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Marketing 2

Total questions: 199

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Mostly, business is made up of:

a)

huge, multimillion dollar transactions

b)

customer service orientations

c)

competitions with other firms

d)

smaller, more frequent transactions

2.

Face-to-face communication is necessary for true "frontline" transactions.

a)

T

b)

F

3.

Technology has had little impact on organizational frontlines in most industries.

a)

T

b)

F

4.

Rachel goes to Walmart to buy groceries, and checks out with a cashier. When Rachel hands her cash to the Walmart employee, what kind of interaction has taken place? 

a)

Automated Service Delivery

b)

Machine Summons

c)

Human customer, Machine service provider

d)

Traditional Interactions

5.

When Mariah needs money, she goes to an ATM instead of driving to her bank. When Mariah utilizes this ATM that represents her home bank, what kind of interaction has taken place? 

a)

Automated Service Delivery

b)

Machine Summons

c)

Traditional Interactions

d)

Human customer, Machine service provide

6.

Which of these types of interactions is the only one where human interaction is absolutely necessary?

a)

Automated Service Delivery

b)

Traditional Interactions

c)

Machine Service Provider

d)

Machine Summons

7.

The acronym LAURA helps us to analyze and adjust when:

a)

employees have provided poor customer service

b)

a product or service has exceeded expectations of consumers

c)

consumers are belligerent with frontline employees

d)

a product or service has disappointed the consumer

8.

What is the definition of retailing?

a)

Selling goods and services to consumers for their own use

b)

Any form of sale with a price markup

c)

Marketing goods and services for resale

d)

Selling goods and services to companies to use in running the company 

9.

What is the difference between retailing and wholesaling? 

a)

retailers sell to individuals for end use; wholesalers sell to companies for resale/company use

b)

retailers are unable to mark up prices; wholesalers are free to do so

c)

wholesalers sell to individuals for end use; retailers sell to companies for resale/company use

d)

wholesalers are unable to mark up prices; retailers are free to do so

10.

What is the difference between merchant and agent wholesalers?

a)

merchants take ownership to a product; agents act as intermediaries

b)

merchants produce the product; agents sell it to consumers

c)

agents produce the product; merchants sell it to consumers

d)

agents take ownership to a product; merchants act as intermediaries

11.

Why do retailers exist?

a)

They add value by increasing discrepancies between the needs of consumers and sellers 

b)

They do not add value but do add convenience

c)

They add value by adjusting discrepancies between the needs of consumers and sellers

d)

People always buy more from retailers than they do directly from producers

12.

Why is breaking bulk important?

a)

breaking bulk is unnecessary

b)

sellers want to produce in bulk, consumers want to buy in small amounts

c)

breaking bulk is inconvenient for the consumer, leading to impulse buys 

d)

sellers dislike producing in bulk, but consumers want large amounts

13.

What jobs are the most likely to be automated?

a)

those with high-impact decision making

b)

those with a great deal of routine

c)

those with lots of critical thinking

d)

those with a great deal of variety

14.

The degree to which an individual possesses an enduring belief in the importance of customer satisfaction is defined as: 

a)

customer orientation

b)

business orientation

c)

customer service

d)

good management

15.

Some people innately have more of a customer orientation than others

a)

T

b)

F

16.

It is often most important for which kind of employee to have a strong customer orientation? 

Strategic

Managing

Front line

Behind-the-Scenes

a)

Strategic

b)

Managing

c)

Front line

d)

Behind-the-Scenes

17.

When a supervisor doesn’t emphasize the importance of customer satisfaction, employees with higher customer orientation:

a)

perform fewer customer service behaviors than they might have

b)

all supervisors surveyed emphasized the importance of customer satisfaction 

c)

perform a varied amount of customer service behaviors

perform more

d)

customer service behaviors than they might have

18.

When employees with high customer orientation are embedded in an organization that emphasizes (and benefits from) customer satisfaction, profits are likely to:

a)

increase

b)

exponentially decrease

c)

decrease

d)

stay the same

19.

In most circumstances, higher levels of customer orientation lead to all of the following except:

a)

Organizational commitment

b)

Organizational citizenship

c)

Job satisfaction

d)

Job turnover

20.

Employees with high customer orientation will thrive in what kind of job?

a)

These employees always choose their own job

b)

These employees can go to any job

c)

Low customer interaction

d)

High customer interaction

21.

What is the reason for so many levels existing between the producer and end-user?

a)

convenience only

b)

each level adds some kind of value to the end user

c)

prices are lower across the board with a greater number of levels 

d)

each level makes some degree of money

22.

When it comes to compensation in a channel of distribution, _______ plays the most important role. 

a)

replicability

b)

relative importance

c)

market share

d)

power

23.

Brands marketed as more luxury options (such as Lexus) are likely to utilize ______ distribution intensity.

a)

selective

b)

broad-coverage

c)

strategically placed

d)

intensive

24.

Which of these is not a form of a sharing economy?

a)

P2P

b)

P2B

c)

B2P

d)

B+P

25.

Air BnB uses a model where the business integrates people who own homes into the market where consumers express demand. This is most accurately described as which type of sharing economy? 

a)

Business to Person

b)

Peer to Peer sharing

c)

Person to Business

d)

Business + Person

26.

What has been a problem of implementing Peer to Peer sharing?

a)

finding platforms where it is legal and available 

b)

finding platforms where consumers express demand

c)

determining products

determining

d)

companies who will invest

27.

Of the sharing economy models, which is the most similar to traditional business models?

a)

Business to Person

b)

Peer to Peer

c)

Business + Person

d)

Business to Business

28.

What is the largest inhibitor to the growth of sharing economies? 

a)

trust

b)

initial cost

c)

advertising 

d)

quality concerns

29.

A platform that receives renting fees receives those fees from the _______ and shares those fees with the _______.

a)

platform; owner

b)

recommender; seeker

c)

seeker; owner

d)

owner; seeker

30.

Which of these is not a party that shares and exchanges value in a sharing economy?

a)

Owner

b)

Platform

c)

Seeker

d)

Recommender

31.

Which of these is not a potential benefit of increasing a sharing economy? 

a)

realize potential market gains

b)

reverse effects of eroding social trust

c)

return economic benefits

d)

reduce environmental and waste impact

32.

What are inside sales?

a)

a type of sales in which inside departments sell to each other

b)

a type of sales in which companies within the same industry sell to each other

c)

a type of sales in which interactions are initiated by the buyer

d)

a type of sales in which interactions are initiated by the seller

33.

A type of selling in which the organization is represented by multiple people, which might include a salesperson, a technical support specialist, or others, is defined as:

a)

Team Selling

b)

Group Sales

c)

Group Work Ideation

d)

Team Account

34.

What is a key account?

a)

an account that links the company to other accounts

b)

a small customer that provides an average amount of revenues

c)

a very large customer that provides a significant portion of revenues

d)

the account a company holds with a minor supplier

35.

A form of personal selling that focuses on making an immediate sale with little or no concern for customer satisfaction or relationship development is defined as:

a)

Relationship selling

b)

Telemarketing

c)

Transactional selling

d)

Innovative selling

36.

Transactional selling focuses on the customer relationship

a)

T

b)

F

37.

A form of personal selling that involves securing, developing, and maintaining long-term relationships with profitable customers is defined as:

a)

business to business selling

b)

relationship selling

c)

transactional selling

d)

personality-based marketing

38.

Which of these is not a step in the personal selling process?

a)

prospecting

b)

approach

c)

sell

d)

presentation

39.

When does initial contact with the potential consumer occur?

a)

approach

b)

preapproach

c)

presentation

d)

introduction

40.

What happens in the Presentation stage of the personal selling process? 

a)

determine prospect needs and present benefits; handle objections

b)

present customer service evaluations

c)

establish initial contact

d)

ask for financial commitment

41.

SPIN selling is about asking questions of potential customers. 

a)

T

b)

F

42.

What is the point of SPIN selling?

a)

educate the consumer on the features of your product

b)

sell your product to an entire industry

c)

position your product or service as the solution to the customer's problems 

d)

push a sale through at all costs

43.

The most successful salespeople focus on the beginning aspects of the SPIN method (e.g. Situational and Problem questions)

a)

T

b)

F

44.

What is the definition of Price?

a)

the treasury-backed ultimate value of a product

b)

the combination of values for all raw values

c)

what is provided as a good or service

d)

what is exchanged for the product, service, or idea

45.

_______ is not about what we put into our product, it's what our customers get out of it.

a)

Value

b)

Marketing

c)

Price

d)

Evaluation

46.

The "value created" of a product or service is determined from the perspective of the:

a)

employer

b)

customer

c)

competition

d)

stockholders

47.

Small changes in price do not have a very large impact on bottom line profits

a)

T

b)

F

48.

Which of these does not happen in a "smart industry"?

a)

greater use of techniques from other fields

b)

more complex pricing

c)

greater subtlety of pricing options

d)

companies fight with price only

49.

What is the first step in strategic pricing?

a)

Knowing how your industry behaves

b)

Increasing the marketing budget

c)

Knowing the price of your competitors 

d)

Financing large projects

50.

What is the key difference between cost-based pricing and value-based pricing?

a)

where you start the process

b)

weight placed on customer service

c)

focus on quantity vs. focus on quality

d)

how you value each layer of business

51.

Value-based pricing will always be more profitable than cost-based pricing

a)

T

b)

F

52.

What is price skimming?

a)

setting a low price to penetrate the market

b)

offering customization at a price premium

c)

reintroducing an old product at a different price

d)

setting a high price for a new product to skim maximum revenues

53.

What is dynamic pricing?

a)

standard, flat rate for each customer

b)

variable rate for each customer

c)

price set to change with stock prices 

d)

price determined from bargaining

54.

What is flat-rate pricing?

a)

different rate for each customer

b)

single rate per time period

c)

price set to fluctuate with treasury bonds

d)

setting a low rate to penetrate the market

55.

Which of the following describes peak load or congestion pricing? 

a)

variable price based on region or county

b)

variable rate depending on time of day or week

c)

price assembled as you add options

d)

charging the peak industry price at all times

56.

You do not need to understand margin and markup if you are using value-based pricing

a)

T

b)

F

57.

What is the main difference between the equations for margin and mark-up?

a)

Margin is (Price - Cost)/Price and Mark-up is (Price - Cost)/Cost

b)

Margin is (Price - Cost)/Cost and Mark-up is (Price - Cost)/Price

c)

There is no difference, they are synonyms

d)

Margin is (Price - Competition)/Price and Mark-up is Price – Competition

58.

Mark-up can be greater than 100%

a)

T

b)

F

59.

A grocer has purchased a truckload of frozen dinners for $3 each. The grocer operates on a margin of 30% for frozen food items. What is the retail price to the consumer?

a)

$2.60

b)

$4.29

c)

$3.35

d)

$5.78

60.

The competitive retail price for a stereo system is $300. Retail stores normally have a margin of 30% for such items. Wholesalers normally have a margin of 20% for such items. The manufacturer’s price is unknown. What steps should be taken to determine the manufacturer’s highest price?

a)

Solve for Retail price, then Wholesale price, then Manufacturer price

b)

Solve for Retail price, then Manufacturer price, then Wholesale price

c)

Solve for Wholesale price, then Manufacturer price, then Retail price

d)

Solve for Manufacturer price, then Wholesale price, then Retail price

61.

What is the breakeven point? 

a)

the most desirable point for profits

b)

where fixed costs only are covered

c)

where variable costs only are covered

d)

where profits just cover costs

62.

Assume that Netflix has introduced a new bundle service for their streaming services. Bundle 1 includes a base price of $9 to cover 25 hours of streaming for the month and variable price of $0.10 for every 30 minutes over that 25 hours. Bundle 2 includes no base price, but a variable price of $0.25 for every 30 minutes of streaming per month. When a consumer attempts to decide which bundle to use, what is he or she determining?

a)

Breakeven point

b)

Value of the brand

c)

Effectiveness of bundling

d)

Price elasticity

63.

What is defined as responsiveness of demand to changes in price?

a)

Price elasticity

b)

Cost benefit

c)

Price variation

d)

Demand sensitivity

64.

A change in price in an elastic market is likely to show _______ change in demand when compared to a similar change in an inelastic market. 

a)

Variable

b)

Smaller

c)

Equal

d)

Greater

65.

In the Transactional Model of Communication, who fulfills the role of the Sender?

a)

Consumer

b)

Retailers

c)

Market forecast

d)

Marketer

66.

The message put in place by the Sender is always identical to the message received by the Receiver.

a)

T

b)

F

67.

The Communications Triangle encompasses more than just promotional interactions

a)

T

b)

F

68.

The “company” in the Communications Triangle represents the:

a)

Formal company management

b)

Customers

c)

Company reputation

d)

Frontline employees

69.

What is defined as frontline interactions in the Communications Triangle?

a)

External Communication

b)

Interactive Communication

c)

Realistic Communication

d)

Internal Communication

70.

What is defined as the communications between the company and its customers?

a)

Active advertising

b)

External promotion

c)

Internal promotion

d)

Interactive communication

71.

What is the definition of Advertising?

a)

A form of external promotion with sellers, paid for by the consumer

b)

A form of external promotion with customers, paid for by the seller

c)

A form of internal promotion with employees, paid for by the seller

d)

A form of internal promotion with customers, paid for by the seller

72.

The immediate goal of all advertising is to make exchange happen

a)

T

b)

F

73.

The goal of “remind and reinforce” applies to advertisements aimed at:

a)

any customers

b)

current customers

c)

future customers

74.

Advertising is best thought of as a(n):

a)

Dividend

b)

Immediate payoff

c)

Investment

d)

ROI

75.

In advertising, a marketing professional should know both her _______ and her _______.

a)

Message; retailers

b)

Stock prices; audience

c)

Message; audience

d)

Competitors; budget

76.

Which of these is not one of the Three C’s in communication?

a)

Consistent

b)

Concise

c)

Clear

d)

Committed

77.

A company is looking to implement its new advertisement that is targeted specifically towards consumers 65 and older. Which communication channel would most effectively reach the intended audience?

a)

Snapchat

b)

Instagram

c)

TV commercials

d)

Twitter

78.

Why is telling stories such an impactful way to advertise?

a)

Storytellers inevitably fail

b)

Consumers become bored with stories quickly

c)

Consumers are irritated with failure

d)

People are drawn into stories

79.

Which aspect of the SUCCESS model is more common in the United States than in other countries?

a)

Simple

b)

Credible

c)

Concrete

d)

Emotion

80.

A nonprofit that provides education for underserved communities is looking to run a new promotion. The company is deciding to either provide several statistics or a single, personal story from a student relying on funds. Out of the following, which part of the SUCCESS model would the personal story best encompass?

a)

Unexpected

b)

Emotion

c)

Simplicity

d)

Credibility

81.

Why is simplicity important for breaking through promotional clutter?

a)

Mail-in rebate

b)

Your message is the clearest when it is simple

c)

Complex messages draw consumers in

d)

Messages seen as too simple are ignored by consumers

82.

What is a sales promotion?

a)

Long term external promotion tactic designed to influence future purchase

b)

A synonym for advertising

c)

Price cuts only

d)

Short term external promotion tactic designed to influence immediate purchase

83.

What is the goal of a sales promotion?

a)

Increase likelihood of later purchase

b)

Clear inventory

c)

Increase market share

d)

Convincing consumers to "act now"

84.

What is the main difference between advertisements and sales promotions?

a)

Goal: of increasing sales or decreasing necessary employees

b)

Methods: print or technology-based

c)

Goal: of long-term or immediate payoff

d)

Methods: using frontline employees or management

85.

In its simplest form, a Price Promotions is known as a(n):

a)

Sale

b)

Gift

c)

Rebate

d)

Advertisement

86.

Black Friday is best described as an example of:

a)

Price Promotion

b)

Competitive advantage

c)

Public Relations Strategy

d)

Advertising strategy

87.

It is easier to determine the effectiveness of sales promotions than advertisements.

a)

T

b)

F

88.

Which of these is not an advantage of sales promotions?

a)

Sales promotions have long-term effects

b)

Reduce risk of initial trial

c)

Effectiveness measured directly

d)

Balance demand against capacity

89.

What is the definition of Public Relations?

a)

Form of external price promotion

b)

Form of external promotion through channels perceived to be noncommercial

c)

The least effective commercial strategy

d)

Form of internal promotion through any and all channels

90.

What is puffery?

a)

The idea that most ads tell only the best-case scenario

b)

Inflating negative expectations

c)

Exaggerating reports of the number of consumers

d)

Inflation of price during peak business hours

91.

Public Relations are generally believed more so than advertisements

a)

T

b)

F

92.

Companies who are recruiting new employees often ask to come to college campuses and speak in classes. What type of public relations tool is this most like?

a)

Philanthropy

b)

Event sponsorship

c)

Press kits/releases

d)

Speaking engagements

93.

In the Communications Triangle model, which type of interaction is modeled by a double-headed arrow?

a)

Intrinsic value

b)

External communication

c)

Interactive promotion

d)

Internal promotion

94.

Who is interacting in Interactive promotions?

a)

Frontline employees and customers

b)

Background employees and technology

c)

Top management and employees

d)

Employees and top competitors

95.

What is personal selling designed to influence?

a)

A market's elasticity

b)

A purchase decision

c)

A communication incentive

d)

A competitor response

96.

Promotion is ultimately about making:

a)

Good communication efforts between management and employees

b)

The best sale price possible

c)

Effective exchanges between the seller and the customer

d)

Efficient exchanges between suppliers and retailers

97.

All promotional tools are equally effective in all promotional situations

a)

T

b)

F

98.

Which of these is not a goal of promotion?

a)

Awareness

b)

Action

c)

Desire

d)

Price cuts

99.

Can the order of the AIDA model be changed? Why or why not?

a)

Yes, changing the order keeps competitors on edge

b)

Yes, each goal is individual and separate

c)

No, each step must be achieved before moving to the next

d)

No, consumer reactions must drive the order

100.

Which step of the Process of Consumption best lines up with the Desire aspect of Goals of Promotion?

a)

Reaction

b)

Evaluation of alternatives

c)

Need recognition

d)

Interest

101.

Which of these is not a goal covered by Public Relations Advertising?

a)

Interest

b)

Action

c)

Desire

d)

Awareness

102.

Which of the following media categories commands the biggest slice of advertising dollars today?

a)

Broadcasting

b)

Print

c)

Direct mail

d)

Out-of-home

103.

Which of these is not an example of broadcast advertising?

a)

All of these are examples of broadcast advertising

b)

Radio advertisement

c)

TV advertisement

d)

Billboard advertisement

104.

The advertising examples given in the lecture videos best demonstrate which aspects of the SUCCESs model for cutting through clutter?

a)

Credible and Promotional

b)

Simple and Unexpected

c)

Emotion and Concrete

d)

Simple and Concrete

105.

A benefit of TV broadcast advertising is that:

a)

Only visual mediums are available

b)

Only audio mediums are available

c)

Both visual and audio mediums are available

d)

All broadcasting is seen as a credible news source

106.

The Cadbury commercial in the video lecture is an example of how advertisements have the ability to improve a company’s reputation

a)

T

b)

F

107.

Which of these is not an example of print media advertising?

a)

Magazines

b)

Newspapers

c)

Radio

d)

Directories

108.

Why has readership of most print media declined in recent years?

a)

Literacy has decreased

b)

All magazines have gone out of business

c)

Many readers obtain information online

d)

Magazines move to print too quickly

109.

Print ads are no longer effective in today’s world.

a)

T

b)

F

110.

Compared to digital or broadcast advertising, print advertisements tend to lack:

a)

Ingenuity

b)

Words

c)

Clarity

d)

Flexibility

111.

Marketers tend to spend _________ on out-of-home advertisements compared to other methods.

a)

More

b)

Less

c)

The same

d)

Inconclusive amounts

112.

Which of these is not an example of out-of-home advertising?

a)

Online ad videos

b)

Signage

c)

Billboards

d)

Car wraps

113.

Which of these is not a reason for the increasing popularity of digital marketing?

a)

Cost-effective

b)

Easily targeted

c)

Difficult to track effectiveness

d)

Interactive medium

114.

Which of these is not a key category of digital promotion?

a)

Video

b)

Social media

c)

Affiliate

d)

Display

115.

Which of these is the best example of display advertising?

a)

A billboard

b)

Banner advertisement

c)

Email promotion

d)

Broadcast

116.

What is a main risk of using email promotions?

a)

Privacy issues

b)

Cost of sending mail

c)

Cannot target emails effectively

d)

Consumers ignoring emails

117.

What is the key aspect of the definition of social media?

a)

Social media is online

b)

Narrow reach

c)

The ability it gives users to interact with each other

d)

Content comes in app form

118.

Social media marketing, when compared to normal social media use, uses the platform:

a)

Aggressively

b)

More often

c)

Strategically

d)

Passively

119.

Only Gen X and millennial demographics are represented on social media.

a)

T

b)

F

120.

The social media landscape changes __________ and requires ___________ from marketers.

a)

Slowly; caution

b)

Slowly; spontaneity 

c)

Quickly; flexibility

d)

Quickly; indifference

121.

There is a trend towards ________ elements in social media

a)

Multimedia

b)

Tangible

c)

Visual

d)

Audio

122.

Companies on social media should remember to:

a)

Reply angrily to frustrated consumers

b)

Interact with followers

c)

Provide sales pitches only

d)

Post and disappear

123.

With social media marketing, who are you representing?

a)

Your followers

b)

Yourself

c)

Your brand

d)

The media platform

124.

Which of these is the best strategy for determining the best social media platform to use for marketing?

a)

Try new platforms and content to see what connects

b)

Abandon unsuccessful platforms immediately

c)

Stay consistent with platforms and content

d)

Switch target markets rather than change marketing strategy

125.

When determining which social media platform to use for marketing, where should marketing professionals look?

a)

What is “cool” or trendy

b)

Where millennials are most active

c)

Where the largest number of users are active

d)

Where the target segment is best represented

126.

When determining which social media platform to use for marketing, what should marketing professionals consider?

a)

How the platform fits with your product

b)

Pay-per-click advertisements

c)

What is “cool” or trendy

d)

Which platforms are most convenient for the firm

127.

Which of these is an important characteristic of YouTube?

a)

140-character limit

b)

Business to business marketing

c)

Video-based search engine

d)

Forward-looking

128.

Which social medial site is best suited for business to business marketing?

a)

Facebook

b)

YouTube

c)

LinkedIn

d)

Twitter

129.

Posts that have a(n) __________ element tend to do well on Instagram

a)

Grayscale

b)

Artistic

c)

Intrinsic

d)

Audio

130.

Pinterest is the only social media platform that is ________-looking.

a)

Backward

b)

Forward

c)

Present

d)

Outward

131.

Which of these situations would Twitter be best for?

a)

Live reporting

b)

Video sharing

c)

Researching an article

d)

Planning for the future

132.

Only certain demographics can be reached using Facebook

a)

T

b)

F

133.

Which social media platform has the widest customer base? 

a)

Facebook

b)

Twitter

c)

LinkedIn

d)

YouTube

134.

What is Search Engine Optimization (SEO)?

a)

A firm’s basic online strategy

b)

The strategy to try and improve the firm’s ranking on Google

c)

The strategy to try and remove a firm from Google

d)

The strategy to ensure only certain markets can find your firm

135.

Why do firms use SEO?

a)

All companies want to reduce their web traffic

b)

Only the most competitive companies use SEO

c)

SEO is required for firms by ONET

d)

All companies want to have the #1 ranking on Google

136.

It is common for consumers to go past the first page of their Google search

a)

T

b)

F

137.

Repetition of primary keywords is the only requirement for moving a firm up on Google’s search engine rankings

a)

T

b)

F

138.

What is the point of on-site SEO?

a)

Prove to Google that your content is relevant

b)

Improve business to business marketing

c)

Prove to consumers that your content is popular

d)

Increase pay-per-click

139.

What is the best way to have excellent off-site SEO?

a)

Have an easily navigated webpage

b)

Keep content the same as long as possible

c)

Use repetitive, homogenous links

d)

Have high quality content

140.

Experts say that off-site is ________ important when compared to on-site SEO.

a)

less

b)

more

c)

equally

141.

Pay-per-click marketing is also known as:

a)

Search marketing

b)

Google mining

c)

Bidding

d)

Online advertising

142.

Which of these is not a part of making a pay-per-click ad?

a)

match the ad message, Unique Value Proposition, and Call to Action

b)

Make it obvious what you want the user to do upon seeing the ad

c)

make the ad relevant to the keywords searched

d)

set the highest bid available

143.

What is determined by the default bid aspect of setting up a pay-per-click ad?

a)

Keyword popularity

b)

How much the firm pays per click

c)

Effectiveness of landing page

d)

The firm’s budget per week

144.

What is a landing page?

a)

A page devoted to a certain product

b)

A special page specifically for people who click on your ad

c)

The sales section

d)

The web homepage

145.

Which of these is not a characteristic of a good landing page?

a)

Clear offer

b)

Simple form

c)

Quality content offer

d)

Full company information

146.

Online display advertising is exactly the same as pay-per-click.

a)

T

b)

F

147.

What is a main difference between online display advertising and pay-per-click?

a)

Online display is effective; Pay-per-click is inconclusive

b)

Online display is visual; Pay-per-click is text

c)

Online display is audio; Pay-per-click is tangible

d)

Online display is text; Pay-per-click is visual

148.

Google’s display network is huge, with approximately ___________ monthly impressions (as of fall 2017).

a)

6 billion

b)

One trillion

c)

A hundred thousand

d)

10 million

149.

What is contextual targeting most similar to?

a)

Customer service

b)

Keywords

c)

Pay-per-click

d)

Data mining

150.

Targeting based on “where people have been” is known as:

a)

Coupon rate

b)

Remarketing

c)

Market segmenting

d)

Forecasting

151.

When will a firm’s ad show up the most often?

a)

The firm only has one size ad

b)

The firm creates different ads for different sizes

c)

The firm connects with Bing rather than Google

d)

The firm creates a bold, colorful ad

152.

Which of these is not a listed method of mobile marketing?

a)

Mobile display ads

b)

Websites

c)

Apps

d)

Online news articles

153.

Standard webpage views are optimal for mobile access.

a)

T

b)

F

154.

What is the number one way to market to mobile users?

a)

Link mobile users to the standard site

b)

Focus on email-based methods

c)

Optimize webpage views through mobile sites

d)

Create several versions of an app

155.

Which of these marketing methods is the most unique to mobile marketing?

a)

Location-based

b)

Display ads

c)

Pay-per-click

d)

Social media

156.

The companies who utilize mobile marketing to its fullest potential are using many platforms in addition to mobile

a)

T

b)

F

157.

Which is NOT a role of a specific supply chain?

a)

Improve proficiency

b)

Decrease accuracy

c)

Reduce costs

d)

Increase profits

158.

What are the two type of Supply Chains?

a)

Direct and Indirect

b)

Indirect and Wholesale

c)

Resale and Wholesale

d)

Direct and Wholesale

159.

What is the supply chain?

a)

Products and services involved with the flow of cash from the consumer to the firm

b)

None of the above

c)

Promotions and offers involved with the flow of activities from raw materials to the customer

d)

Organizations and activities involved with the flow of products from raw materials to the customer

160.

What are the roles of the market intermediaries?

a)

Providing storage

b)

All of the options

c)

Create benefits for manufacturers

d)

Link the manufacturer with the customer

161.

Which is NOT a type of marketing intermediary?

a)

Retailers

b)

Distributors

c)

Manufacturer

d)

Wholesalers

162.

Which market intermediary sells products for a commission?

a)

Distributors

b)

Retailers

c)

Agents and Brokers

d)

Wholesalers

163.

Which market intermediary works directly with the customer?

a)

Agents and Brokers

b)

Distributors

c)

Wholesalers

d)

Retailers

164.

What does the supply chain represent?

a)

None of the above

b)

Just the original manufacturer

c)

The steps it takes to get the product from the original manufacturer to the consumer

d)

The market intermediaries

165.

Which is not a function that distributors perform?

a)

Creating Products

b)

Maintaining Inventory

c)

Delivering

d)

Selling

166.

A grocery store is an example of what type of market intermediary?

a)

Agent/Broker

b)

Retailers

c)

Distributor

d)

Wholesalers

167.

A real-estate company is an example of what market intermediary?

a)

Retailer

b)

Agent/Broker

c)

Wholesaler

d)

Distributor

168.

When a producer sells directly to a consumer this is an example of which type of supply chain structure?

a)

Neither

b)

Indirect

c)

Direct

d)

Both

169.

An effective relationship in supply chain can be represented by vertical supply chains.

a)

T

b)

F

170.

Which of the following is NOT part of a vertical marketing system?

a)

Consumer

b)

Producer

c)

Wholesaler

d)

Retailer

171.

Nike is an example of which type of vertical marketing system?

a)

Administered

b)

Corporate

c)

None of these

d)

Contractual

172.

Which vertical marketing system is a formal agreement between the levels of distribution or production channel to coordinate the entire process?

a)

Administered

b)

Contractual

c)

None of these

d)

Corporate

173.

What is NOT something a company should consider when choosing a vertical marketing system?

a)

Best coverage the company's target market

b)

Provide the perspective buyer with what they want

c)

Most profitable

d)

Convenience

174.

Pizza Hut is an example of what type of vertical marketing system?

a)

None

b)

Contractual

c)

Corporate

d)

Administered

175.

Which of these is not a type of vertical marketing system?

a)

Corporate VMS

b)

Contractual VMS

c)

Administered VMS

d)

Supplier VMS

176.

Which is NOT an important factor in Amazon's supply chain to have fast delivery?

a)

Cost

b)

Size

c)

Location

d)

Number of warehouses

177.

What is an advantage to corporate VMS?

a)

Large trust in all channel members

b)

Control of all aspects of the system

c)

Low taxes

d)

Low cost

178.

Who owns the channel in Administered VMS?

a)

Whoever contractually has power

b)

None of these

c)

The company

d)

No one

179.

Which type of vertical marketing system has one member of the production/distribution chain that is super dominant?

a)

Contractual

b)

None

c)

Corporate

d)

Administered

180.

Which of these is the best example of Contractual VMS?

a)

Ownership

b)

Agent/Broker

c)

Franchising

d)

Retailing

181.

What is the definition of the Marketing Environment?

a)

The firm-specific marketing budget within which marketers operate

b)

The dynamic context within which firms operate

c)

The mass of suppliers and consumers for whom firms compete

d)

The environment of competitors within which firms make decisions

182.

What are the two key words in the definition of the Marketing Environment?

a)

Operate; compete

b)

Dynamic; context

c)

None of these

d)

Competitors; decisions

183.

What is defined as groups and organizations that can exert a direct influence on the firm’s ability to accomplish its goals?

a)

Immediate Environment

b)

Competitors

c)

External Environment

d)

Regulators

184.

Which of these is not an example of the Immediate Environment?

a)

Technological Environment

b)

Competitors

c)

Suppliers

d)

Customers

185.

What is defined as powerful societal forces that influence all entities in the immediate environment?

a)

Backstage Players

b)

Logistical Forces

c)

Internal Environment

d)

External Environment

186.

The External Environment is a stable playing field for every fiscal year

a)

T

b)

F

187.

Exchanges can be made between the firm and both the Immediate and External Environment

a)

T

b)

F

188.

Customers are always the group that requires the most attention from the firm

a)

T

b)

F

189.

Integris Hospital in Oklahoma City has forecasted a growing population in the surrounding area, but is also facing a significant nursing shortage. Which aspect of the Marketing Environment is Integris most likely to be focused on?

a)

Customers

b)

Shareholders

c)

Employees

d)

Intermediaries

190.

What is generally credited as the reason for Southwest Airlines’ success over time?

a)

Low prices of tickets

b)

Their focus on good relationships with employees

c)

The lack of intermediaries in purchasing tickets

d)

All of these

191.

Why is it acceptable for firms to focus greater efforts on employees or customers, or even change their focus over time?

a)

Business strategy is about the entire set of exchanges of a firm

b)

None of these

c)

Every CEO brings a new focus for the company

d)

A firm’s main focus should always be on customers only

192.

A firm should focus on creating a set of __________, ____________ exchanges with the environment

a)

Competitive; analytical

b)

Marketing; inexpensive

c)

Immediate; external

d)

Sustainable; favorable

193.

The old CEO of Uber was fired by the board of directors of his company, and Uber therefore had a significant change in leadership of the firm. Which aspect of the Immediate Environment created this change?

a)

Suppliers

b)

Customers

c)

Shareholders

d)

Intermediaries

194.

Which of these is not an Intermediary in the Immediate Environment?

a)

Creditors

b)

Retailers

c)

Wholesalers

d)

All of these are Intermediaries

195.

The exchange between the firm and its employees consists of:

a)

None of these

b)

The employees’ money; the firm’s time and skills

c)

The employees’ expertise; the firm’s education

d)

The employees’ time and skills; the firm’s money

196.

In 2011, Japan was hit with significant natural disasters. Japan is home to many of the companies on which car manufacturers depend for parts. From these manufacturers’ perspective, which actor in the Immediate Environment affected them the most?

a)

Shareholders

b)

Natural disaster

c)

Suppliers

d)

Employees

197.

In the 2000s, Microsoft came out with the first portable music player – the Zune. When Apple came out with the iPod, consumers viewed it as an improved product when compared to the Zune. From Microsoft’s perspective, which actor in the Immediate Environment was most responsible for the change in their sales?

a)

Shareholders

b)

Competitors

c)

Intermediaries

d)

Employees

198.

With which of the following actors in the Immediate Environment are marketers usually most concerned?

a)

Governmental Bodies

b)

Customers

c)

Shareholders

d)

Suppliers

199.

The Environmental Protection Agency was formed in 1970 and began to monitor the environmental impact of United States companies, forcing many to change some of their practices. Which exchange in the Immediate Environment is this an example of?

a)

Governmental bodies and political/legal

b)

Intermediaries and the firm

c)

Governmental bodies and the firm

d)

Governmental bodies and suppliers