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WorksheetsFinal Review Time!
Total questions: 203
Worksheet time: 3hrs 32mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the most important step in venipuncture:
a)
Patient identification
b)
Washing your hands
c)
Explanation of procedure
d)
Verification of test
2.
What does PPE stand for:
a)
Preprandial Evacuated
b)
Personal Protective Equipment
c)
Path Precaution Elevation
d)
Preanalytical Post Elastic
3.
What is the best way to let a clean site dry:
a)
Blow to dry
b)
Air dry
c)
Wipe with gauze
d)
Fan it
4.
OSHA requires all phlebotomists to be trained regarding what:
a)
Laboratory competencies
b)
Blood borne pathogens and needle safety
c)
Order of draw
d)
Priority of draw
5.
All specimens are considered hazardous and infectious so we must use what:
a)
Standard precautions
b)
Red bags
c)
MSDS
d)
Bleach
6.
What organization should be contacted regarding employee safety and unsafe working conditions:
a)
CDC
b)
OSHA
c)
CLSI
d)
CAP
7.
What color tube and which additive is used for a protime and APTT:
a)
Green, Heparin
b)
Lavender, EDTA
c)
Light blue, Na citrate
d)
SST, Gel separator
8.
What color tube and additive is used for CBC, Hct, Hgb, Sed rate:
a)
Green, Heparin
b)
Lavender, EDTA
c)
Light blue, Na Citrate
d)
SST, Gel separator
9.
Which tube has no additive:
a)
Green
b)
Grey
c)
Yellow
d)
Red
10.
What is the ratio of blood to additive in a light blue tube:
a)
10 to 1
b)
2 to 1
c)
9 to 1
d)
5 to 1
11.
Which additive is the best choice for an ethanol specimen:
a)
Sodium Citrate
b)
Heparin
c)
Sodium Fluoride
d)
EDTA
12.
What color tube is an ethanol specimen drawn in:
a)
Grey
b)
Lavender
c)
Yellow
d)
SST
13.
In case of a needle stick accident you should:
a)
Cleanse the site
b)
Get patient information if able
c)
Notify your supervisor
d)
All of the above
14.
Why is it necessary to keep the centrifuge lid closed until it comes to a complete stop:
a)
Eliminate chance of hemolysis
b)
Keeps the tubes balanced
c)
Reduces the chance of aerosol and microbial contamination
d)
Facility policy
15.
What is the purpose of the tourniquet:
a)
To stop the blood flow
b)
To make the patient feel better
c)
To find the vein
d)
To increase blood to ulnar
16.
How long can the tourniquet be in place:
a)
30 seconds
b)
1 minute
c)
2 minutes
d)
3 minutes
17.
What is the first thing you must do after every finger stick:
a)
Squeeze and release
b)
Wipe with alcohol
c)
Wipe away the first drop
d)
Collect your specimen
18.
What angle should your slider be when making blood smears:
a)
10 degrees
b)
30 degrees
c)
45 degrees
d)
90 degrees
19.
What should you do if a standard size tube collapses the veins:
a)
Use a pediatric tube
b)
Terminate the draw
c)
Pull the vein
d)
Release the tourniquet
20.
Which cleansers are most common for blood culture site preparation:
a)
Povidone iodine
b)
Chlorhexidine 2%
c)
Alcohol
d)
Both A and B
21.
What are the characteristics of a sharps container:
a)
Red and White
b)
Spill proof, tamperproof
c)
Facility label attached
d)
Biohazard label on the top left
22.
When used for decontamination, the dilution of bleach in water should be what:
a)
90% bleach
b)
50% bleach
c)
10% bleach
d)
2% bleach
23.
Which point of care test is done to determine a platelet plug formation:
a)
PTT
b)
Protime
c)
Bleeding time / PFA
d)
GTT
24.
Which arteries are involved in an Allen’s Test:
a)
Brachial and Ulnar
b)
Femoral and Radial
c)
Radial and Brachial
d)
Ulnar and Radial
25.
Which are the smallest vessels in the body:
a)
Arterioles
b)
Venules
c)
Capillaries
d)
Veins
26.
Which are the smallest veins in the body:
a)
Arterioles
b)
Venules
c)
Capillaries
d)
Veins
27.
Common site cleanser for a venipuncture isz:
a)
Soap and water
b)
Chlorhexidine
c)
isopropyl alcohol
d)
Betadine
28.
When anticoagulated blood is spun down in the centrifuge, how does it separate:
a)
Serum, cells, buffy coat
b)
Plasma, buffy coat, cells
c)
Plasma, gel, cells
d)
RBC’s,gel,serum
29.
MSDS is part of the:
a)
Quality indicators
b)
Right to know law
c)
Blood borne pathogen and needle safety act
d)
CLSI
30.
When you leave a patient's room, make sure that:
a)
turn off the lights
b)
everything is the way you found it
c)
patient can reach their water
d)
tell the nurse that you are leaving
31.
What is the difference between serum and plasma?
a)
Serum
b)
Plasma
c)
RBC’s
d)
Blood and cells
32.
What is Empathy:
a)
Agreeing with the patient
b)
Sharing similar stories that happened to you
c)
The validation of a person's feelings
d)
Saying nothing to the patient
33.
QA indicators are what:
a)
Measurable factors
b)
Quality control
c)
Sign on the patient wall
d)
How fast a hematoma grows
34.
System that filters, eliminates wastes, regulates water balance is the:
a)
Digestive
b)
Urinary system
c)
Skeletal
d)
Nervous
35.
If a patient has fragile skin where should the tourniquet be placed:
a)
You should not draw patients with fragile skin
b)
Ask the nurse to assist
c)
Over their clothing or a piece of coflex/coban
d)
Draw without a tourniquet
36.
When drawing a burn victim:
a)
You are not allowed to draw from a burn victim
b)
Look for a site that is the least damaged or scarred
c)
Only perform a capillary puncture
d)
Where ever you can find a vein
37.
Even if you wear gloves, your hands should be washed when:
a)
After a meal
b)
Before and after specimen collection or toilet use
c)
during blood draws
d)
at the end of shift
38.
What happens if you squeeze too much during a capillary puncture:
a)
Errors in the results by diluting with tissue fluid.
b)
Blood will stop flowing
c)
The blood will clot
d)
Nothing, you can’t squeeze too much
39.
If an IV is present you must draw blood where:
a)
Below the IV
b)
Above the IV
c)
To the side of the IV
d)
In the center
40.
What vein is most likely to be used for an obese patient:
a)
Median cubital
b)
Cephalic
c)
Basilic
d)
Antecubital fossa
41.
If a hematoma begins to form at the venipuncture site:
a)
Monitor the hematoma a continue to take blood
b)
Remove the tourniquet and continue to take blood
c)
Remove the tourniquet and needle and apply pressure
d)
Tell patient to stay still
42.
The most prevalent work related acquired infection in the laboratory is:
a)
HIV
b)
Hepatitis C
c)
Hepatitis B
d)
TB
43.
Fibrin strands may be present in serum because:
a)
The specimen was not inverted immediately
b)
It was centrifuged before it fully clotted
c)
It was drawn in a plasma separator tube
d)
It was drawn in an SST tube
44.
What should you do if the information is not correct on the patient's I.D. bands/requisitions:
a)
Ask the nurse to print a new requisition
b)
Wait until the patient is properly identified and banded
c)
Ask the patient which is correct
d)
Give the requisition to your supervisor for direction
45.
If a patient says NO to a blood draw, what should you do:
a)
Do Not Draw
b)
Proceed with the draw
c)
Ask the nurse for permission to proceed with the draw.
d)
Tell the patient to come back later
46.
Two forms of patient I.D. are:
a)
Spelling of the first and last name and room number
b)
Birthdate and Drs. name
c)
Patient ID band and medical record number
d)
Have patient state their name and age
47.
Bursting capillaries cause small red pin-point clusters known as:
a)
Petechiae
b)
Polymer
c)
Pryion
d)
Pelarti
48.
Reverse (protective) isolation is for the protection of:
a)
Patients
b)
Healthcare worker
c)
Visitors
d)
Family members
49.
What is the most common complication of phlebotomy:
a)
Sclerosis
b)
Hematoma
c)
Leakage
d)
Blood borne pathogens
50.
What happens when the tourniquet is on too long:
a)
Hemoconcentration
b)
Purple arm
c)
Cyanosis
d)
Contamination
51.
How do you transport Bilirubin:
a)
Slurry of ice
b)
By protecting in from light
c)
Using a heat block
d)
Red tube
52.
What test is ordered to determine PH and oxygen saturation:
a)
Arterial Blood Gases (ABGs)
b)
Electrolytes
c)
CBC
d)
Sedimentation rate
53.
What test would be ordered to detect hematuria:
a)
Hepatitis Panel
b)
Urinalysis
c)
A1C
d)
APTT
54.
What test would be ordered if the patient is suffering from FUO? (fever of unknown origin):
a)
Blood culture
b)
PTT
c)
GTT
d)
Electrolytes
55.
What tube is used for STAT electrolytes and what is the additive:
a)
Green Na Citrate
b)
Green Heparin
c)
Red no additive.
d)
Grey K+ Oxalate
56.
What must always be present on specimen mailers:
a)
Biohazard sign informtion send to CDC in case of breakage
b)
Name, DOB, Req number, date
c)
Facility number, address, date
d)
Name and DOB
57.
What is the chain of custody:
a)
The tracking of legal samples
b)
a blood test
c)
Urine testing for GTT
d)
Material Chemical sheet
58.
Doctors order glucose monitoring for patients with which disorder”
a)
Diabetes
b)
Hypothermia
c)
Cancer
d)
Jaundice
59.
What is a reticulocyte and how long does it live:
a)
Immature red blood cell 120 days
b)
50 days Refrigerated
c)
178 at Room temp
d)
25 days
60.
What organ is involved with a high bilirubin?
a)
Kidney
b)
Liver
c)
heart
d)
lungs
61.
Define negligence:
a)
failure to exercise due care
b)
not keeping the draw location site clean
c)
drawing more tubes than needed
d)
keeping a long wait time
62.
Define malpractice:
a)
Ordering tests
b)
negligence by a professional
c)
not checking expired tubes
d)
Reading the tube additives
63.
Sed rate / ESR is drawn on what color tube:
a)
Red
b)
Royal Blue
c)
Lavender
d)
Green
64.
Which PPE will keep you the safest when body substance or wounds are present:
a)
Gloves
b)
Gown
c)
Shield
d)
N95 mask
65.
What has to be supplied by chemical manufacture according to the Right to Know Law:
a)
HAZCOM (also known as MSD /Material Safety Data)
b)
Materials of Chemicals
c)
Breakroom policies
d)
Quality Control
66.
Parenteral transmission means infection can enter through everything except:
a)
Cracked skin
b)
Digestive tract
c)
Intravenous
d)
Sublingual
67.
Define a concentric circle:
a)
Center to periphery
b)
Side to side
c)
Left to Right
d)
Around and around
68.
What test is ordered to confirm hyper or hypoglycemia:
a)
HGB
b)
GTT
c)
GGT
d)
CBG
69.
Completely stable, what color and number would you expect to see in the diamond:
a)
Yellow – no number
b)
Blue-4
c)
Red-2
d)
White-0
70.
Very extremely combustible what color and number would you expect to see on the diamond:
a)
Red – 4
b)
Yellow-4
c)
Blue-2
d)
Red-2
71.
Moderate health hazard would exist, what color and number would you expect to see:
a)
Yellow-4
b)
Blue - 2
c)
Red-4
d)
Blue-4
72.
If you do not let the cleansers dry before performing a blood culture you might get what:
a)
Contaminated specimen.
b)
A Hematoma
c)
A lipemic sample
d)
Red dots forming around the site
73.
How many mL would be in a typical 24-hour urine container:
a)
2000 mL or 2L
b)
5000 mL
c)
7L
d)
6000 ml or 5L
74.
How do you transport cold agglutinin after collection:
a)
At body temperature
b)
100 degrees
c)
Ice packs
d)
Refrigerated
75.
Cardiovascular system includes:
a)
Heart and vessels
b)
lymph nodes
c)
Kidney
d)
Liver and spleen
76.
It is your job as a part of being a health professional to:
a)
Make your patient as comfortable and at ease as possible
b)
Walk the patient to the car
c)
not miss any blood draws
d)
Talk to the patient about personal problems
77.
What could happen if you carelessly remove a stopper from an evacuated tube of blood:
a)
hemolyze the specimen
b)
Could cause an aerosol
c)
spray additives
d)
unseal the vacuum
78.
What is included in the microorganism category that can exist in body fluids:
a)
ACD
b)
Fungus, bacteria, virus
c)
Serum
d)
Plasma
79.
What is one example of a timed test:
a)
GTT, medication monitoring
b)
CBC
c)
Sed rate
d)
CMP
80.
Selection of a preferred caregiver has to do with what:
a)
The Doctore
b)
Insurance PPO/HMO. Not a patient right
c)
The number of tests
d)
Lymphoma
81.
What does contamination mean:
a)
It is not clean anymore.
b)
the site is swelling
c)
a hematoma is present
d)
Do not use that arm
82.
Extrinsic coagulation function is evaluated by what test:
a)
Protime, Prothrombin time, PT
b)
Sed rate
c)
CBC
d)
ABO RH
83.
Every year laboratory employees must take a test to demonstrate what:
a)
Venipuncture
b)
Competence
c)
Speed
d)
Tube knowledge
84.
What should you do if you get blood on a requisition or on the side of a tube:
a)
Disinfect
b)
Throw away in trash
c)
Throw into Sharps
d)
take it to the Doctor for evaluation
85.
Which fingers are used for skin puncture most often:
a)
2nd digit
b)
Third or fourth digits
c)
Dorsal veins
d)
Thumb
86.
Leg and foot draws can only be done:
a)
With a doctor's order
b)
at night
c)
in a pediatric room
d)
on a gurney
87.
If drawing for a CBC and vein is damage, which method is acceptable:
a)
Skin puncture or capillary draw
b)
Plantar veins
c)
arteries
d)
Do not draw
88.
What could cause "failure to obtain blood”:
a)
Missing the vein /going deep enough/going through the vein
b)
Wrong tubes
c)
Not inverting correctly
d)
tying tourniquet tightly
89.
Pneumonia and surgical site infections are now the most common:
a)
Bird Flu
b)
Nosocomial infections
c)
Inflammation
d)
Blood borne infections
90.
What is the most common size needle for venipuncture:
a)
21 gauge
b)
31 gauge
c)
18 gauge
d)
15 gauge
91.
Identify the larger gauge:
a)
22
b)
27
c)
18
d)
24
92.
When using additive tubes, when should you start the mixing process:
a)
Immediately
b)
After centrifuging
c)
Before collection
d)
After CBC is drawn
93.
What are the additives in a grey top tube:
a)
K3
b)
Sodium fluoride and Potassium oxalate
c)
no additive
d)
EDTA
94.
What is the anticoagulant in a green top tube:
a)
Heparin
b)
EDTA
c)
citrate
d)
oxalate
95.
TDM means therapeutic drug monitoring. It is important to know the:
a)
Start date
b)
Time of the last dose
c)
amount of medication given
d)
expiration date
96.
The feathered edge of a smear is how many layers thick:
a)
One layer
b)
6 layers
c)
12 layers
d)
4 layers
97.
What is the first step in phlebotomy:
a)
Wiping the site
b)
Introduction and explanation
c)
Tying the tourniquet
d)
Gathering the tubes
98.
What is a VAD:
a)
Visitor Acception Device
b)
Vein Aleivate Disorder
c)
Venous Area Dissemination
d)
Vascular (venous) Access Device
99.
ABORH is the abbreviation for:
a)
blood type and RH factor classification system.
b)
a test that requires light protection
c)
special testing for Hep C patients
d)
a grouping of tests
100.
Coagulation factors circulating in the bloodstream are part of which coagulation pathway:
a)
Overtrinsic
b)
Intrinsic
c)
Anterior
d)
Posterior
101.
Coagulation step aided by the release of thromboplastin from injured tissue is part of which pathway:
a)
Extrinsic
b)
Coag
c)
Ptt
d)
Protime
102.
The circulatory system can be divided into what two distinct parts:
a)
Circulatory and Cavity System
b)
Pulmonary system and Systemic system
c)
Heart and Lungs
d)
Pulmonary veins and Aortic cavity
103.
When doing therapeutic drug monitoring, the lowest blood (serum) level - just before the next dose - is known as what:
a)
Trough
b)
Peak
c)
Timed draw
d)
Bottom
104.
When a drug is circulating at the highest level in your bloodstream, it is known as what:
a)
Stasis
b)
the dose after the am medication is given
c)
Peak 30-60 minutes after the last dose
d)
Trough
105.
Matching blood types for transfusion occurs in which part of the clinical laboratory:
a)
Coagulation
b)
Immunohematology
c)
Immunology
d)
Microbiology
106.
Testing bleeding time occurs in which part of the clinical laboratory:
a)
Immunology
b)
Hematology
c)
Chemistry
d)
Coagulation
107.
Testing for tuberculosis occurs in which part of the clinical laboratory:
a)
Coagulation
b)
Microbiology
c)
Immunohematology
d)
Immunology
108.
Testing a lipid profile occurs in which part of the clinical laboratory:
a)
Immunology
b)
Hematology
c)
Chemistry
d)
Coagulation
109.
Testing for antibodies (i.e. for hepatitis, lupus, or HIV) occurs in which part of the clinical laboratory:
a)
Coagulation
b)
Immunohematology
c)
Immunology
d)
Hematology
110.
Testing a person's WBC occurs in which part of the clinical laboratory:
a)
Immunology
b)
Hematology
c)
Chemistry
d)
Coagulation
111.
Testing for a fungal infection occurs in which part of the clinical laboratory:
a)
Chemistry
b)
Microbiology
c)
Hematology
d)
Serology
112.
When testing for blood alcohol level, what type of skin cleaner can you use:
a)
Chlorhexidine
b)
Betadine
c)
Benzalkonium Chloride (B2K) or soap and water
d)
Alcohol
113.
What is CLIAC:
a)
Clinical Laboratory Improvement Advisory Committee
b)
Classical Lab Information Act Committee
c)
Clinical Lab Industry Advanced Community
d)
Certified Laboratory Inc. Accredited
114.
What is COW:
a)
Cut on Water
b)
Certificate of Waiver
c)
Certified On Wrist
d)
Certificate of Writing
115.
What is GLP:
a)
Good Laboratory Practices
b)
Glucose Lab Puncture
c)
Great Lab Procedures
d)
Grand Laboratory Punctures
116.
The single most important way to prevent the spread of infection while performing phlebotomy is by:
a)
wearing a mask
b)
cleaning spills
c)
washing hands
d)
burning waste
117.
After drawing the blood from a patient, the phlebotomist should dispose of the needle by:
a)
Breaking it so it cannot be reused by anyone
b)
Depositing it in an approved "sharps container"
c)
Tossing it into waste cans in the laboratory
d)
Re-capping it carefully and bringing it back to the lab
118.
Negligence by a professional person is called:
a)
Invasion of privacy
b)
Slander
c)
Malpractice
d)
Tort
119.
Which of the following is the single most common source of HIV and HBV in the workplace:
a)
Semen
b)
Saliva
c)
Pleural fluid
d)
Blood
120.
The heart, lymphatic organs, and blood vessels are in the:
a)
Respiratory system
b)
Cardiovascular system
c)
Digestive system
d)
Urinary system
121.
The venipuncture site should be cleansed in a circular motion from the center to the:
a)
Periphery
b)
Injection point
c)
Opposite side you started from
d)
None of the above
122.
Within the capillaries, what is the purpose of red blood cells:
a)
release oxygen
b)
pick up carbon dioxide
c)
pick up waste products
d)
all of the above
123.
Which is not an infection control method:
a)
Protective clothing
b)
Biohazard containers
c)
Sphygmomanometers
d)
Hand washing
124.
Safe working conditions for employees are regulated by:
a)
FDA
b)
OSHA
c)
CDC
d)
CLSI
125.
Which of the following types of tourniquets are used in specimen collection:
a)
Velcro
b)
Blood Pressure cuff
c)
Pliable strap
d)
All of the above
126.
The color of normal serum is usually:
a)
Straw to yellow
b)
Milky white
c)
Clear red
d)
Hazy brown
127.
Which of the following conditions would stop a phlebotomist from drawing blood in a patient's vein:
a)
Same side mastectomy
b)
Recent heart attack
c)
IV in the opposite arm
d)
Active tuberculosis
128.
Chemicals that prevent blood from clotting are called:
a)
Preservatives
b)
Activators
c)
Anticoagulants
d)
Adhesives
129.
Red and white blood cell counts are examples of what type of tests:
a)
Chemistry
b)
Blood banking
c)
Hematology
d)
Microbiology
130.
Treating all specimens as if they are hazardous and infectious is the basis for:
a)
Isolation
b)
Quality control
c)
Universal/standard precautions
d)
Hazardous waste control
131.
Drugs used to destroy or kill bacteria that cause disease are called:
a)
Disinfectants
b)
Germicides
c)
Sterilizers
d)
Antibiotics
132.
When the heart is contracting, the pressure is highest. This pressure is called the:
a)
Systolic pressure
b)
Diastolic pressure
c)
Heart pressure
d)
Arterial pressure
133.
The process by which an object or area becomes unclean is known as:
a)
Contamination
b)
Infection
c)
Sterilization
d)
Colonization
134.
The health worker is protected by law; if it can be determined that he/she acted as expected when compared with fellow workers. This is called:
a)
Respondeat superior
b)
Reasonable care
c)
Duty of care
d)
Standard of care
135.
Which of the following is not known to transmit HIV:
a)
Vaginal secretions
b)
Breast milk
c)
Semen
d)
Sweat
136.
Consent to treatment based upon full understanding of all possible risks of unpreventable results of that treatment is called:
a)
Contributory negligence
b)
Fraud
c)
Assumption of risk
d)
Proximate cause
137.
Infections that can spread from person to person are called:
a)
Environmental
b)
Communicable
c)
Indirect
d)
Vector-borne
138.
A tube adapter that has been visibly contaminated with blood should be disposed of in:
a)
A sealed double bag
b)
The regular trash
c)
A biohazardous waste container
d)
A needle cutter
139.
A violation of a person's right to have his/her name, photograph, or private affairs made public without giving consent is called:
a)
Assault
b)
Malpractice
c)
Invasion of privacy
d)
Battery
140.
OSHA requires training and educational information on blood borne pathogens to be given to employees:
a)
At a reasonable cost
b)
At no cost
c)
For a pre-agreed fee
d)
None of the above
141.
Characteristics of capillaries include:
a)
Being thin-walled in structure
b)
Forming microscopic pathways
c)
Connecting arterioles with venules
d)
All of the above
142.
4 Arterioles, the smallest arteries, subdivide into:
a)
Capillaries
b)
Brachial
c)
Veins
d)
Lymph glands
143.
The branch of study of moral issues, questions, and problems arising in the practice of medicine and in biomedical research is called:
a)
Philosophy
b)
Litigation
c)
Bioethics
d)
Morals
144.
If a test requires serum, rather than plasma, a tube with what color top should be drawn:
a)
Red
b)
Blue
c)
Green
d)
Purple
145.
When using evacuated tubes for blood collection, it is crucial to remember to:
a)
Never under fill tubes that contain anticoagulant
b)
Never use tubes past their expiration dates
c)
Immediately invert any tubes that contain additives
d)
All of the above
146.
The rubber sleeve (at the end opposite the needle tip) on an evacuated tube needle makes it possible for use with:
a)
Multiple tubes
b)
Sterile techniques
c)
Intravenous drips
d)
Blood cultures
147.
Because bacteria and other microorganisms can be found anywhere, all health care personnel should maintain sterility when handling:
a)
IV supplies
b)
Catheters
c)
Instruments
d)
All of the above
148.
When entering a room marked with isolation signs, you must:
a)
Ask a nurse if gown, mask or gloves are needed
b)
Ask the patient what the nurses wear
c)
Go on in, as short visits in isolation do not matter
d)
Read isolation signs to determine what PPE is appropriate
149.
What information must be included if the phlebotomist must manually label a blood collection tube from an outpatient?
a)
Patient's full name and phlebotomist's initials
b)
Patient's date of birth
c)
Date and time of draw
d)
All of the above
150.
The study of blood is called:
a)
Hematology
b)
Hemotoxins
c)
Hemoglobin
d)
Hemolysis
151.
The term asepsis literally means:
a)
Full of germs
b)
Infected
c)
Contaminated
d)
Without bacteria
152.
The use of a chemical procedure to destroy all microbial life, including highly resistant bacterial endospores, is called:
a)
Disinfection
b)
Detoxification
c)
Sterilization
d)
Acid washing
153.
Capillary blood sampling may be used if the laboratory test require:
a)
A large volume of blood
b)
Very little blood
c)
Type O blood
d)
An arterial stick
154.
The tube to collect whole blood with an EDTA additive in it, has what color stopper:
a)
red
b)
lavender
c)
green
d)
yellow
155.
Do not draw blood __________ an intravenous infusion:
a)
before
b)
during
c)
above
d)
after
156.
Which of the following legally enforces the Blood borne Pathogen Standard:
a)
FDA
b)
OSHA
c)
CDC
d)
The Joint Commission
157.
Common symptoms of shock include all of the following except:
a)
pale skin
b)
increased shallow breathing rate
c)
temperature
d)
fast but weak pulse
158.
Which of the following causes AIDS:
a)
HBV
b)
HIV
c)
CMV
d)
RSV
159.
Eating and drinking are permissible in the laboratory setting:
a)
At all times
b)
Only in designated clean areas
c)
After hours of operation
d)
As long as care is used
160.
When all evaluated services and results compare within acceptable standards, the principles of _________are being used:
a)
Quality Assurance
b)
Regulatory Bodies
c)
Networking
d)
Risk Management
161.
The tissue that covers and protects the body is:
a)
epithelial
b)
connective
c)
muscle
d)
nerve
162.
A possible cause of tube breakage during centrifugation might be:
a)
Too much blood in the tube
b)
Unbalanced centrifuge
c)
Not enough blood in the tube
d)
Centrifuging too long
163.
A tube containing sodium citrate as an anticoagulant is the:
a)
green top tube
b)
black top tube
c)
light blue top tube
d)
yellow top tube
164.
The lack of physical or mental fitness is:
a)
Malpractice
b)
Obesity
c)
Neglect
d)
Incompetence
165.
The correct order of draw for skin puncture is:
a)
Green, red, lavender
b)
Red, lavender, green
c)
Lavender, green, red
d)
Green, lavender, red
166.
The term for difficulty breathing is:
a)
Pneumonia
b)
Hypertrophy
c)
Apnea
d)
Dyspnea
167.
What does CAP stand for:
a)
College of American Pathologists
b)
Central American Phlebotomists
c)
College of Analogy Phlebotomists
d)
College of American Preanalytical Phlebotomists
168.
What does CLIA stand for:
a)
Clarified Licensed Inner Administration
b)
Central laboratory Industry Accreditation
c)
Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment
d)
Clinical Labs Intercentive Amendment
169.
What is the difference between STAT and ASAP:
a)
After and Immediate
b)
One is longer than the other
c)
Stat- After 4:00pm - ASAP - as soon as possible
d)
STAT – immediately ASAP - As soon as possible/when possible
170.
What is Homeostasis:
a)
The "steady state" or State of equilibrium or body in balance
b)
Blood clotting
c)
The ability to remain stable
d)
Heparin binds calcium and creates stability in the body
171.
What gland is referred to as the Master Gland:
a)
Endocrine gland
b)
The pituitary gland
c)
Spleen
d)
Lymph Node gland
172.
What body system is the master gland part of:
a)
Part of the Endocrine System
b)
Circulatory System
c)
Urinary System
d)
Pulmonary System
173.
Where is the master gland located:
a)
Left side of the trachea
b)
under the spleen
c)
Found in the brain
d)
Spinal System
174.
What does the master gland regulate:
a)
Fatigue
b)
body functions via hormone production
c)
Hunger
d)
Cerebral activities
175.
What body system uses chemical substances and electrical impulses to control and coordinate body activities:
a)
Pulmonary System
b)
The Nervous System
c)
Circulatory System
d)
Pituitary System
176.
What are the two main structural divisions in the Nervous System:
a)
Thoracic and Abdominal cavity system
b)
Nervous system left and Nervous System right
c)
1) Central Nervous System 2) Peripheral Nervous System
d)
Central Thoracic and Pituitary System
177.
What are the two main functional divisions in the Nervous System:
a)
Motor Skills and Cerebral Skills
b)
Somatic and Autonomic
c)
Peripheral and Melatonin Levels
d)
Maintaining hormone levels and autologous levels
178.
What anatomical plane divides the body into front and back:
a)
Frontal
b)
Transverse
c)
Dorsal
d)
Plantar
179.
What anatomical plane divides the body into top and bottom:
a)
Dorsal
b)
Transverse
c)
Plantar
d)
Coronal
180.
What anatomical plane divides the body into equal/unequal right and left:
a)
Equal Midsagittal Unequal Sagittal
b)
medulla oblongata and thalamus
c)
Left and Right Transverse
d)
Frontal and dorsal
181.
What anatomical terms describe the front and back of the body:
a)
Top - superior /cranial Bottom – inferior/caudal
b)
Plantar/Back
c)
Supine/Prone
d)
anatomical and dorsal
182.
What anatomical terms describe the top and bottom of the body:
a)
Top and Bottom
b)
Near - proximal; Away-Distal
c)
Supine and Prone
d)
Cranial and Plantar
183.
What word describes the inside of the hand:
a)
Palmar
b)
Dorsal
c)
Palm
d)
Palmer
184.
What word describes the bottom of the foot:
a)
Dorsal
b)
Plantar
c)
Supine
d)
Lateral
185.
What anatomical terms describe if something is to the side of the body:
a)
Lateral
b)
Anatomical
c)
Distal
d)
Near
186.
What body organs remove erythrocytes from circulation when they are old or damaged:
a)
The liver the spleen
b)
The kidney
c)
The heart and vessels
d)
The lymph nodes and the aorta
187.
What is the longest vein in the body:
a)
The basilica
b)
The saphenous vein
c)
The cephalic
d)
The median
188.
Name four body cavities:
a)
Cranial/ Abdominal /Thoracic/ Pelvic
b)
Lymphatic/ Cranial /Palmer/ Circulatory
c)
Thoracic/ Abdominal /Pituitary/ Cranium
d)
Urinary/Cranial /Circulatory/ Pulmonary
189.
Where is the primary place RBC's and WBC's are made:
a)
Spleen
b)
In the bone marrow.
c)
Circulatory System
d)
In the heart
190.
What does hematocrit measure:
a)
Hematocrit measures the VOLUME of RBC's in blood. Hct
b)
inflammation rate
c)
bleeding time
d)
immune system levels
191.
What is a differential count:
a)
A test to determine the number of each of the different white blood cell types.
b)
A coagulation test
c)
A slide that determines RBC levels
d)
A test to determine inflammation and RBC’s
192.
What are the 5 WB cells:
a)
Erythrocytes, Basal Cells, Retics, WBC’s and Neutrophils
b)
Eosinophils, neutrophils, basophils, monocytes and lymphocytes
c)
Reticulocytes, Basophils, Inflammatory cells, Central cells, and Eosinophils
d)
Monocytes, Basophils, Reticulocyte, thrombocyte, and Platelets
193.
What are the two numbers in blood pressure readings called, and what do they represent:
a)
Systolic - when the heart chambers are contracting and Diastolic - when the heart chambers are resting
b)
Top- Pressure of blood levels and Bottom- beats per heart
c)
Systematic- top and Below- when the pressure is the lowest
d)
Dilated- The top number and Systemic- bottom level is the lowest
194.
What color vacuum tube is used for a blood culture for AFP:
a)
Royal Blue
b)
Yellow SPS
c)
Pink tube
d)
Lavender EDTA
195.
What does AFB stand for:
a)
Ariel Fast Basil
b)
Acid-fast bacillus
c)
Athylene Fomite Basophils
d)
Acid First Bacil
196.
What does a hemoglobin test measure:
a)
The iron-containing pigment in RBC's that can carry oxygen and carbon dioxide.
b)
The number of white blood cells in capillaries
c)
The amount of K+ in the serum
d)
The amount of platelets in the plasma
197.
How does the additive heparin work:
a)
Binds (chelating) calcium
b)
Inhibits thrombin formation
c)
precipitate calcium
d)
prevents glycolysis
198.
How does the additive EDTA work:
a)
Binds (chelating) calcium
b)
Inhibits thrombin formation
c)
prevents glycolysis
d)
precipitate calcium
199.
How does the additive sodium citrate work:
a)
Inhibits thrombin formation
b)
Binds (chelating) calcium
c)
prevents glycolysis
d)
precipitate calcium
200.
What does the additive Sodium fluoride do:
a)
Inhibits thrombin formation
b)
Binds (chelating) calcium
c)
Prevents glycolysis and inhibits the growth of bacteria.
d)
precipitate calcium
201.
How does the additive Potassium oxalate work:
a)
Inhibits thrombin formation
b)
Binds (chelating) calcium
c)
Prevents Glycolysis
d)
Precipitate Calcium
202.
What blood type is the universal donor:
a)
AB+
b)
A-
c)
O-
d)
B+
203.
Which blood type is the universal recipient:
a)
AB+
b)
A-
c)
O-
d)
B+
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