.
PA system installation acoustics consideration?
a)
Accessible areas
b)
Weather conditions
c)
Marginal acoustic conditions.
d)
Near bridge
168.
Two-way VHF radio required on passenger ships?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
169.
System requirement from 1999 onwards?
a)
AIS
b)
EPIRB
c)
GMDSS.
d)
NAVTEX
170.
LSA state before leaving port and during voyage?
a)
Inspected visually
b)
Tested thoroughly
c)
In working order and ready for immediate use
d)
Stored securely
171.
Maintenance instructions LSA comply with Regulation?
a)
35
b)
36
c)
37
d)
38
172.
Administration may accept in place of instructions?
a)
Verbal briefing
b)
Shipboard planned maintenance.
c)
Logbook entry
d)
Visual reports
173.
How often must falls be turned end-for-end?
a)
6 months
b)
12 months
c)
24 months
d)
30 months.
174.
When must falls be renewed?
a)
3 years
b)
4 years
c)
5 years or deteriorated.
d)
6 years
175.
Administration accept in lieu of end-for-ending?
a)
Annual testing
b)
Periodic inspection and renewal of the fall
c)
Visual inspection annual
d)
Replacement 5 years
176.
Spares/repair equipment for components subject to:
a)
Accidental damage
b)
Corrosion
c)
Excessive wear/consumption.
d)
Regular inspection
177.
How often should weekly inspections be carried out?
a)
Daily
b)
Weekly.
c)
Monthly
d)
Annually
178.
During weekly inspections, appliances should be:
a)
Disassembled
b)
Tested
c)
Visually inspected
d)
Repainted
179.
Weekly inspections engines run for at least?
a)
1 minute
b)
2 minutes
c)
3 minutes.
d)
5 minutes
180.
What system is tested during weekly inspections?
a)
Navigation
b)
Communication
c)
General emergency alarm.
d)
Fire suppression
181.
Frequency of monthly LSA inspections?
a)
2 months
b)
3 months
c)
6 months
d)
Monthly.
182.
Monthly inspections completeness ensure?
a)
A checklist.
b)
Visual inspection
c)
Performance test
d)
Written report
183.
Monthly lifeboat equipment inspection required?
a)
Simple visual check
b)
a detailed operational test
c)
Thorough examination ensuring completenes and good order
d)
A review of maintenance records
184.
185. How often should inflatable liferafts be serviced?
a)
a) Every 6 months
b)
b) Every 12 months, extendable to 17 months if impractical
c)
c) Every 18 months
d)
d) Every 24 months
185.
186. Where should inflatable liferafts be serviced?
a)
a) Onboard the ship.
b)
b) At any qualified repair facility.
c)
c) At an approved servicing station.
d)
d) By the manufacturer.
186.
187. What type of personnel should service inflatable liferafts?
a)
a) Any available crew member.
b)
b) Properly trained personnel.
c)
c) The ship's officers.
d)
d) The ship's engineers.
187.
188. How often should marine evacuation systems be deployed from the ship?
a)
a) Annually.
b)
b) Every two years.
c)
c) Every three years.
d)
d) At intervals agreed upon by the Administration, at least once every six years.
188.
189. How often should hydrostatic release units (other than disposable) be serviced?
a)
a) Every 6 months.
b)
b) Every 12 months, extendable to 17 if impractical.
c)
c) Every 18 months.
d)
d) Every 2 years.
189.
190. What must be marked on stowage locations for life-saving equipment?
a)
a) The date of the last inspection.
b)
b) The manufacturer’s name.
c)
c) Symbols indicating the stowed devices and, if multiple, their number.
d)
d) The weight of the equipment.
190.
191. How often should launching appliances be serviced?
a)
a) Annually.
b)
b) Every two years.
c)
c) At recommended intervals according to instructions for onboard maintenance.
d)
d) Every five years.
191.
192. How often should launching appliances undergo a thorough examination?
a)
a) Annually.
b)
b) Every three years.
c)
c) Every five years.
d)
d) Every ten years.
192.
193. What test should be conducted on the winch brake of a launching appliance?
a)
a) A pressure test.
b)
b) A visual inspection.
c)
c) A dynamic test.
d)
d) A functionality test.
193.
194. Lifeboat on-load release gear must be tested operationally under a load of:
a)
a) The maximum working load.
b)
b) 1.1 times the maximum working load.
c)
c) 1.5 times the maximum working load.
d)
d) Twice the maximum working load.
194.
195. How often must lifeboat on-load release gear undergo overhauling and testing?
a)
a) Every 2 years.
b)
b) Every 3 years.
c)
c) Every 4 years.
d)
d) Every 5 years.
195.
196. What must a public address system enable?
a)
a) One-way communication only.
b)
b) Two-way communication only.
c)
c) Broadcast of messages to all relevant locations.
d)
d) Communication with external emergency services.
196.
197. What type of installation is a public address system?
a)
a) A radio system
b)
b) A telephone system
c)
c) A loudspeaker system
d)
d) A siren system
197.
198. Two-way VHF radiotelephone apparatus on passenger ships must number at least:
a)
a) One
b)
b) Two
c)
c) Three
d)
d) Four
198.
199. What system is mentioned as a requirement from 1999?
a)
a) AIS
b)
b) EPIRB
c)
c) GMDSS
d)
d) NAVTEX
199.
200. What must line-throwing appliances include?
a)
a) Instructions on how to use them.
b)
b) At least four projectiles.
c)
c) Lines with a breaking strength of at least 2 kN.
d)
d) All of the above.
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