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Oral biology ( Muy Say)

Total questions: 206

Worksheet time: 2hrs 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Most of the hard palate and all of the soft palate from the:

a)

Primary palate

b)

Secondary palate

c)

Assessor palate

d)

All are corrected

2.

In humans, which branchial arch rudimentary is:

a)

2nd

b)

4th

c)

5th

d)

6th

3.

The name of the second branchial arch is:

a)

Maxillary arch

b)

Mandibular arch

c)

Hyoid arch

d)

All are corrected

4.

Median rhomboid glossitis is :

a)

Caused by persistence of tuberculum impar

b)

Red and rhomboidal smooth zone of the tongue

c)

Found in midline in front of the foramen cecum

d)

All are corrected

5.

Dental lamina is formed when:

a)

The embryo is 3weeks old

b)

The embryo is 4weeks old

c)

The embryo is 5weeks old

d)

The embryo is 6weeks old

6.

After fertilization of ovum series of cell division give rise to an egg cell mass called:

a)

Placenta

b)

Morula

c)

Embryo

d)

Embryonic disc

7.

Hertwig's root sheath consists of:

a)

The outer and inner enamel epithelium only

b)

The stratum intermedium

c)

The stellate reticulum

d)

All are corrected

8.

The term for a fertilized egg from conception until the end of two months development:

a)

Embryo

b)

Zygote

c)

Fetus

d)

Ovary

9.

In human's fertilization normally occurs in:

a)

Uterus vagina

b)

Fallopian tube

c)

zona pellucide

d)

ovary

10.

After ovulation the ovum can be fertilized for about :

a)

5-10 hours

b)

More than 48 hours

c)

4-20 hours

d)

1-3 hours

e)

24-48 hours

11.

One of the following represents the correct order of prenatal development:

a)

Preimplantation, fetal, embryonic

b)

Preimplantation, embryonic, fetal

c)

fetal, preimplantation, embryonic

d)

fetal, embryonic, preimplantation

12.

One of the following should a woman avoid while she is pregnant:

a)

Smoking cigarettes

b)

Being under 20 and over 40 years of age

c)

Not having adequate prenatal medical supervision

d)

All of these

13.

One of the following characterize prenatal development It is:

a)

The shortest stage of the human life span

b)

A highly critical stage in human development

c)

The stage during which most development occurs at the most rapid rate in the human life span

d)

All are corrected

14.

The following are all derived from the stomodeal ectoderm such as:

a)

Salivary glands, anterior pituitary gland and enamel organs

b)

Enamel dentin and major salivary glands

c)

Cementum, anterior pituitary gland and stratum intermedium

d)

Dental lamina, dental papilla and dental sac

15.

One of the following does contribute to the formation of the upper lip:

a)

Lateral nasal process

b)

Two maxillary processes and medial nasal process

c)

Medial nasal process

d)

First branchial arch

16.

An oblique facial cleft is formed when the:

a)

Due to the rupture of the buccopharyngeal membrane

b)

Maxillary process fails to fuse with the mandibular processes

c)

Maxillary process fails to fuse with the lateral and medial nasal process

d)

Medial nasal process fails to fuse with the maxillary process

17.

The extrinsic muscles of the tongue:

a)

Develop from the maxillary process

b)

Develop from occipital myotomes

c)

Develop from tuberculum impar

d)

Develop from the second branchial arch

18.

The following embryonic structures contribute to the formation of lower lip:

a)

Maxillary process

b)

Maxillary and medial nasal processes

c)

Medial and lateral nasal processes

d)

Two mandibular processes

19.

Palatal processes of the maxilla are derived from:

a)

Horizontal process of the maxillary prominences

b)

Mandibular processes

c)

Copula of His

d)

Medial nasal process

20.

The maxillary processes:

a)

Are covered with endoderm

b)

Are derived from the first pharyngeal arch

c)

Form the primary palate

d)

Form the entire upper lip

21.

A unilateral cleft lip is formed when:

a)

The palatal shelves remain in a vertical position

b)

The bucco-nasal membrane ruptures

c)

One maxillary process fails to fuse with the medial nasal process

d)

One lateral nasal process fails to fuse with the maxillary process

22.

The soft palate develops from:

a)

Primary palate

b)

Palatal processes fused with the nasal septum

c)

Medial nasal process

d)

Palatal processes which are not fused with nasal septum

23.

Branchial arches sharing in tongue development are:

a)

First and second

b)

First

c)

Second and third

d)

First, third and fourth

24.

The stomodeum is lined by:

a)

Endoderm

b)

Mesoderm

c)

Ectoderm

d)

Endoderm and Mesoderm

25.

The Palatal shelves:

a)

Develop from the lateral nasal processes

b)

From the primary palate

c)

Develop from the medial nasal processes

d)

Develop from the maxillary prominences

26.

The extrinsic muscles of the tongue are supplied by:

a)

Trigeminal nerve

b)

Hypoglossal nerve

c)

Facial nerve

d)

Lingual nerve

27.

Secondary palate is:

a)

1st branchial arch

b)

2nd branchial arch

c)

3rd branchial arch

d)

Characterized by the formation of two palatal shelves on the maxillary prominences

28.

The muscles of mastication are derived from:

a)

Occipital myotomes

b)

3rd branchial arch

c)

The first pharyngeal arch

d)

2nd branchial arch

29.

The palate is derived from three primordia:

a)

Fronto- nasal process

b)

Lateral nasal process

c)

3rd branchial arch

d)

An median palatine process and a pair of lateral palatine processes

30.

Tongue begins to develop at:

a)

6th wiu

b)

11th wiu

c)

4th wiu

d)

8th wiu

31.

First branchial arch is supplied by:

a)

Facial nerve (VII)

b)

Glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve

c)

Hypoglossal nerve

d)

Mandibular nerve

32.

The nerve of the third branchial arch is:

a)

The glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve

b)

The facial (VII) nerve

c)

Two branches of the vagus (X) nerve

d)

The superior laryngeal nerves

33.

Neural crest cells are a temporary group of cells unique to vertebrates that arise from the embryonic ectoderm cell layer, and in turn give rise to A diverse cell lineage including:

a)

Bone, dentine and cartilage

b)

Enamel, dentine and bone

c)

Sensory cells, enamel and dentine

d)

Craniofacial cartilage and bone, smooth muscle, peripheral and enteric neurons

34.

The inferior parathyroid gland originates from:

a)

First pharyngeal pouch

b)

First pharyngeal cleft

c)

Third pharyngeal pouch

d)

Fourth pharyngeal pouch

35.

The development of secondary palate begins from:

a)

3-4 wiu

b)

4-5 wiu

c)

15-16 wiu

d)

6-9 wiu

36.

The occipital somite’s myotomes give rise to:

a)

Muscles of mastication

b)

Muscles of the lip

c)

Muscles of the tongue

d)

Muscles of cheek

37.

The malleus of inner ear originates from:

a)

Condylar cartilage

b)

Coronoid cartilage

c)

Meckel’s cartilage

d)

All are corrected

38.

The statements about the branchial apparatus are true except:

a)

The arches are composed of a mesenchymal core that is covered externally by ectoderm and internally by endoderm

b)

The mesenchymal core is derived not only from intraembryonic mesoderm, but also from neural crest cells

c)

The second arch grows over the third and fourth on the side of the neck to create the cervical sinus

d)

Each arch contains an aortic arch, cartilage, a nerve, and striated muscles

39.

Pharyngeal pouches:

a)

Separate the branchial arches internally

b)

Separate the branchial arches externally

c)

Give rise to structures such as the external acoustic meatus

d)

All are corrected

40.

Facial swellings refer to:

a)

The five facial primordia which form the eyes, nose, mouth and jaw

b)

The five prominences that are apparent following proliferation and migration of neural crest cells

c)

The two mandibular prominences, the two maxillary prominences and the frontonasal prominence

d)

All are corrected

41.

Concerning cleft lips and cleft palates:

a)

They are not very common

b)

Cleft lips result from the incomplete (or nonexistent) fusion of the mandibular prominence and the fused medial nasal prominences

c)

They can be either unilateral or bilateral

d)

Cleft palate is always found with a cleft lip

42.

An oblique facial cleft is the result of:

a)

Excessive proliferation of the lateral nasal processes

b)

Incomplete or complete lack of fusion of the lateral nasal processes and the maxillary swelling

c)

Abnormal fusion of the two frontonasal processes

d)

Fusion of the maxillary and mandibular swellings unilaterally

43.

Cleft palate may result from all of the following except

a)

Deficiency in crest derived mesenchyme

b)

Lack of shelf movement

c)

Lack of fusion of the primary with the secondary palate

d)

Reduced epithelial adhesiveness of the palatal shelves

44.

Formation of the nose includes:

a)

Formation of nasal placodes on the maxillary prominences of the face

b)

The formation of a single nasal placode that later becomes partitioned

c)

The progression from nasal placode to nasal pit to a nasal cavity (or nostril)

d)

All are corrected

45.

Concerning teratogens and their effect on fetal development:

a)

Drugs, food additives and even caffeine can all serve as teratogens

b)

Maternal smoking during pregnancy can cause intrauterine growth retardation

c)

Moderate consumption of alcohol by the mother during pregnancy can produce fetal alcohol effects

d)

All are corrected

46.

Concerning the palate, all of the following are true, except:

a)

Bone gradually develops in the primary palate which lodges the incisor teeth in adults

b)

The posterior parts of the secondary palate do not ossify but extend posteriorly beyond the nasal septum to form the soft palate

c)

Excessive growth of the soft palate can result in the formation of a soft tissue projection called the uvula that can block the oropharynx

d)

All are corrected

47.

All of the following anomalies of the head and neck, except:

a)

Branchial sinuses result from failure of the second pharyngeal groove and cervical sinus to obliterate

b)

A branchial fistula refers to a canal that has both an internal and external opening such as the side of the neck

c)

Branchial fistulas result from persistence of the first pharyngeal membrane and the second pharyngeal groove

d)

Branchial cysts result from persistence of remnants of the second pharyngeal groove and the cervical sinus

48.

Concerning the tongue:

a)

The anterior two-thirds is innervated by a branch of the nerve of the first pharyngeal arch

b)

Most of the taste buds in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue are innervated by the chorda tympani branch of Cranial nerf VII

c)

The glossopharyngeal nerve innervates the posterior third of the tongue as well as the circumvallate papillae

d)

All are corrected

49.

All of the structure is the tooth crown except:

a)

Enamel

b)

Cementum

c)

Pulp

d)

Dentine

50.

The following induces the dental papilla cells to be differentiated into odontoblasts:

a)

Stratum intermedium

b)

Reduced enamel epithelium

c)

Inner enamel epithelium

d)

Outer enamel epithelium

51.

No basal lamina is found between the cells of the:

a)

Stratum intermedium and inner enamel epithelium

b)

Outer enamel epithelium and the dental sac

c)

Inner layer of Hertwig's root sheath and the dental papilla

d)

Inner enamel epithelium and the dental papilla

52.

All of the following is a functional activity of the enamel organ, except:

a)

Inducing the differentiation of Odontoblasts

b)

Secretion of enamel matrix

c)

Maturation of enamel

d)

Formation of cementum

53.

All of the following is derived from the enamel organ except:

a)

Stellate reticulum

b)

Hertwig's epithelial root sheath

c)

Odontoblasts

d)

Ameloblasts

54.

Dental follicle cells:

a)

Differentiate into the ameloblast layer

b)

Differentiate into the odontoblast layer

c)

Are found within the enamel organ

d)

Migrate to dentin surface of the root and differentiate into the cementoblast

55.

The down growth of an epithelial thickening buccal to the dental lamina is known as:

a)

Vestibular lamina

b)

Linguo-alveolar Sulcus

c)

Lateral dental lamina

d)

Successional dental lamina

56.

The dental lamina is induced to proliferate into a tooth bud by the:

a)

Basement membrane

b)

Nerve endings

c)

Ecto-mesenchyme

d)

Oral epithelium

57.

Calcified tissues of the tooth are derived from:

a)

Ectoderm only

b)

Endoderm only

c)

Mesoderm only

d)

Ectoderm and Mesoderm

58.

The number of roots that are formed is determined by the:

a)

Number of Epithelial root sheaths developed by the enamel organ

b)

Number of medial in growths at the epithelial diaphragm

c)

Number of Epithelial root sheaths developed by the dental sac

d)

Thickness of the cervical loop

59.

All of the following are involved in the formation of a tooth except:

a)

Epithelial root sheath

b)

Successional lamina

c)

Dental lamina

d)

Vestibular lamina

60.

The cell rests of Malassez are derivatives of:

a)

Cervical ameloblasts

b)

Outer enamel epithelium

c)

Dental papilla

d)

Epithelial root sheath

61.

Odontogenesis of the primary dentition begins between:

a)

The sixth and seventh week

b)

The fifth and sixth week

c)

The seventh and eighth week

d)

The fourth and fifth week

62.

By the 6th week of tooth development, the oral epithelium is:

a)

2-3 layers thickness

b)

3-4 layers thickness

c)

4-5 layers thickness

d)

2-5 layers thickness

63.

The vestibular lamina gives rise to:

a)

The alveolodental sulcus

b)

The alveolobuccal sulcus

c)

The alveololingual sulcus

d)

The alveologingival sulcus

64.

The ectomesenchymal cell condensation just beneath the enamel organ is called:

a)

Dental sac

b)

Dental follicle

c)

pulp

d)

Dental papilla

65.

Primordium for the permanent dentition appears as an extension of dental lamina into the ectomesenchyme:

a)

Lingual to the developing primary tooth germ

b)

Labial to the developing primary tooth germ

c)

Mesial to the developing primary tooth germ

d)

Distal to the developing primary tooth germ

66.

The region where the inner and outer enamel epithelium meets at the rim of the enamel organ is known as:

a)

Zone of Flection

b)

Cervical loop

c)

Epithelial Diaphragm

d)

Hertwing's root Sheath

67.

Odontoblasts start their secretory activity:

a)

Before enamel matrix production

b)

After enamel matrix production

c)

During enamel matrix production

d)

During and after enamel matrix production

68.

The epithelial rests in the periodontal ligament are derived from:

a)

Dental pulp

b)

Hertwing's epithelial root sheath

c)

Vestibular lamina

d)

Dental sac

69.

Appositional stage is confined to:

a)

Cap stage

b)

Bud stage

c)

Bell stage

d)

Dental lamina

70.

Concrescence usually occurs with:

a)

Permanent maxillary molars

b)

Permanent maxillary premolars

c)

Permanent mandibular premolars

d)

Permanent mandibular molars

71.

Supernumerary roots occur mainly with:

a)

Permanent third molars

b)

Permanent second molars

c)

Permanent first molars

d)

Permanent second premolars

72.

Enamel pearls occur in:

a)

Apical third of molars roots

b)

Furcation area of molars

c)

Cervical third of molars roots

d)

Furcation area of premolars

73.

The Hertwing's epithelial root sheath is composed of:

a)

Outer enamel epithelium and inner enamel epithelium

b)

Inner enamel epithelium and stratum intermedium

c)

Outer enamel epithelium and stellate reticulum

d)

Stellate reticulum and stratum intermedium

74.

Inner enamel epithelium:

a)

Consists of a single layer of cuboidal epithelial cells

b)

Consists of a single layer of columnar epithelial cells

c)

Consists of a single layer of polyhedral epithelial cells

d)

Consists of a single layer of polygonal epithelial cells

75.

The dental sac is:

a)

The condensation of the ectomesenchymal cells surrounding Enamel organ

b)

The condensation of the ectomesenchymal cells surrounding dental papilla

c)

The condensation of the ectomesenchymal cells surrounding the enamel organ and dental papilla

d)

All are corrected

76.

The Hertwig epithelial root sheath can't be seen as a continuous layer in the developing root because:

a)

The rapid epithelial sheath proliferation

b)

The dentin formation

c)

The rapid epithelial sheath destruction after dentin formation

d)

All are corrected

77.

If Hertwig's epithelial root sheath does not disintegrate:

a)

No cementum will be formed on the radicular dentin

b)

It is likely that some of the enamel will be resorbed

c)

The apical end of the junctional epithelium will lie occlusal to the cemento-enamel junction

d)

Predentine will form on the outer surface of the radicular dentin

78.

The reduced enamel epithelium is derived from:

a)

Maturative ameloblasts and stratum intermedium

b)

Stratum intermedium, stellate reticulum and outer dental epithelium

c)

Stratum intermedium, stellate reticulum and inner epithelium

d)

Protective ameloblasts, stratum intermedium, stellate reticulum and outer enamel epithelium

79.

One of the following indicates the major components of a tooth germ:

a)

The dental lamina, the stellate reticulum and the stratum intermedium

b)

The dental organ, the dental papilla and the dental sac

c)

The dental pulp, the dental sac and the dental lamina

d)

The cervical loop, Hertwig's sheath and the inner enamel epithelium

80.

All of the following is the ectodermal in origin, except:

a)

Epithelial rests of Malassez

b)

Anterior pituitary gland

c)

Stellate reticulum

d)

Enamel spindles

81.

The last hard dental tissue to be deposited is:

a)

Enamel

b)

Outer layers of cementum

c)

Mantle dentin

d)

Primary dentin

82.

One of the following is associated with an erupted tooth:

a)

Outer Enamel epithelium

b)

Cervical loop

c)

Epithelial rests of Malassez

d)

Stratum intermedium

83.

All of the following is a bout of Hertwig's epithelial root sheath except:

a)

It lacks a stellate reticulum

b)

It is derived from stomodeal ectoderm

c)

Its remnants form epithelial rests

d)

It remains intact until a layer of cementum has been formed

84.

One group of structures is entirely derived from the dental sac:

a)

Dentin, pulp, cementum

b)

Cementum, alveolar bone, pulp

c)

Cementum, enamel, pulp

d)

Periodontal ligament, cementum, alveolar bone

85.

The development of the root begins when:

a)

The inner and outer dental epithelium reaching the future CEJ

b)

The crown is completely formed

c)

The development of the supporting bone begins

d)

The development of the periodontal ligament begins

86.

The function of the inner enamel epithelium is:

a)

Exerts organization influence on the dental papilla cells

b)

Lays down dentin matrix

c)

Protects the enamel after eruption

d)

Provides the enamel organs with alkaline phosphatase

87.

The apposition stage of tooth development begins:

a)

The root of the tooth begins to develop

b)

The first layer of dentine is deposited

c)

When the first layer of enamel lay down

d)

The enamel, cementum and dentin are secreted in layers

88.

All the statement about epithelial diaphragm except:

a)

It produces narrowing of the wide cervical opening

b)

Its proliferation is accompanied by proliferation of pulp cells

c)

adjacent to diaphragm

d)

Its growing end is located coronal to the root sheath

e)

It grows in a horizontal plane

89.

The mesenchymal cells lying adjacent to the inner enamel epithelium:

a)

Differentiate into ameloblasts

b)

Differentiate into odontoblasts

c)

Are under the influence of stellate reticulum

d)

Become markedly folded

90.

Advanced bell stage of tooth development refers to:

a)

Histodifferentiation, morphodifferentiation

b)

Initiation and Proliferation

c)

Mesenchymal condensation

d)

Apposition of dental tissues

91.

The epithelial component of the tooth germ is known as:

a)

Dental lamina

b)

Dental papilla

c)

Enamel organ

d)

Dental follicle

92.

All of the following is a part of the tooth germ except:

a)

Dental papilla

b)

Dental follicle

c)

Dental lamina

d)

Enamel organ

93.

In a developing tooth, if Hertwig's sheath and the epithelial diaphragm were failed to form, the resulting tooth would exhibit:

a)

No radicular dentin

b)

Malformed or fused roots

c)

Acellular, but no cellular, cementum

d)

Defective enamel in the cervical region

94.

One of the following is a component of tooth germ:

a)

Lateral dental lamina

b)

Successional lamina

c)

Vestibular lamina

d)

Dental sac

95.

All the statement about early dental development, except:

a)

Cap stage is accomplished by unequal growth in different parts

b)

In the cap stage the inner and outer enamel epithelial cells are completely alike

c)

The transition from cap stage to bell stage is particularly marked by the full differentiation of stellate reticulum

d)

The dental papilla and the dental sac develop in the cap stage

96.

Concrescence is:

a)

An extra root or accessory roots in a formed tooth

b)

Distorted root or roots in a formed tooth

c)

A union of root structure of two or more teeth through cementum only

d)

A spherical projection on the cemental root surface

97.

One of the following Which of induces the dental papilla cells to be differentiated into odontoblasts is:

a)

Stratum intermedium

b)

Reduced enamel epithelium

c)

Inner enamel epithelium

d)

Outer enamel epithelium

98.

The enamel organ:

a)

Develops from cells in the dental follicle

b)

Is a completely connective tissue structure

c)

Is a completely epithelial structure

d)

Is highly vascular, as ameloblasts require an enriched environment

99.

The Hertwig epithelial root sheath of disintegrates:

a)

After odontoblastic differentiation and before dentin matrix formation

b)

After odontoblastic differentiation and dentin matrix deposition

c)

Before odontoblastic differentiation

d)

After cementum formation

100.

All of the following is a function of dental sac except:

a)

Nutrition of enamel organ

b)

Formation of cementum

c)

Formation of periodontal ligamen

d)

Formation of supporting alveolar bone

101.

The stratum intermedium:

a)

Lies between outer enamel epithelium and stellate reticulum

b)

Is a transient structure

c)

Is rich in mucopolysaccharides

d)

Plays important role in enamel calcification

102.

A layer of cells that seems to be essential to enamel formation but do actually secrete the enamel except:

a)

Outer enamel epithelium

b)

Stratum intermedium

c)

Reduced dental epithelium

d)

Vestibular lamina

103.

The dental lamina initiating the permanent molars develops:

a)

As successional lamina

b)

As a distal extension of the dental lamina

c)

As lateral dental lamina

d)

As vestibular lamina

104.

The embryo's stomodeum is lined by:

a)

Ectoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Ectomesenchyme

105.

Primordium for the permanent dentition appears as an extension of dental lamina into the ectomesenchym at:

a)

Lingual to the developing primary tooth germ

b)

Labial to the developing primary tooth germ

c)

Mesial to the developing primary tooth germ

d)

Distal to the developing primary tooth germ

106.

Appositional stage is confined from:

a)

Cap stage

b)

Bud stage

c)

Bell stage

d)

Dental lamina

107.

The following is component of the enamel organ except:

a)

Ameloblasts

b)

Odontoblasts

c)

Outer enamel epithelium

d)

Stratum intermedium

108.

The following Which contain blood vessels is:

a)

Cartilage

b)

Enamel

c)

Dental lamina

d)

Dental sac

109.

The tooth germ is composed of:

a)

Dental papilla, dental sac, enamel organ

b)

Dental follicle, dental lamina, vestibular lamina

c)

Dental papilla, dental lamina, dental organ

d)

Dental organ, dental follicle, dental lamina

110.

If the process of morphogenesis is disturbed:

a)

Changes will occur in the shape of crown and root

b)

Enamel formation will be abnormal

c)

Dentin formation will be abnormal

d)

Absence of cementum

111.

The dental lamina:

a)

Breaks at the cap stage

b)

Has no branching

c)

Has no remnants

d)

Develops from the oral epithelium

112.

All of the following is part of the tooth germ except:

a)

Dental papilla

b)

Dental follicle

c)

Dental lamina

d)

Enamel organ

113.

The dental sac plays an important role in the formation of all of the following except:

a)

Periodontal ligament

b)

Dentin of the root

c)

Alveolar bone proper

d)

Cementum

114.

The origin of enamel is:

a)

Endoderm

b)

Mesoderm

c)

Ectoderm

d)

Ectomesenchyme

115.

The dental sac gives rise to:

a)

Cementoblasts and periodontal ligament

b)

Periodontal ligament and dental pulp

c)

Dental pulp and attachment epithelium

d)

Odontoblasts and Cementoblasts

116.

Fluorosis is caused by:

a)

Decrease in Fluoride

b)

Increase in Fluoride

c)

Normal levels of Fluoride

d)

Is Inherited

117.

The number of baby teeth is:

a)

32

b)

22

c)

20

d)

23

118.

The number of permanent teeth is:

a)

32

b)

20

c)

30

d)

36

119.

One of the following causes the discolorations of teeth is:

a)

Penicillin

b)

Flagyl

c)

Tetracycline

d)

Gentamycin

120.

One of the following is important for the development of teeth is:

a)

Vitamin B12

b)

Calcium

c)

Vitamin B6

d)

Iron

121.

The bud stage of tooth development occurs at:

a)

The beginning of the tenth week

b)

The beginning of the ninth week

c)

The beginning of the eighth week

d)

The beginning of the seventh week

122.

The cap stage occurs between the:

a)

Ninth and tenth week of prenatal development

b)

Eleventh and twelfth week of prenatal development

c)

Thirteenth and fourteenth week of prenatal development

d)

Sixteenth and seventeenth week of prenatal development

123.

The bell stage occurs between the:

a)

Twenty and Twenty-first week of prenatal development

b)

Thirty and forty weeks of prenatal development

c)

Fifty and sixty weeks of prenatal development

d)

Eleventh and twelfth week of prenatal development

124.

Passive eruption is:

a)

Growth in the length of the root

b)

Apical migration of the junctional epithelium

c)

Deposition of bone at the fundus

d)

The formation of cellular cementum

125.

All of the following does occur during the eruptive phase, except:

a)

Dentin deposition

b)

Narrowing of apical foramen

c)

Increased thickness of cementum

d)

Enamel formation

126.

During the pre-eruptive phase of tooth eruption:

a)

Cementoblasts begin to secrete cementoid

b)

The apical foramen is beginning to close

c)

The developed tooth at the bell stage lies within a crypt of bone

d)

The root is formed

127.

One of the following occurs during the pre-eruptive phase of a tooth:

a)

Differentiation of the stratum intermedium

b)

Formation of the dental sac

c)

Formation of stellate reticulum

d)

Maturation of enamel

128.

Active eruptive movements of tooth occur mainly in a:

a)

Begins as soon as the roots have begun to develop

b)

Begins when the apical cementum is deposited on the roots of the tooth

c)

Begins as the occlusal tip starts moving towards the occlusal plane

d)

Continues until exposure of the cementum has occurred

129.

Actual eruptive movements of tooth occur mainly in a:

a)

Horizontal direction

b)

Complex pattern

c)

Axial direction

d)

Rotational direction

130.

All of the following does occur in the active phase of tooth eruption, except:

a)

Organization of a periodontal ligament from the dental follicle

b)

Gradual separation of attachment epithelium from the enamel surface

c)

Root formation

d)

Occlusal wear

131.

The most likely factor responsible for tooth eruption is:

a)

Vascular pressure

b)

The developing periodontal ligament

c)

Bone growth

d)

The growing root

132.

All of the following statements about the eruption of a permanent tooth and the exfoliation of its predecessor are true, except:

a)

Prior to eruption, the crown permanent tooth is completely formed

b)

Resorption of deciduous roots is an intermittent process

c)

Earliest resorption of deciduous roots is on root surface of the permanent tooth

d)

Eruptive movements of the permanent tooth may not be solely responsible for deciduous root resorption

133.

When a tooth first erupts into the oral cavity, the attachment epithelial cuff is composed of epithelium derived from:

a)

Dental lamina

b)

Epithelial rests of Malassez

c)

Reduced dental epithelium

d)

Epithelial root sheath of Hertwig's

134.

In the post-eruptive phase, a tooth undergoes primarily:

a)

Rotational movement

b)

Movements in a distal direction

c)

Movements in an apical direction

d)

Movements in an axial and mesial direction

135.

During tooth eruption, the permanent successors of the primary teeth move occlusal and:

a)

Mesial

b)

Buccal

c)

Lingual

d)

Distal

136.

During tooth eruption into the oral cavity, what happens to the epithelial covering of the enamel:

a)

It remains as the primary cuticle

b)

It units with the oral epithelium and then degenerates

c)

It is replaced by oral epithelium and then degenerates

d)

It units with the oral epithelium and becomes primary cuticle

137.

Eruptive phase:

a)

Accompanied by bleeding of the gingival

b)

No discomfort or pain

c)

Eruptive teeth move at different speeds, at different times

d)

Has only axial occlusal movement

138.

Histological changes occurring during the eruptive phase:

a)

Root formation only

b)

Formation of the attachment apparatus only

c)

Dento-gingival junction appearance only

d)

All are corrected

139.

One of the following is true about ankylosis:

a)

Is a union of the tooth with the periodontal ligament

b)

The active eruption of an ankylosed tooth continues

c)

Is a bony union between the alveolar bone and the roots of teeth

d)

Ankylosed teeth do not show Howship's lacunae on the root

140.

Shedding is predominantly the:

a)

Physiologic loss of impacted teeth

b)

Pathologic loss of non-vital primary teeth

c)

Physiologic loss of permanent teeth

d)

Physiologic loss of primary teeth

141.

All the statement below is true about the classification of taste, except:

a)

The four familiar categories are sweet, salty, sour, and bitter

b)

There has recently been discovered an "umami" receptor on the tongue

c)

A component that can be reliably identified in isolation can be identified in multiple component mixtures

d)

People sometimes identify multiple component solutions as a single component

142.

The little bumps can see on someone's tongue are:

a)

Taste buds

b)

Papillae

c)

Gustatory pimples

d)

Latin papilla

143.

Taste buds contain:

a)

Olfactory receptors

b)

Papillae

c)

Microvilli

d)

All of are corrected

144.

The map of taste buds for:

a)

Sweet are on the tip and sour is behind of the tongue

b)

Salt is on either side of the front of the tongue

c)

Bitter are on way in the back of the tongue;

d)

All of are corrected

145.

The density of taste buds is highest:

a)

At infancy

b)

In the teen years

c)

Around age 40

d)

Around age 65

146.

The taste sensations appear to be located from the parts of:

a)

The mouth's entire surface

b)

The mouth containing taste buds

c)

The mouth containing functioning taste buds

d)

The mouth containing functioning taste buds that connect to sensory nerves

147.

The cranial nerve supplies to muscles of mastication is:

a)

V (trigeminal)

b)

X (vagus)

c)

VII (facial)

d)

III (oculomotor)

148.

One of muscles of mastication arise from the zygomatic arch and inserts on ramus of the mandible is:

a)

Masseter

b)

Lateral pterygoid

c)

Temporalis

d)

Medial pterygoid

149.

All of the muscles mastication is involved in closing the mandible except:

a)

Lateral pterygoid

b)

Masseter

c)

Masseter and temporalis

d)

Both the medial and lateral pterygoids

150.

The medial pterygoid follows the same angle as masseter arising from the medial pterygoid plate, where does it attach on the mandible at:

a)

Ramus and angle

b)

Coronoid process

c)

Condyloid process

d)

Mental protuberance

151.

Regarding deglutition:

a)

Contraction of cricopharyngeal

b)

Soft palate moves upward

c)

Co-ordinated reflex

d)

Inspiration cessation

152.

Another term for the deglutition of food is:

a)

Digestion

b)

Ingestion

c)

Swallowing

d)

Peristalsis

153.

Pharyngeal mucosa is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerves because it develops from the:

a)

First pharyngeal arch

b)

Second pharyngeal arch

c)

Third pharyngeal arch

d)

Fourth pharyngeal arch

154.

The embryological origin of the hyoid bone is:

a)

The first pharyngeal arc

b)

The first and second pharyngeal arches

c)

The second pharyngeal arch

d)

The second and third pharyngeal arches

155.

The muscles are derived from the first brachial arch:

a)

The muscles of mastication

b)

The muscles of mastication and anterior belly of digastric

c)

The muscles of mastication and anterior and posterior bellies of digastric

d)

The muscles of mastication, anterior and posterior bellies of digastric and geniohyoid

156.

In patient with reduced salivary flow the carious incidence is:

a)

More than the patient with normal salivary flow

b)

Less than the patient with normal salivary flow

c)

Unaffected

d)

All of are corrected

157.

Widely accepted theory of dental caries is:

a)

Proteolytic theory

b)

Proteolytic chelation theory

c)

Acidogenic theory

d)

Autoimmune theory

158.

Streptococcus mutants is involved in dental caries initiation Other bacteria also involved is:

a)

S sarcinus

b)

S macae

c)

S sanguis

d)

S salivary

159.

The dietary carbohydrate most likely involved in etiology of dental caries is:

a)

Glucose

b)

Sucrose

c)

Dextran

d)

Polysaccharide

160.

Bacteria responsible for initiation of caries is:

a)

Actinomycosis

b)

Streptococcus mutants

c)

Lactobacillus

d)

Streptococcus viridian

161.

The pH at which initiation of caries begins is:

a)

43-45

b)

52-55

c)

49-51

d)

35-45

162.

Oral foci of Miller's are seen in:

a)

Dental caries

b)

Lichen planus

c)

Herpes simple

d)

Syphilis

163.

The tooth in permanent dentition is the most susceptible to dental caries is:

a)

Maxillary first premolar

b)

Maxillary second molar

c)

Mandibular first molar

d)

Mandibular second molar

164.

Turbid dentin in carious tooth is all except:

a)

Zone of bacterial invasion

b)

Zone which cannot be remineralizer

c)

Zone in which collagen is irreversibly denatured

d)

Zone that need not be removed before restoration

165.

Streptococcus mutans is considered to be a principal etiologic agent of caries because it produces acid and it:

a)

Forms a gelatinous matrix

b)

Metabolizes substrate from saliva

c)

Derives energy from enamel constituents

d)

Lives symbiotically with lactobacillus

166.

Miller put forth the acidogenic theory of dental caries in the year:

a)

1890

b)

1920

c)

1924

d)

1980

167.

For a bacterium to be seriously considered in the etiology of dental caries, it must:

a)

Exist regularly in the dental plaque

b)

Produce extracellular amylopectin

c)

Be lethal for gnotobiotic animals

d)

Produce intracellular dextran’s

168.

Initiation of dental caries depends on:

a)

formation of large amount of acid

b)

Availability of carbohydrate food

c)

Viscosity of saliva

d)

Localization of acid over tooth surface

169.

The caries, all are true except:

a)

Lactobacillus is the main causative organism in plaque

b)

Smooth surface caries occurs due to streptococcus mutans

c)

Pit and fissure caries can be prevented by using pit and fissure sealants

d)

Fluorides help in reducing caries incidence

170.

The lateral spread of dental caries is facilitated mostly by the:

a)

Enamel spindles

b)

Dentinoenamel junction

c)

Enamel lamellae

d)

Striae of Retzius

171.

The probable reasons for a high incidence of dental caries in the teenage population relates most directly to:

a)

Rapid growth

b)

Frequency of sucrose intake

c)

Negligence in visiting the dentist

d)

Carelessness in oral hygiene habits

172.

Chemico-parasitic theory of dental caries is proposed by:

a)

GV Black

b)

Miller

c)

Gottlieb

d)

Schwartz

173.

The following organisms is found in deep carious lesions rather than in incipient lesions is:

a)

Streptococci

b)

Lactobacilli

c)

Veillonella

d)

Bacteroides

174.

The most pronounced effect on the oral microflora of a reduction in rate of salivary flow is a:

a)

Significant increase in number of oral bacteria

b)

Shift towards more acidogenic microflora

c)

Significant decrease in number of oral bacteria

d)

shift towards more aerobic microflora

175.

Cavity formation in a tooth, due to dental caries is due to:

a)

Destructive potential of Streptococcus mutans

b)

Destructive potential of Lactobacillus acidophilus

c)

Lateral spread of caries along DEJ and weakening of the outer covering enamel

d)

Mastectomy force and unrelated to the extent of carious process

176.

Initiation of caries by Streptococcus mutans is by the production of the:

a)

Dextranase and soluble dextran

b)

Insoluble dextran and glycosyl transferase

c)

Soluble dextran and glycosyl transferase

d)

All of are corrected

177.

Caries associated with pre-eruptive enamel hypoplasia:

a)

Secondary caries

b)

Chronic caries

c)

Occult caries

d)

Incipient caries

178.

Pure mucous salivary gland is:

a)

Parotid gland

b)

Major sublingual glands

c)

Glossopalatine gland

d)

Submandibular gland

179.

The secretions of salivary glands are:

a)

Exocrine and holocrine

b)

Exocrine and merocrine

c)

Exocrine and apocrine

d)

Endocrine and merocrine

180.

Which minor salivary glands are purely serous:

a)

Lingual glands of Von Ebner

b)

Lingual glands of Blandin Nuhn

c)

Palatine gland

d)

Labial and buccal glands

181.

All of the following is true of parotid glands, except:

a)

Stenson's duct opens in the cheek opposite maxillary second molar

b)

Predominantly serous gland

c)

Long, branching intercalated ducts are present

d)

Serous demilunes cap mucous secretory units

182.

The salivary gland is:

a)

Developed from 6th to 12th week and the glandular tissue continues to enlarge until birth

b)

5th to 10th week and the glandular tissue continues to enlarge until birth

c)

The average person produces approximately 05 L – 15 L per day

d)

All are corrected

183.

Normal function of saliva:

a)

Antimicrobial, enables speech articulation, immunity mediator

b)

Cellular maintenance, enables swallowing, hydrating–moisturizing

c)

Cleansing, lubrication, digestion, enables tasting

d)

All are corrected

184.

Minor salivary glands are found throughout the mouth:

a)

Tongue dorsum and ventral, Lips

b)

Alveolar mucosa of palate, cheeks

c)

Buccal mucosa, Floor of the mouth

d)

All are corrected

185.

The three major salivary glands are:

a)

Minor salivary glands, Von Ebner's, thyroid

b)

Parotid, sublingual, and submandibular

c)

Thyroid, parotid, sublingual

d)

Submandibular, gingival cervicular fluid and parotid,

186.

Function of gingival cervicular fluid is:

a)

Protective flow towards oral cavity washes out potentially harmful cells and molecules

b)

Antibacterial immunoglobulins, Rather response to inflamation

c)

Calcium assists pellicle and plaque fromation but may contribute to calculus formation

d)

All are corrected

187.

Functions of the digestive system are:

a)

Prehension, ingestion, deglutition

b)

Absorption of nutrients, mastication

c)

Undigested food products

d)

All are corrected

188.

Component of mastication are:

a)

Teeth, cheek, lip, tongue, palate, pharynx

b)

Teeth, nasal cavity, lip, tongue, palate

c)

Teeth, cheek, lip, tongue, palate

d)

All are corrected

189.

Complete tongue activity occurs in:

a)

Sleeping, respiration, speech, taste, mastication, swallowing, and sucking

b)

Jaw movements, respiration, speech, taste, mastication, swallowing, and sucking

c)

Jaw movements, laughing, speech, taste, mastication, swallowing, and sucking

d)

All are corrected

190.

Chewing sequence could be divided into:

a)

Preparatory series

b)

Reduction series

c)

Pre-swallow series

d)

All are corrected

191.

Deglutition is the complex process that:

a)

Moves bolus of food, water and saliva from mouth through pharynx into esophagus and then to stomach

b)

The muscles of mouth, pharynx, larynx and esophagus coordinate properly in a complex process; to move food and liquid into stomach

c)

The airway is protected by correct movement of larynx, so that food and liquid not enter the airway

d)

All are corrected

192.

The 3 stages of Deglutition are:

a)

Oral phase, laryngeal phase, stomach phase

b)

Oral phase, pharyngeal phase, esophageal phase

c)

Oral phase, lung phase, pharyngeal phase

d)

All are corrected

193.

First stage of deglutition is:

a)

Voluntary and initiate deglutition process

b)

A mass of chewed, moistened food, a bolus, is moved to the back of the oral cavity by the tongue

c)

The lip and buccal muscles help keep bolus from dispersing

d)

All are corrected

194.

Second stage of deglutition is:

a)

Involuntary rapid and the entire process occurs in less than 2 seconds

b)

The bolus is propelled by pumping action of tongue base and constriction of pharyngeal muscles

c)

Start from the upper esophageal sphincter into the esophagus

d)

All are corrected

195.

Deglutition problem can lead to:

a)

Coughing

b)

Airway obstruction pneumonia

c)

Even death

d)

All are corrected

196.

Taste Buds are located:

a)

Soft palate, inner surface of the cheeks

b)

Epiglottis of the larynx, pharynx,

c)

Most on the tongue

d)

All are corrected

197.

The papillae that is projections on the tongue called:

a)

Filiform papillae

b)

Fungiform papillae

c)

Circumvallate papillae

d)

All are corrected

198.

Each taste bud consists of:

a)

50-80 epithelial cells

b)

40 -100 epithelial cells

c)

45-90 epithelial cells

d)

All are corrected

199.

Taste Bud major types Cells:

a)

Supporting cells, receptor cells, epithelial cells

b)

Supporting cells, receptor cells, basal cells

c)

Supporting cells, basal cells, epithelial cells

d)

All are corrected

200.

Four basic qualities:

a)

Sweet

b)

Sour

c)

Salty, bitter

d)

All are corrected

201.

Dental caries can be classified with respect to the site of the lesion:

a)

Pit or fissure caries

b)

Smooth surface, root surface caries

c)

Recurrent caries

d)

All are corrected

202.

The major component of dental plaque is:

a)

Materia alba, lactic acid

b)

Desquamated epithelial cells

c)

Microorganism

d)

Salivary contents

203.

Third stage of deglutition is:

a)

The stage is involuntary, during 8-20 seconds

b)

Start from the upper esophageal sphincter

c)

The bolus passes into stomach at the lower esophageal sphincter

d)

All are corrected

204.

Taste bud is:

a)

Receptor organs of taste, located primarily in the oral cavity

b)

Approximately, 10,000 of taste buds are present in young adults

c)

The number of taste buds begins declining rapidly by age 50

d)

All are corrected

205.

The primary cause of periodontal disease is:

a)

Food habits

b)

Life style

c)

Bacterial plaque

d)

Systemic disease

206.

Senile carious lesions are most commonly found exclusively on the following areas of the teeth:

a)

Pits and fissures, proximal caries

b)

Occlusal, incisor, facial and lingual embrasures

c)

Inclined plane of cusps

d)

Root surfaces of teeth

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