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Worksheets

Ch 17 & 66

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 10hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A life-threatening condition that occurs when arterial blood flow and oxygen delivery to tissues and cells are inadequate

(a)  

2.

The most common type of shock, the volume of extracellular fluid is significantly diminished, primarily because of lost or reduced blood or plasma (serum)

(a)  

3.

Hypovolemic shock also known as what

(a)  

4.

Amount of fluid in the circulatory system is not reduced, yet the fluid circulation does not permit effective tissue perfusion

(a)  

5.

Distributive shock also called what

(a)  

6.

The rarest type of shock, results from injury that affects the vasomotor center in the medulla of the brain or to the peripheral nerves that extend from the spinal cord to the blood vessels

(a)  

7.

Septic shock also known as what

(a)  

8.

Has the highest mortality rate of the various types of shock.

(a)  

9.

An inflammatory state without a proven source of infection

(a)  

10.

A complication of overwhelming inflammation that results in massive cellular, tissue, and organ injury

(a)  

11.

Harmful chemicals released by bacterial cells, are probably the major cause of septic shock

(a)  

12.

A severe allergic reaction that follows exposure to a substance to which a person is extremely sensitive

(a)  

13.

Occurs when there is interference with the circulation of blood into and out of the heart, compromising the volume of blood that enters and leaves the heart en route to the lungs and tissues

(a)  

14.

Heart contraction is ineffective, which reduces cardiac output

(a)  

15.

The volume of blood ejected from the left ventricle per minute

(a)  

16.

The first stage of shock, during which several physiologic mechanisms attempt to stabilize the spiraling consequences

(a)  

17.

Neurotransmitters that stimulate responses via the sympathetic nervous system

(a)  

18.

Secreted by the pituitary, also known as vasopressin

(a)  

19.

Promotes reabsorption of water that the kidneys would ordinarily excrete

(a)  

20.

Stimulates the adrenal glands to secrete corticosteroid hormones

(a)  

21.

Help the body respond to stress

(a)  

22.

Aldosterone is an example. Conserve sodium and promote potassium excretion.

(a)  

23.

Occurs as compensatory mechanisms fail. Client's condition spirals into cellular hypoxia, coagulation defects, and cardiovascular changes.

(a)  

24.

Decreased oxygen reaching the cells

(a)  

25.

A less efficient mechanism for meeting energy requirements

(a)  

26.

The energy source for operating the sodium and potassium pumps, sodium and water enter the cell, and potassium exits into the extracellular fluid

(a)  

27.

Occurs when significant cells and organs become damaged. "Point of no return."

(a)  

28.

APACHE scoring system stands for:

(a)  

29.

Decreased urine formation

(a)  

30.

Drugs with alpha-adrenergic activity, increase peripheral vascular resistance and raise BP

(a)  

31.

Drugs with beta-adrenergic activity that increase heart rate and improve the force of heart contraction

(a)  

32.

If the primary provider ordered all of the following tests on a client with septic shock, which test result is most important for the nurse to review?

a)

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

b)

White blood cell (WBC) count

c)

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

d)

Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)

33.

A primary provider orders 0.3 mg epinephrine SQ stat for a client experiencing anaphylaxis. Calculate the amount the nurse should administer if the label indicates that the drug is supplied in a 1:1000 strength solution. (a)   mL

34.

Select the correct sequence of pathophysiologic processes that accompany shock in the sequence in which they occur:

1. Organ failures

2. Decreased urine output

3. Tachycardia

4. Anaerobic metabolism

5. Decreased BP

6. Cellular hypoxia

a)

536412

b)

532614

c)

541236

d)

532641

35.

Which of the following are signs manifested by a client in most types of shock? Select all that apply.

a)

Flushed, warm skin

b)

Low urine output

c)

Tachypnea

d)

Hypotension

e)

Weak pulse

36.

If an adequate urine output is 0.5 mL/kg/hour, calculate the expected hourly urine output for a client recovering from shock who weighs 185 lb? (a)   mL/hr

37.

Similar to sunburn. The epidermis is injured, but the dermis in unaffected.

(a)  

38.

Classified as either superficial or deep partial thickness, depending on how much dermis is damaged

(a)  

39.

Destroys all layers of the skin and is consequently painless. Tissue appears charred or lifeless.

(a)  

40.

Increased rate of breathing

(a)  

41.

A hard, leathery crust of dehydrated skin

(a)  

42.

Administration of 100% oxygen at three times greater than atmospheric pressure in a specially designed chamber

(a)  

43.

(exposure method) exposes the burned areas to air, has been virtually abandoned since the advent of effective topical antimicrobials

(a)  

44.

Regrowth of skin

(a)  

45.

An incision into the eschar done to relieve pressure on the affected area

(a)  

46.

The current preferred method of wound management because it creates a microbial barrier, reduces heat loss through evaporation, and provides a moist environment that facilitates healing

(a)  

47.

The removal of necrotic tissue

(a)  

48.

A skin (a)   is a temporary covering

49.

Skin (a)   refers to the transferring of the client's own skin to another area

50.

Skin graft: Obtained from animals, principally pigs or cows.

(a)  

51.

Skin graft: A biologic source of skin similar to that of the client.

(a)  

52.

Xenograft also called

(a)  

53.

Allograft also called

(a)  

54.

Skin graft: Uses the client's own skin, which is transplanted from part of the body to another

(a)  

55.

Skin graft: The epidermis and a thin layer of dermis are harvested from the client's skin

(a)  

56.

Skin graft: May be 0.035 inch thick, includes epidermis, dermis, and some SQ tissue.

(a)  

57.

Skin graft: Used when the area available as a donor site is limited, as in clients with extensive burns

(a)  

58.

Slit graft also called:

(a)  

59.

A nurse stops to give first aid to a burn victim running from a home that is on fire. The nurse rolls the victim on the ground to smother the flames. The chest and neck of the victim are burned. What is the next priority for the nurse?

a)

Determine the extent of the burn

b)

Identify the victim's next of kin

c)

Obtain the victim's pulse and BP

d)

Monitor the victim for respiratory distress

60.

In the ED, it is determined that a burn victim has deep partial- and full-thickness burns over 35% of the upper body. During the nursing assessment of the burn injury, what characteristics will the nurse use to identify the initial appearance of the full-thickness burn?

a)

Mottled and wet

b)

White and leathery

c)

Pink and blistered

d)

Red and painful

61.

The BP of a burn victim has stabilized. What is the next best means of assessing the client's response to the initial burn treatment?

a)

ROM

b)

Urinary output

c)

Level of pain

d)

Body temp

62.

The treatment plan for a burn victim includes using the open method of burn wound management. What is most appropriate for the nurse to monitor when caring for a client being treated by the open method?

a)

Infection

b)

Hyperthermia

c)

Depression

d)

Malnutrition

63.

A burn wound periodically is debrided using hydrotherapy. What nursing action is essential shortly before each debridement?

a)

Keep the client in a fasting state

b)

Witness a signed consent form

c)

Administer a prescribed analgesic

d)

Weigh the client on a bed scale

64.

In ______ _____, the most common type of shock, the volume of extracellular fluid is significantly diminished, primarily because of lost or reduced blood or plasma

(a)  

65.

In shock, the partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood falls below (a)   mmHg

66.

______ ______ _______ is the pressure of blood in the right atrium or venae cavae. It distinguishes relationships among hemodynamic variables in shock: venous return, quality of right ventricular function, and vascular tone

(a)  

67.

Drugs with ______-______ ______ increase peripheral vascular resistance and raise BP

(a)  

68.

In shock, the pulse pressure tends to (a)   as the falling systolic pressure nears the diastolic pressure

69.

Capillaries filling longer than 3 seconds and cyanosis, especially of the nail beds, lips, and earlobes, indicate _____ _____

(a)  

70.

_____-______-______ _____ is a mechanism that restores BP when circulating volume is diminished

(a)  

71.

______ ______ has the highest mortality rate of the various types of shock

(a)  

72.

A life-threatening condition that occurs when arterial blood flow and oxygen delivery to tissues and cells are inadequate. This condition develops as a consequence of one of three events:

-Blood volume decreases

-The heart fails as an effective pump

-Peripheral blood vessels massively dilate

(a)  

73.

The type of shock that is sometimes called normovolemic shock because the amount of fluid in the circulatory system is not reduced, yet the fluid circulation does not permit effective tissue perfusion

(a)  

74.

The diagnostic measurement that is used because left ventricular function is more pertinent to circulation than the right. Knowing fluid pressures on left side of the heart is more meaningful

(a)  

75.

The category of drugs that are the main medications used to treat shock

(a)  

76.

A body cavity that when filled with fluid, air, or tissue can lead to obstructive shock

(a)  

77.

Drugs in this category increase heart rate and improve the force of heart contraction

(a)  

78.

The leading cause of cardiogenic shock

(a)  

79.

Two isotonic IV solutions commonly used to treat hypovolemic shock

(a)  

80.

Vasodilators appropriate for use in cardiogenic shock

(a)  

81.

Increase heart rate, myocardial contractility, and dilate bronchi

(a)  

82.

Raises BP by constricting arterioles

(a)  

83.

Help(s) the body respond to stress by secreting cortisol

(a)  

84.

Causes sodium and water to be reabsorbed by the kidney to raise BP

(a)  

85.

Low blood volume stimulates secretion which promotes reabsorption of water that the kidneys would ordinarily excrete

(a)  

86.

A client in shock has been prescribed dopamine, a vasopressor. Which of the following would be the best time for the nurse to initiate administration of dopamine?

a)

Before fluid therapy

b)

After fluid therapy

c)

While urine output is normal

d)

When systolic pressure is normal

87.

Which of the following clients would the nurse anticipate developing hypovolemic shock?

a)

A client with a spinal cord injury

b)

A client recovering from surgery

c)

A client prescribed an antibiotic

d)

A client having a heart attack

88.

Which of the following is the most important nursing assessment when caring for a client at risk for cardiogenic shock?

a)

Monitor the client's urine output

b)

Check the client's temp

c)

Listen to the client's lung sounds

d)

Review hematologic lab results

89.

When the nurse uses a pulse oximeter and notes that the SpO2 level is above 90%m what is the most likely measurement of PaO2?

a)

20 mmHg

b)

40 mmHg

c)

60 mmHg

d)

80 mmHg

90.

Which of the following characteristics is the major reason older adults are more likely to develop hypovolemic shock than younger adults?

a)

OIder adults are less active than other adults

b)

Older adults have more cardiac disorders

c)

Older adults have a lower fluid volume

d)

Older adults have more respiratory disease

91.

Which of the following is the most accurate understanding by a nurse for the etiology underlying obstructive shock?

a)

Endotoxins trigger the release of vasodilating chemicals

b)

Mast cells release massive amounts of histamine

c)

The volume of blood into and out of the heart is reduced

d)

The vasomotor center in the medulla decreases vascular resistance

92.

When caring for a client receiving an infusion of dopamine (Intropin), which assessment is most important for the nurse to monitor?

a)

Heart rate

b)

LOC

c)

Peripheral reflexes

d)

BP

93.

Which of the following should the nurse report immediately when caring for a client receiving an IV infusion of dopamine?

a)

Infiltration of IV fluid

b)

Rapid, deep respiration

c)

Twitching of the skeletal muscles

d)

Increased bowel sounds

94.

The primary provider orders 0.2 mg of epinephrine (Adrenalin) SQ stat when a client experiences an allergic reaction. Calculate how much volume the nurse should administer if the medication is supplied in 1mg/mL.

(a)  

95.

A nurse is present at a sports event during which a terrorist bomb explodes causing traumatic injuries to spectators. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing method for controlling hemorrhage when a client receives a laceration in a lower extremity?

a)

Apply pneumatic antishock garment (PASG)

b)

Apply direct pressure to the location of the injury

c)

Elevate the extremity higher than the heart

d)

Wrap the extremity with an item of clothing

96.

A burn is a (a)   injury to the skin and underlying tissues. Heat, chemicals, or electricity cause burn injuries.

97.

Comparing the client's _____ is a quick assessment technique to estimate how much of the client's skin surface is involved.

a)

Hand

b)

Foot

c)

Head

d)

Thumb

98.

(a)   is the removal of necrotic tissue

99.

A disadvantage of surgical debridement is (a)  

100.

Skin grafting is necessary for ____ _____-_____ or _____-_____ burns because the skin layers responsible for regeneration have been destroyed.

a)

Superficial and superficial partial thickness

b)

Deep partial-thickness and full-thickness

c)

Superficial partial thickness and deep partial thickness

101.

An (a)   or homograft is human skin obtained from a cadaver

102.

______ ______ are a temporary covering that promotes wound healing by interacting directly with body tissues. It can be applied all over the burn wound as soon as the skin is cleaned and debrided instead of having to wait until enough skin is available for grafting purposes

(a)  

103.

After a burn, fluid from the body moves toward a burned area, which accounts for (a)   at the burn site

104.

Thermal injuries cause the (a)   in cells to coagulate

105.

A (a)   is obtained from animals

106.

Generally, the drug of choice to manage severe pain for a burn victim. (______ ______ IV)

(a)  

107.

If the eschar constricts the area and impairs circulation, this procedure, which involves an incision into the eschar, is done to relieve pressure on the affected area. (a)  

108.

The regrowth of skin. (a)  

109.

Only skin transplanted from one identical twin to another, or this type of graft, can become a permanent part of the client's own skin. (a)  

110.

The epidermis and a thin layer of dermis are harvested from the client's skin. This type of autograft is usually obtained from the buttocks or thighs. (______-_____ _____)

(a)  

111.

This type of autograft includes epidermis, dermis, and some SQ tissue. It is used when the burned area is fairly small or involves the hands, face or neck. (______-_____ _______)

(a)  

112.

A wound-closure product that is developed by growing the client's own skin cells in a lab culture medium. From a piece of postage-stamp sized skin, a sheet of epithelial cells may be grown, which is then transferred to the burned areas. ______ ______

(a)  

113.

This develops because the heat literally destroys erythrocytes. (a)  

114.

These burns also produce heat, which is the greatest at the points of entry to and exit the body. (______ _____;______)

(a)  

115.

This is a hard, leathery crust of dehydrated skin. (a)  

116.

The epidermis is injured, but the dermis is unaffected. Although the burn is red and painful, it heals in less than 5 days, usually spontaneously with symptomatic treatment. Infection, increased metabolism, and scarring do not occur.

a)

Full-thickness burn

b)

Superficial partial-thickness burn

c)

Deep partial-thickness burn

d)

Superficial burn

117.

Epidermis and dermis are damaged. Heals within 14 days, with possibly some pigmentary changes but no scarring; it requires no surgical intervention.

a)

Superficial burn

b)

Superficial partial-thickness burn

c)

Deep partial-thickness burn

d)

Full-thickness burn

118.

Epidermis and dermis are damaged. Takes more than 3 weeks to heal, may need debridement, is subject to hypertrophic scarring, and may require skin grafts

a)

Superficial burn

b)

Superficial partial-thickness burn

c)

Deep partial-thickness burn

d)

Full-thickness burn

119.

Destroys all layers of the skin and consequently is painless; the tissue appears charred or lifeless. If not debrided, this type of burn injury leads to sepsis, extensive scarring, and contractures. Skin grafts are necessary for a full-thickness burn because the skin cells are no longer alive to regenerate. The most serious full-thickness burn, a fourth-degree burn, can involve ligaments, tendons, muscles, nerves, and bone.

a)

Superficial burn

b)

Superficial partial-thickness burn

c)

Full-thickness burn

d)

Deep partial-thickness burn

120.

Which of the following are correctly identified by a nurse as goals of fluid resuscitation following a burn injury? Select all that apply.

a)

Restoring of nutrition

b)

Replacing vascular volume

c)

Reducing blood loss

d)

Preventing cellular ischemia

e)

Maintaining organ functions

121.

The nurse observes that some burned areas appear black and leathery. What is the most accurate nursing identification of this burned area?

a)

Superficial burn

b)

Superficial partial-thickness burn

c)

Deep partial-thickness burn

d)

Full-thickness burn

122.

Which of the following nursing assessment findings suggest that a burn victim is experiencing hypovolemic shock? Select all that apply.

a)

Hypotension

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Respiratory stridor

d)

Dilated pupils

e)

Anuria

123.

When a client asks a nurse about the advantages of using cultured skin to cover a burn wound, what is the most accurate answer? Select all that apply.

a)

Healing occurs rapidly

b)

Culturing skin is a speedy process

c)

A large burn area can be covered

d)

Tissue rejection is unlikely

124.

Which of the following nursing instructions is best for preventing permanent pigment changes where a client has undergone skin grafting?

a)

Wear several layers of clothing

b)

Use a high SPF sunscreen outdoors

c)

Slowly expose the graft to sunlight

d)

Rub the skin graft with vitamin D

125.

Which of the following nursing interventions is essential for minimizing the risk of mortality when caring for a client with extensive burns?

a)

Administering prescribed analgesics

b)

Relieving the client's depression

c)

Maintaining bowel elimination

d)

Providing adequate nutrition

126.

Which of the following assessment findings suggest to the nurse that a client may have experienced smoke inhalation? Select all that apply.

a)

Burn involving the chest

b)

Oxygen saturation less than 90 mmHg

c)

Singed nasal hair

d)

Carbon particles in the sputum

e)

Dry oral mucous membranes

127.

What is the best reason the nurse can provide for performing an escharotomy on a client who has burns?

a)

This procedure promotes epithelialization

b)

This procedure reduces the potential for infection

c)

This procedure relieves tissue constriction

d)

This procedure decreases pain intensity

128.

The nurse applies mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) to a burn wound. The nurse is correct in identifying which advantage for its use?

a)

It is relatively painless when applied

b)

It effectively penetrates eschar

c)

It is a low-cost antimicrobial

d)

It avoids acid-base imbalances

129.

Calculate the volume of Lactated Ringer's IV solution a client should receive for fluid resuscitation when the primary provider orders 4mL/kg/% of burn. The client weighs 186 lb and has a 50% total body surface burned area. Round the client's weight to the nearest whole number.

(a)  

130.

What is the primary reason the nurse estimates the percentage of burns?

a)

It is used to determine the client's prognosis

b)

It is used to calculate fluid replacement

c)

It is used to identify the need for skin grafts

d)

It is used to project the client's length of stay

131.

Calculate the volume the nurse should program an electronic infusion device if the client is to receive half of 10,000 mL of IV fluid in the first 8 hours. Record your answer using a whole number. ( (a)   mL/hour)

132.

What nursing assessment is best evidence of a successful response to the initial burn treatment for the client with both partial-thickness and full-thickness burns?

a)

Normal body temp

b)

Minimal level of pain

c)

Adequate urine output

d)

Ability to perform exercises

133.

If the open method of burn wound management is used when caring for the client with both partial-thickness and full-thickness burns, what potential problem is most important for the nurse to detect?

a)

Infection

b)

Hyperthermia

c)

Depression

d)

Malnutrition

134.

What is the chief disadvantage when the nurse applies mafenide acetate cream to the burn wound?

a)

Skin discoloration

b)

Pain on application

c)

Unpleasant color

d)

Contact dermatitis

135.

Before each periodic debridement of a burn wound, using hydrotherapy, what nursing intervention is essential?

a)

Keeping the client in a fasting state

b)

Witnessing a signed consent form

c)

Administering a prescribed analgesic

d)

Weighing the client on a bed scale

136.

The health care team is informed that skin autografting is planned for the client with burns.

Following an autograft of the skin, what is most appropriate to include in the plan of care?

a)

Minimize movement to prevent graft disruption

b)

Change the dressing over the graft q8h

c)

Reinforce the graft dressing if drainage occurs

d)

Apply wet soaks to the graft q4h

137.

An adult client was burned as a result of an explosion. The burn initially affected the client's entire face (the anterior half of the head) and the upper half of the anterior torso, and there were circumferential burns to the lower half of both arms. The client's clothes caught on fire and the client ran, which caused subsequent burn injuries on the posterior surface of the head and upper half of the posterior torso. According to the rule of nines, what is the extent of this client's burn injury? ( (a)   %)

138.

The nurse is caring for a client who has just been admitted to the nursing unit after receiving flame burns to the face and chest. The nurse notes a hoarse cough, and the client is expectorating sputum with black flecks. The client suddenly becomes restless, and his color is becoming dusky. Based on this data, which interpretation could the nurse make?

a)

The client is hypotensive

b)

Pain is present from the burn injury

c)

The burn has probably caused laryngeal edema, which has occluded the airway

d)

The client is afraid and is having a panic attack as a result of the unfamiliar surroundings

139.

Which would be the anticipated therapeutic outcome of an escharotomy procedure performed for a circumferential arm burn?

a)

The return of distal pulses

b)

Decreasing edema formation

c)

Brisk bleeding from the injury site

d)

The formation of granulation tissue

140.

The nurse is caring for a client with circumferential burns of both legs. Which leg position is appropriate for this type of burn?

a)

A dependent position

b)

Elevation of the knees

c)

Flat, without elevation

d)

Elevation above the level of the heart

141.

The nurse is assisting with caring for a client who is receiving IV fluids and who has sustained full-thickness burn injuries of the back and legs. The nurse understands that which would provide the most reliable indicator for determining the adequacy of the fluid resuscitation?

a)

Vital signs

b)

Urine output

c)

Mental status

d)

Peripheral pulses

142.

Etiologies of shock. Select all that apply.

a)

Decreased blood volume

b)

Ineffective pumping of the heart

c)

Constriction of peripheral blood vessels

d)

Increased blood volume

e)

Dilation of peripheral blood vessels

143.

S/S of shock. Select all that apply.

a)

Reduced BP and cardiac output

b)

Increased output

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Increased LOC

e)

Vasodilation that causes bradycardia

144.

S/S of shock. Select all that apply.

a)

Tachypnea at first, then bradypnea as death nears

b)

Swelling/edema

c)

Cold, clammy, and pale skin

d)

Dysrrhythmia

e)

Low temp

145.

S/S of shock. Select all that apply.

a)

Weak and thready pulse

b)

High temp

c)

Low SPO2 leading to cyanosis

d)

Decreased LOC

e)

Decreased urinary output

146.

S/S of hypovolemic shock occur when __-__% of fluid volume is lost

a)

30-40%

b)

0-15%

c)

15-30%

d)

40-60%

147.

Classifications of hypovolemic shock:

0-15% fluid loss

-Stable BP

-Slight tachycardia

-Sudden anxiety

a)

Class II

b)

Class IV

c)

Class I

d)

Class III

148.

Classifications of hypovolemic shock:

15-30% fluid loss

-Tachycardia

-Tachypnea

-Stable BP

-Increased diastolic pressure

-Cool, clammy skin

-Delayed cap refill

a)

Class II

b)

Class I

c)

Class IV

d)

Class III

149.

Classifications of hypovolemic shock:

30-40% fluid loss

-Marked tachycardia >120 bpm

-Marked tachypnea >30 breaths/min

-Decreased systolic pressure

-Oliguria

-Confusion or agitation

-Skin pale, cold, and sweaty

a)

Class IV

b)

Class I

c)

Class II

d)

Class III

150.

Classifications of hypovolemic shock:

>=40% fluid loss

-Systolic BP <70

-Weak pulse

-Marked oliguria

-Cold, pale skin

-Extreme sweating

-Unconsciousness

a)

Class III

b)

Class IV

c)

Class I

d)

Class II

151.

Vasodilation causes fld to ineffectively perfuse

a)

Cardiogenic

b)

Hypovolemic

c)

Distributive

d)

Obstructive

152.

Rarest form of distributive shock:

Brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves are damaged. Causes: OD, anesthetics and trauma. Blood remains in the periphery. Decreased cardiac output. Decreased tissue perfusion. Cells deprived of O2. Met acidosis develops from increased lactic acid.

a)

Neurogenic

b)

Septic

c)

Anaphylactic

153.

__% of clients with septic shock will die even with aggressive treatment

a)

55

b)

75

c)

60

d)

40

154.

Cause;

Decreased blood volume with decreased filling of the circulatory system

a)

Cardigenic

b)

Distributive

c)

Hypovolemic

d)

Obstructive

155.

Examples:

-Hemorrhage

-Extreme diuresis

-Severe diarrhea or vomiting

-Dehydration

-Third-spacing

a)

hypovolemic

b)

cardiogenic

c)

distributive

d)

obstructive

156.

Cause:

Enlargement of vascular compartment and redistribution of intravascular fluid from arterial circulation to venous or capillary areas

a)

cardiogenic

b)

hypovolemic

c)

obstructive

d)

Distributive

157.

Examples:

Neurogenic: Spinal cord injury

Septic: Toxic reaction to gram-negative bacteria infection

Anaphylactic: Severe allergic reaction

a)

Cardiogenic

b)

Distributive

c)

Obstructive

d)

Hypovolemic

158.

Cause:

Impaired filling of the heart with blood d/t mechanical impediment

a)

Obstructive

b)

Hypovolemic

c)

Cardiogenic

d)

Distributive

159.

Examples:

Cardiac tamponade, dissecting aneurysm, tension of the pneumothorax

a)

Cardiogenic

b)

Hypovolemic

c)

Obstructive

d)

Distributive

160.

Cause:

Decreased force of ventricular contraction leading to inadequate intravascular volume and tissue hypoxia

a)

Hypovolemic

b)

Cardiogenic

c)

Obstructive

d)

Distributive

161.

Examples:

MI, cardiac arrhythmia

a)

Cardiogenic

b)

Hypovolemic

c)

Distributive

d)

Obstructive

162.

Which of the following medications reduces 28-day mortality of clients in septic shock?

a)

Insulin

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Heparin

d)

Metoprolol

163.

______ may be administered to decrease anxiety and pain. It also decreases stress on the sympathetic branch of the peripheral nervous system, which helps reduce cardiac preload

a)

Dopamine

b)

Percocet

c)

Enoxparin

d)

Morphine

164.

Metaraminol

Norepinephrine (Levophed)

Phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)

a)

Hormonal Vasoconstrictor

b)

Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

c)

Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)

d)

Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

165.

Raise blood pressure by constricting peripheral blood vessels

a)

Hormonal Vasoconstrictor

b)

Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

c)

Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)

d)

Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

166.

Common SE:

HA, restlessness, palpitations, nausea, vomiting, anxiety, dizziness

a)

Hormonal Vasoconstrictor

b)

Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

c)

Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)

d)

Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

167.

Safety warnings for nurses:

Photophobia, protect eyes from light, avoid abrupt withdrawal

a)

Hormonal Vasoconstrictor

b)

Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

c)

Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)

d)

Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

168.

Vasopressin

a)

Hormonal Vasoconstrictor

b)

Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

c)

Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)

d)

Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

169.

Contraction of smooth muscle, divert blood flow, raise BP

a)

Hormonal Vasoconstrictor

b)

Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

c)

Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)

d)

Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

170.

Common SE:

Sweating, HA, nausea, vomiting, anxiety, dizziness

a)

Hormonal Vasoconstrictor

b)

Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

c)

Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)

d)

Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

171.

Safety warning for nurses:

Water intoxication may occur

a)

Hormonal Vasoconstrictor

b)

Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

c)

Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)

d)

Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

172.

Dobutamine (Dobutrex)

Isoproterenol (Isuprel)

Milrinone (Primacor)

a)

Hormonal Vasoconstrictor

b)

Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

c)

Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)

d)

Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

173.

Strengthen cardiac contraction and increase cardiac output and heart rate, used in peds

a)

Hormonal Vasoconstrictor

b)

Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

c)

Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)

d)

Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

174.

Common SE:

HA, restlessness, N/V

a)

Hormonal Vasoconstrictor

b)

Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

c)

Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)

d)

Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

175.

Safety warning for nurses:

If client has a fib, watch ventricular response

a)

Hormonal Vasoconstrictor

b)

Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

c)

Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)

d)

Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

176.

Dopamine (Intropin)

Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

a)

Hormonal Vasoconstrictor

b)

Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

c)

Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)

d)

Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

177.

Increases myocardial contractions, diverts blood flow to internal organs

a)

Hormonal Vasoconstrictor

b)

Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

c)

Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)

d)

Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

178.

Common SE:

HA, N/V, dizziness

a)

Hormonal Vasoconstrictor

b)

Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

c)

Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)

d)

Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

179.

Safety warning for nurses:

Rapid elevation of BP in older persons, do not add other drugs to dopamine infusion, can cause hyperglycemia

a)

Hormonal Vasoconstrictor

b)

Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

c)

Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)

d)

Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)

180.

When treating shock, drugs are (a)   to client responses.

181.

Evidence suggests that low-dose (a)   reduces mortality in cases of severe septic shock.

182.

Clients with burns:

(a)   develops because heat literally destroys erythrocytes. The client with burns experiences hemoconcentration when the plasma components of blood is lost or trapped. The sluggish flow of blood cells through blood vessels results in inadequate nutrition to health body cells and organs.

183.

Clients with burns:

Myoglobin and hemoglobin are transported to the kidneys, where they may cause _______ ______ and acute renal failure

(a)  

184.

Clients with burns:

The release of histamine as a consequence of the stress response increases gastric acidity. The client with a burn is prone to develop ______ ______

(a)  

185.

Cardiac arrhythmias and CNS complications are common among victims of (a)   burns

186.

Preferred use:

Face or near mucous membranes

a)

Mupirocin (Bactroban)

b)

Silver nitrate

c)

Bactracin (Baciguent)

d)

Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

187.

Advantage:

Inexpensive; painless

a)

Mupirocin (Bactroban)

b)

Silver nitrate

c)

Bactracin (Baciguent)

d)

Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

188.

Disadvantage:

Narrow antimicrobial coverage; requires frequent dressing changes

a)

Mupirocin (Bactroban)

b)

Silver nitrate

c)

Bactracin (Baciguent)

d)

Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

189.

Preferred use:

Electrical burns, used for deep burns

a)

Silver nitrate

b)

Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

c)

Mupirocin (Bactroban)

d)

Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)

190.

Advantage:

Broad-spectrum antimicrobial coverage, penetrates eschar

a)

Silver nitrate

b)

Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

c)

Mupirocin (Bactroban)

d)

Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)

191.

Disadvantage:

May delay healing or cause metabolic acidosis; painful application (burning sensation)

a)

Silver nitrate

b)

Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

c)

Mupirocin (Bactroban)

d)

Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)

192.

Preferred use:

Face

a)

Mupirocin (Bactroban)

b)

Silver nitrate

c)

Bactracin (Baciguent)

d)

Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)

193.

Advantage:

Painless

a)

Mupirocin (Bactroban)

b)

Silver nitrate

c)

Bactracin (Baciguent)

d)

Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)

194.

Disadvantage;

Gram-positive antimicrobial coverage only; expensive; requires frequent dressing changes

a)

Mupirocin (Bactroban)

b)

Silver nitrate

c)

Bactracin (Baciguent)

d)

Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)

195.

Preferred use:

Deep, partial-thickness burns

a)

Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)

b)

Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

c)

Silver nitrate

d)

Mupirocin (Bactroban)

196.

Advantage:

Broad-spectrum antimicrobial coverage; painless

a)

Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)

b)

Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

c)

Silver nitrate

d)

Mupirocin (Bactroban)

197.

Disadvantage:

Requires frequent dressing changes; delays healing; stains tissue; contraindicated in pregnant women, newborns, nursing mothers, and clients with sulfa allergy

a)

Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)

b)

Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

c)

Silver nitrate

d)

Mupirocin (Bactroban)

198.

Preferred use:

Broad-spectrum agent for bacteriostatic use in partial- and full-thickness burns; currently being replaced by dressing impregnated with silver such as Acticoat and Aquacel Ag

a)

Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

b)

Bacitracin (Baciguent)

c)

Mupirocin (Bactroban)

d)

Silver nitrate

199.

Advantage:

Solution for application; low cost; not associated with bacterial resistance

a)

Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

b)

Bacitracin (Baciguent)

c)

Mupirocin (Bactroban)

d)

Silver nitrate

200.

Disadvantage:

Does not penetrate eschar; requires frequent dressing changes or repeated saturation of dressings; hypotonic solution may decrease electrolyte level; stains the skin and burn wound black as well as anything it contacts; staining interferes with wound assessment

a)

Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

b)

Bacitracin (Baciguent)

c)

Mupirocin (Bactroban)

d)

Silver nitrate