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WorksheetsCh 17 & 66
Total questions: 200
Worksheet time: 10hrs 0mins
A life-threatening condition that occurs when arterial blood flow and oxygen delivery to tissues and cells are inadequate
(a)
The most common type of shock, the volume of extracellular fluid is significantly diminished, primarily because of lost or reduced blood or plasma (serum)
(a)
Hypovolemic shock also known as what
(a)
Amount of fluid in the circulatory system is not reduced, yet the fluid circulation does not permit effective tissue perfusion
(a)
Distributive shock also called what
(a)
The rarest type of shock, results from injury that affects the vasomotor center in the medulla of the brain or to the peripheral nerves that extend from the spinal cord to the blood vessels
(a)
Septic shock also known as what
(a)
Has the highest mortality rate of the various types of shock.
(a)
An inflammatory state without a proven source of infection
(a)
A complication of overwhelming inflammation that results in massive cellular, tissue, and organ injury
(a)
Harmful chemicals released by bacterial cells, are probably the major cause of septic shock
(a)
A severe allergic reaction that follows exposure to a substance to which a person is extremely sensitive
(a)
Occurs when there is interference with the circulation of blood into and out of the heart, compromising the volume of blood that enters and leaves the heart en route to the lungs and tissues
(a)
Heart contraction is ineffective, which reduces cardiac output
(a)
The volume of blood ejected from the left ventricle per minute
(a)
The first stage of shock, during which several physiologic mechanisms attempt to stabilize the spiraling consequences
(a)
Neurotransmitters that stimulate responses via the sympathetic nervous system
(a)
Secreted by the pituitary, also known as vasopressin
(a)
Promotes reabsorption of water that the kidneys would ordinarily excrete
(a)
Stimulates the adrenal glands to secrete corticosteroid hormones
(a)
Help the body respond to stress
(a)
Aldosterone is an example. Conserve sodium and promote potassium excretion.
(a)
Occurs as compensatory mechanisms fail. Client's condition spirals into cellular hypoxia, coagulation defects, and cardiovascular changes.
(a)
Decreased oxygen reaching the cells
(a)
A less efficient mechanism for meeting energy requirements
(a)
The energy source for operating the sodium and potassium pumps, sodium and water enter the cell, and potassium exits into the extracellular fluid
(a)
Occurs when significant cells and organs become damaged. "Point of no return."
(a)
APACHE scoring system stands for:
(a)
Decreased urine formation
(a)
Drugs with alpha-adrenergic activity, increase peripheral vascular resistance and raise BP
(a)
Drugs with beta-adrenergic activity that increase heart rate and improve the force of heart contraction
(a)
If the primary provider ordered all of the following tests on a client with septic shock, which test result is most important for the nurse to review?
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
White blood cell (WBC) count
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
A primary provider orders 0.3 mg epinephrine SQ stat for a client experiencing anaphylaxis. Calculate the amount the nurse should administer if the label indicates that the drug is supplied in a 1:1000 strength solution. (a) mL
Select the correct sequence of pathophysiologic processes that accompany shock in the sequence in which they occur:
1. Organ failures
2. Decreased urine output
3. Tachycardia
4. Anaerobic metabolism
5. Decreased BP
6. Cellular hypoxia
536412
532614
541236
532641
Which of the following are signs manifested by a client in most types of shock? Select all that apply.
Flushed, warm skin
Low urine output
Tachypnea
Hypotension
Weak pulse
If an adequate urine output is 0.5 mL/kg/hour, calculate the expected hourly urine output for a client recovering from shock who weighs 185 lb? (a) mL/hr
Similar to sunburn. The epidermis is injured, but the dermis in unaffected.
(a)
Classified as either superficial or deep partial thickness, depending on how much dermis is damaged
(a)
Destroys all layers of the skin and is consequently painless. Tissue appears charred or lifeless.
(a)
Increased rate of breathing
(a)
A hard, leathery crust of dehydrated skin
(a)
Administration of 100% oxygen at three times greater than atmospheric pressure in a specially designed chamber
(a)
(exposure method) exposes the burned areas to air, has been virtually abandoned since the advent of effective topical antimicrobials
(a)
Regrowth of skin
(a)
An incision into the eschar done to relieve pressure on the affected area
(a)
The current preferred method of wound management because it creates a microbial barrier, reduces heat loss through evaporation, and provides a moist environment that facilitates healing
(a)
The removal of necrotic tissue
(a)
A skin (a) is a temporary covering
Skin (a) refers to the transferring of the client's own skin to another area
Skin graft: Obtained from animals, principally pigs or cows.
(a)
Skin graft: A biologic source of skin similar to that of the client.
(a)
Xenograft also called
(a)
Allograft also called
(a)
Skin graft: Uses the client's own skin, which is transplanted from part of the body to another
(a)
Skin graft: The epidermis and a thin layer of dermis are harvested from the client's skin
(a)
Skin graft: May be 0.035 inch thick, includes epidermis, dermis, and some SQ tissue.
(a)
Skin graft: Used when the area available as a donor site is limited, as in clients with extensive burns
(a)
Slit graft also called:
(a)
A nurse stops to give first aid to a burn victim running from a home that is on fire. The nurse rolls the victim on the ground to smother the flames. The chest and neck of the victim are burned. What is the next priority for the nurse?
Determine the extent of the burn
Identify the victim's next of kin
Obtain the victim's pulse and BP
Monitor the victim for respiratory distress
In the ED, it is determined that a burn victim has deep partial- and full-thickness burns over 35% of the upper body. During the nursing assessment of the burn injury, what characteristics will the nurse use to identify the initial appearance of the full-thickness burn?
Mottled and wet
White and leathery
Pink and blistered
Red and painful
The BP of a burn victim has stabilized. What is the next best means of assessing the client's response to the initial burn treatment?
ROM
Urinary output
Level of pain
Body temp
The treatment plan for a burn victim includes using the open method of burn wound management. What is most appropriate for the nurse to monitor when caring for a client being treated by the open method?
Infection
Hyperthermia
Depression
Malnutrition
A burn wound periodically is debrided using hydrotherapy. What nursing action is essential shortly before each debridement?
Keep the client in a fasting state
Witness a signed consent form
Administer a prescribed analgesic
Weigh the client on a bed scale
In ______ _____, the most common type of shock, the volume of extracellular fluid is significantly diminished, primarily because of lost or reduced blood or plasma
(a)
In shock, the partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood falls below (a) mmHg
______ ______ _______ is the pressure of blood in the right atrium or venae cavae. It distinguishes relationships among hemodynamic variables in shock: venous return, quality of right ventricular function, and vascular tone
(a)
Drugs with ______-______ ______ increase peripheral vascular resistance and raise BP
(a)
In shock, the pulse pressure tends to (a) as the falling systolic pressure nears the diastolic pressure
Capillaries filling longer than 3 seconds and cyanosis, especially of the nail beds, lips, and earlobes, indicate _____ _____
(a)
_____-______-______ _____ is a mechanism that restores BP when circulating volume is diminished
(a)
______ ______ has the highest mortality rate of the various types of shock
(a)
A life-threatening condition that occurs when arterial blood flow and oxygen delivery to tissues and cells are inadequate. This condition develops as a consequence of one of three events:
-Blood volume decreases
-The heart fails as an effective pump
-Peripheral blood vessels massively dilate
(a)
The type of shock that is sometimes called normovolemic shock because the amount of fluid in the circulatory system is not reduced, yet the fluid circulation does not permit effective tissue perfusion
(a)
The diagnostic measurement that is used because left ventricular function is more pertinent to circulation than the right. Knowing fluid pressures on left side of the heart is more meaningful
(a)
The category of drugs that are the main medications used to treat shock
(a)
A body cavity that when filled with fluid, air, or tissue can lead to obstructive shock
(a)
Drugs in this category increase heart rate and improve the force of heart contraction
(a)
The leading cause of cardiogenic shock
(a)
Two isotonic IV solutions commonly used to treat hypovolemic shock
(a)
Vasodilators appropriate for use in cardiogenic shock
(a)
Increase heart rate, myocardial contractility, and dilate bronchi
(a)
Raises BP by constricting arterioles
(a)
Help(s) the body respond to stress by secreting cortisol
(a)
Causes sodium and water to be reabsorbed by the kidney to raise BP
(a)
Low blood volume stimulates secretion which promotes reabsorption of water that the kidneys would ordinarily excrete
(a)
A client in shock has been prescribed dopamine, a vasopressor. Which of the following would be the best time for the nurse to initiate administration of dopamine?
Before fluid therapy
After fluid therapy
While urine output is normal
When systolic pressure is normal
Which of the following clients would the nurse anticipate developing hypovolemic shock?
A client with a spinal cord injury
A client recovering from surgery
A client prescribed an antibiotic
A client having a heart attack
Which of the following is the most important nursing assessment when caring for a client at risk for cardiogenic shock?
Monitor the client's urine output
Check the client's temp
Listen to the client's lung sounds
Review hematologic lab results
When the nurse uses a pulse oximeter and notes that the SpO2 level is above 90%m what is the most likely measurement of PaO2?
20 mmHg
40 mmHg
60 mmHg
80 mmHg
Which of the following characteristics is the major reason older adults are more likely to develop hypovolemic shock than younger adults?
OIder adults are less active than other adults
Older adults have more cardiac disorders
Older adults have a lower fluid volume
Older adults have more respiratory disease
Which of the following is the most accurate understanding by a nurse for the etiology underlying obstructive shock?
Endotoxins trigger the release of vasodilating chemicals
Mast cells release massive amounts of histamine
The volume of blood into and out of the heart is reduced
The vasomotor center in the medulla decreases vascular resistance
When caring for a client receiving an infusion of dopamine (Intropin), which assessment is most important for the nurse to monitor?
Heart rate
LOC
Peripheral reflexes
BP
Which of the following should the nurse report immediately when caring for a client receiving an IV infusion of dopamine?
Infiltration of IV fluid
Rapid, deep respiration
Twitching of the skeletal muscles
Increased bowel sounds
The primary provider orders 0.2 mg of epinephrine (Adrenalin) SQ stat when a client experiences an allergic reaction. Calculate how much volume the nurse should administer if the medication is supplied in 1mg/mL.
(a)
A nurse is present at a sports event during which a terrorist bomb explodes causing traumatic injuries to spectators. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing method for controlling hemorrhage when a client receives a laceration in a lower extremity?
Apply pneumatic antishock garment (PASG)
Apply direct pressure to the location of the injury
Elevate the extremity higher than the heart
Wrap the extremity with an item of clothing
A burn is a (a) injury to the skin and underlying tissues. Heat, chemicals, or electricity cause burn injuries.
Comparing the client's _____ is a quick assessment technique to estimate how much of the client's skin surface is involved.
Hand
Foot
Head
Thumb
(a) is the removal of necrotic tissue
A disadvantage of surgical debridement is (a)
Skin grafting is necessary for ____ _____-_____ or _____-_____ burns because the skin layers responsible for regeneration have been destroyed.
Superficial and superficial partial thickness
Deep partial-thickness and full-thickness
Superficial partial thickness and deep partial thickness
An (a) or homograft is human skin obtained from a cadaver
______ ______ are a temporary covering that promotes wound healing by interacting directly with body tissues. It can be applied all over the burn wound as soon as the skin is cleaned and debrided instead of having to wait until enough skin is available for grafting purposes
(a)
After a burn, fluid from the body moves toward a burned area, which accounts for (a) at the burn site
Thermal injuries cause the (a) in cells to coagulate
A (a) is obtained from animals
Generally, the drug of choice to manage severe pain for a burn victim. (______ ______ IV)
(a)
If the eschar constricts the area and impairs circulation, this procedure, which involves an incision into the eschar, is done to relieve pressure on the affected area. (a)
The regrowth of skin. (a)
Only skin transplanted from one identical twin to another, or this type of graft, can become a permanent part of the client's own skin. (a)
The epidermis and a thin layer of dermis are harvested from the client's skin. This type of autograft is usually obtained from the buttocks or thighs. (______-_____ _____)
(a)
This type of autograft includes epidermis, dermis, and some SQ tissue. It is used when the burned area is fairly small or involves the hands, face or neck. (______-_____ _______)
(a)
A wound-closure product that is developed by growing the client's own skin cells in a lab culture medium. From a piece of postage-stamp sized skin, a sheet of epithelial cells may be grown, which is then transferred to the burned areas. ______ ______
(a)
This develops because the heat literally destroys erythrocytes. (a)
These burns also produce heat, which is the greatest at the points of entry to and exit the body. (______ _____;______)
(a)
This is a hard, leathery crust of dehydrated skin. (a)
The epidermis is injured, but the dermis is unaffected. Although the burn is red and painful, it heals in less than 5 days, usually spontaneously with symptomatic treatment. Infection, increased metabolism, and scarring do not occur.
Full-thickness burn
Superficial partial-thickness burn
Deep partial-thickness burn
Superficial burn
Epidermis and dermis are damaged. Heals within 14 days, with possibly some pigmentary changes but no scarring; it requires no surgical intervention.
Superficial burn
Superficial partial-thickness burn
Deep partial-thickness burn
Full-thickness burn
Epidermis and dermis are damaged. Takes more than 3 weeks to heal, may need debridement, is subject to hypertrophic scarring, and may require skin grafts
Superficial burn
Superficial partial-thickness burn
Deep partial-thickness burn
Full-thickness burn
Destroys all layers of the skin and consequently is painless; the tissue appears charred or lifeless. If not debrided, this type of burn injury leads to sepsis, extensive scarring, and contractures. Skin grafts are necessary for a full-thickness burn because the skin cells are no longer alive to regenerate. The most serious full-thickness burn, a fourth-degree burn, can involve ligaments, tendons, muscles, nerves, and bone.
Superficial burn
Superficial partial-thickness burn
Full-thickness burn
Deep partial-thickness burn
Which of the following are correctly identified by a nurse as goals of fluid resuscitation following a burn injury? Select all that apply.
Restoring of nutrition
Replacing vascular volume
Reducing blood loss
Preventing cellular ischemia
Maintaining organ functions
The nurse observes that some burned areas appear black and leathery. What is the most accurate nursing identification of this burned area?
Superficial burn
Superficial partial-thickness burn
Deep partial-thickness burn
Full-thickness burn
Which of the following nursing assessment findings suggest that a burn victim is experiencing hypovolemic shock? Select all that apply.
Hypotension
Tachycardia
Respiratory stridor
Dilated pupils
Anuria
When a client asks a nurse about the advantages of using cultured skin to cover a burn wound, what is the most accurate answer? Select all that apply.
Healing occurs rapidly
Culturing skin is a speedy process
A large burn area can be covered
Tissue rejection is unlikely
Which of the following nursing instructions is best for preventing permanent pigment changes where a client has undergone skin grafting?
Wear several layers of clothing
Use a high SPF sunscreen outdoors
Slowly expose the graft to sunlight
Rub the skin graft with vitamin D
Which of the following nursing interventions is essential for minimizing the risk of mortality when caring for a client with extensive burns?
Administering prescribed analgesics
Relieving the client's depression
Maintaining bowel elimination
Providing adequate nutrition
Which of the following assessment findings suggest to the nurse that a client may have experienced smoke inhalation? Select all that apply.
Burn involving the chest
Oxygen saturation less than 90 mmHg
Singed nasal hair
Carbon particles in the sputum
Dry oral mucous membranes
What is the best reason the nurse can provide for performing an escharotomy on a client who has burns?
This procedure promotes epithelialization
This procedure reduces the potential for infection
This procedure relieves tissue constriction
This procedure decreases pain intensity
The nurse applies mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) to a burn wound. The nurse is correct in identifying which advantage for its use?
It is relatively painless when applied
It effectively penetrates eschar
It is a low-cost antimicrobial
It avoids acid-base imbalances
Calculate the volume of Lactated Ringer's IV solution a client should receive for fluid resuscitation when the primary provider orders 4mL/kg/% of burn. The client weighs 186 lb and has a 50% total body surface burned area. Round the client's weight to the nearest whole number.
(a)
What is the primary reason the nurse estimates the percentage of burns?
It is used to determine the client's prognosis
It is used to calculate fluid replacement
It is used to identify the need for skin grafts
It is used to project the client's length of stay
Calculate the volume the nurse should program an electronic infusion device if the client is to receive half of 10,000 mL of IV fluid in the first 8 hours. Record your answer using a whole number. ( (a) mL/hour)
What nursing assessment is best evidence of a successful response to the initial burn treatment for the client with both partial-thickness and full-thickness burns?
Normal body temp
Minimal level of pain
Adequate urine output
Ability to perform exercises
If the open method of burn wound management is used when caring for the client with both partial-thickness and full-thickness burns, what potential problem is most important for the nurse to detect?
Infection
Hyperthermia
Depression
Malnutrition
What is the chief disadvantage when the nurse applies mafenide acetate cream to the burn wound?
Skin discoloration
Pain on application
Unpleasant color
Contact dermatitis
Before each periodic debridement of a burn wound, using hydrotherapy, what nursing intervention is essential?
Keeping the client in a fasting state
Witnessing a signed consent form
Administering a prescribed analgesic
Weighing the client on a bed scale
The health care team is informed that skin autografting is planned for the client with burns.
Following an autograft of the skin, what is most appropriate to include in the plan of care?
Minimize movement to prevent graft disruption
Change the dressing over the graft q8h
Reinforce the graft dressing if drainage occurs
Apply wet soaks to the graft q4h
An adult client was burned as a result of an explosion. The burn initially affected the client's entire face (the anterior half of the head) and the upper half of the anterior torso, and there were circumferential burns to the lower half of both arms. The client's clothes caught on fire and the client ran, which caused subsequent burn injuries on the posterior surface of the head and upper half of the posterior torso. According to the rule of nines, what is the extent of this client's burn injury? ( (a) %)
The nurse is caring for a client who has just been admitted to the nursing unit after receiving flame burns to the face and chest. The nurse notes a hoarse cough, and the client is expectorating sputum with black flecks. The client suddenly becomes restless, and his color is becoming dusky. Based on this data, which interpretation could the nurse make?
The client is hypotensive
Pain is present from the burn injury
The burn has probably caused laryngeal edema, which has occluded the airway
The client is afraid and is having a panic attack as a result of the unfamiliar surroundings
Which would be the anticipated therapeutic outcome of an escharotomy procedure performed for a circumferential arm burn?
The return of distal pulses
Decreasing edema formation
Brisk bleeding from the injury site
The formation of granulation tissue
The nurse is caring for a client with circumferential burns of both legs. Which leg position is appropriate for this type of burn?
A dependent position
Elevation of the knees
Flat, without elevation
Elevation above the level of the heart
The nurse is assisting with caring for a client who is receiving IV fluids and who has sustained full-thickness burn injuries of the back and legs. The nurse understands that which would provide the most reliable indicator for determining the adequacy of the fluid resuscitation?
Vital signs
Urine output
Mental status
Peripheral pulses
Etiologies of shock. Select all that apply.
Decreased blood volume
Ineffective pumping of the heart
Constriction of peripheral blood vessels
Increased blood volume
Dilation of peripheral blood vessels
S/S of shock. Select all that apply.
Reduced BP and cardiac output
Increased output
Tachycardia
Increased LOC
Vasodilation that causes bradycardia
S/S of shock. Select all that apply.
Tachypnea at first, then bradypnea as death nears
Swelling/edema
Cold, clammy, and pale skin
Dysrrhythmia
Low temp
S/S of shock. Select all that apply.
Weak and thready pulse
High temp
Low SPO2 leading to cyanosis
Decreased LOC
Decreased urinary output
S/S of hypovolemic shock occur when __-__% of fluid volume is lost
30-40%
0-15%
15-30%
40-60%
Classifications of hypovolemic shock:
0-15% fluid loss
-Stable BP
-Slight tachycardia
-Sudden anxiety
Class II
Class IV
Class I
Class III
Classifications of hypovolemic shock:
15-30% fluid loss
-Tachycardia
-Tachypnea
-Stable BP
-Increased diastolic pressure
-Cool, clammy skin
-Delayed cap refill
Class II
Class I
Class IV
Class III
Classifications of hypovolemic shock:
30-40% fluid loss
-Marked tachycardia >120 bpm
-Marked tachypnea >30 breaths/min
-Decreased systolic pressure
-Oliguria
-Confusion or agitation
-Skin pale, cold, and sweaty
Class IV
Class I
Class II
Class III
Classifications of hypovolemic shock:
>=40% fluid loss
-Systolic BP <70
-Weak pulse
-Marked oliguria
-Cold, pale skin
-Extreme sweating
-Unconsciousness
Class III
Class IV
Class I
Class II
Vasodilation causes fld to ineffectively perfuse
Cardiogenic
Hypovolemic
Distributive
Obstructive
Rarest form of distributive shock:
Brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves are damaged. Causes: OD, anesthetics and trauma. Blood remains in the periphery. Decreased cardiac output. Decreased tissue perfusion. Cells deprived of O2. Met acidosis develops from increased lactic acid.
Neurogenic
Septic
Anaphylactic
__% of clients with septic shock will die even with aggressive treatment
55
75
60
40
Cause;
Decreased blood volume with decreased filling of the circulatory system
Cardigenic
Distributive
Hypovolemic
Obstructive
Examples:
-Hemorrhage
-Extreme diuresis
-Severe diarrhea or vomiting
-Dehydration
-Third-spacing
hypovolemic
cardiogenic
distributive
obstructive
Cause:
Enlargement of vascular compartment and redistribution of intravascular fluid from arterial circulation to venous or capillary areas
cardiogenic
hypovolemic
obstructive
Distributive
Examples:
Neurogenic: Spinal cord injury
Septic: Toxic reaction to gram-negative bacteria infection
Anaphylactic: Severe allergic reaction
Cardiogenic
Distributive
Obstructive
Hypovolemic
Cause:
Impaired filling of the heart with blood d/t mechanical impediment
Obstructive
Hypovolemic
Cardiogenic
Distributive
Examples:
Cardiac tamponade, dissecting aneurysm, tension of the pneumothorax
Cardiogenic
Hypovolemic
Obstructive
Distributive
Cause:
Decreased force of ventricular contraction leading to inadequate intravascular volume and tissue hypoxia
Hypovolemic
Cardiogenic
Obstructive
Distributive
Examples:
MI, cardiac arrhythmia
Cardiogenic
Hypovolemic
Distributive
Obstructive
Which of the following medications reduces 28-day mortality of clients in septic shock?
Insulin
Amoxicillin
Heparin
Metoprolol
______ may be administered to decrease anxiety and pain. It also decreases stress on the sympathetic branch of the peripheral nervous system, which helps reduce cardiac preload
Dopamine
Percocet
Enoxparin
Morphine
Metaraminol
Norepinephrine (Levophed)
Phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)
Hormonal Vasoconstrictor
Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)
Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Raise blood pressure by constricting peripheral blood vessels
Hormonal Vasoconstrictor
Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)
Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Common SE:
HA, restlessness, palpitations, nausea, vomiting, anxiety, dizziness
Hormonal Vasoconstrictor
Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)
Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Safety warnings for nurses:
Photophobia, protect eyes from light, avoid abrupt withdrawal
Hormonal Vasoconstrictor
Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)
Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Vasopressin
Hormonal Vasoconstrictor
Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)
Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Contraction of smooth muscle, divert blood flow, raise BP
Hormonal Vasoconstrictor
Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)
Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Common SE:
Sweating, HA, nausea, vomiting, anxiety, dizziness
Hormonal Vasoconstrictor
Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)
Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Safety warning for nurses:
Water intoxication may occur
Hormonal Vasoconstrictor
Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)
Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Dobutamine (Dobutrex)
Isoproterenol (Isuprel)
Milrinone (Primacor)
Hormonal Vasoconstrictor
Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)
Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Strengthen cardiac contraction and increase cardiac output and heart rate, used in peds
Hormonal Vasoconstrictor
Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)
Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Common SE:
HA, restlessness, N/V
Hormonal Vasoconstrictor
Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)
Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Safety warning for nurses:
If client has a fib, watch ventricular response
Hormonal Vasoconstrictor
Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)
Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Dopamine (Intropin)
Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
Hormonal Vasoconstrictor
Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)
Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Increases myocardial contractions, diverts blood flow to internal organs
Hormonal Vasoconstrictor
Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)
Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Common SE:
HA, N/V, dizziness
Hormonal Vasoconstrictor
Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)
Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Safety warning for nurses:
Rapid elevation of BP in older persons, do not add other drugs to dopamine infusion, can cause hyperglycemia
Hormonal Vasoconstrictor
Vasoconstrictor: Sympathomimetic (Combined Alpha- and Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
Vasopressor agents: Sympathomimetic (Alpha-Adrenergic Activity)
Positive Inotropic Agents: Sympathomimetic (Beta-Adrenergic Activity)
When treating shock, drugs are (a) to client responses.
Evidence suggests that low-dose (a) reduces mortality in cases of severe septic shock.
Clients with burns:
(a) develops because heat literally destroys erythrocytes. The client with burns experiences hemoconcentration when the plasma components of blood is lost or trapped. The sluggish flow of blood cells through blood vessels results in inadequate nutrition to health body cells and organs.
Clients with burns:
Myoglobin and hemoglobin are transported to the kidneys, where they may cause _______ ______ and acute renal failure
(a)
Clients with burns:
The release of histamine as a consequence of the stress response increases gastric acidity. The client with a burn is prone to develop ______ ______
(a)
Cardiac arrhythmias and CNS complications are common among victims of (a) burns
Preferred use:
Face or near mucous membranes
Mupirocin (Bactroban)
Silver nitrate
Bactracin (Baciguent)
Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Advantage:
Inexpensive; painless
Mupirocin (Bactroban)
Silver nitrate
Bactracin (Baciguent)
Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Disadvantage:
Narrow antimicrobial coverage; requires frequent dressing changes
Mupirocin (Bactroban)
Silver nitrate
Bactracin (Baciguent)
Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Preferred use:
Electrical burns, used for deep burns
Silver nitrate
Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Mupirocin (Bactroban)
Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
Advantage:
Broad-spectrum antimicrobial coverage, penetrates eschar
Silver nitrate
Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Mupirocin (Bactroban)
Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
Disadvantage:
May delay healing or cause metabolic acidosis; painful application (burning sensation)
Silver nitrate
Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Mupirocin (Bactroban)
Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
Preferred use:
Face
Mupirocin (Bactroban)
Silver nitrate
Bactracin (Baciguent)
Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
Advantage:
Painless
Mupirocin (Bactroban)
Silver nitrate
Bactracin (Baciguent)
Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
Disadvantage;
Gram-positive antimicrobial coverage only; expensive; requires frequent dressing changes
Mupirocin (Bactroban)
Silver nitrate
Bactracin (Baciguent)
Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
Preferred use:
Deep, partial-thickness burns
Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Silver nitrate
Mupirocin (Bactroban)
Advantage:
Broad-spectrum antimicrobial coverage; painless
Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Silver nitrate
Mupirocin (Bactroban)
Disadvantage:
Requires frequent dressing changes; delays healing; stains tissue; contraindicated in pregnant women, newborns, nursing mothers, and clients with sulfa allergy
Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Silver nitrate
Mupirocin (Bactroban)
Preferred use:
Broad-spectrum agent for bacteriostatic use in partial- and full-thickness burns; currently being replaced by dressing impregnated with silver such as Acticoat and Aquacel Ag
Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Bacitracin (Baciguent)
Mupirocin (Bactroban)
Silver nitrate
Advantage:
Solution for application; low cost; not associated with bacterial resistance
Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Bacitracin (Baciguent)
Mupirocin (Bactroban)
Silver nitrate
Disadvantage:
Does not penetrate eschar; requires frequent dressing changes or repeated saturation of dressings; hypotonic solution may decrease electrolyte level; stains the skin and burn wound black as well as anything it contacts; staining interferes with wound assessment
Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Bacitracin (Baciguent)
Mupirocin (Bactroban)
Silver nitrate
