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Thương hiệu | MCQs

Total questions: 207

Worksheet time: 2hrs 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Brand identity is followed by _________, which is a reflection of what marketers planned to send to the public.

a)

Brand value

b)

Brand image

c)

Advertising

d)

Brand personality

2.

Can anything be branded?

a)

Only physical goods can be branded.

b)

Only online products and services can be branded

c)

Both tangible and intangible goods can be branded.

d)

 Only places and ideas can be branded.

3.

What is the primary reason for branding in ancient Greek times to the 11th century?

a)

To establish trademarks for exclusive ownership.

b)

To create a sense of differentiation among products.

c)

To mark and decorate items for identification.

d)

To promote products to a wider audience.

4.

Which type of risk does a brand help reduce for consumers?

a)

Emotional risk

b)

Cultural risk

c)

Economical risk

d)

Climatic risk

5.

What does "brand equity" refer to?

a)

The monetary value of a brand.

b)

The total number of products a brand offers

c)

The total awareness and perceived value of a brand in customers' minds

d)

The legal protection of a brand's features.

6.

What is the purpose of a brand's mission and vision

a)

To establish legal protection for the brand.

b)

To differentiate the brand from its competitors.

c)

To communicate the brand's unique personality.

d)

To outline the brand's long-term goals and aspirations.

7.

How does branding benefit consumers in terms of product decisions?

a)

Brands increase search costs for products.

b)

Brands make product decisions more complex.

c)

Brands help set reasonable expectations about products.

d)

Brands create confusion among consumers.

8.

Which type of risk refers to the threat a product poses to the physical well-being or health of the user?

a)

Financial risk

b)

Psychological risk

c)

Physical risk

d)

Social risk

9.

What type of trademark distinguishes goods and services of members from those of non-members of an organization?

a)

Certification trademark.

b)

Integrated trademark.

c)

Well-known mark.

d)

Collective trademark.

10.

Which aspect of brand identity relates to the unique psychological traits associated with a brand?

a)

Brand equity.

b)

Brand positioning.

c)

Brand personality.

d)

Brand experience.

11.

What term describes the specific perception a brand holds in the minds of consumers?

a)

Brand mission.

b)

Brand image.

c)

Brand equity.

d)

Brand positioning.

12.

Which element of brand components represents the total awareness and perceived value of a brand in the minds of customers?

a)

Brand mission.

b)

Brand personality.

c)

Brand equity.

d)

Brand identity.

13.

Which type of risk refers to the embarrassment a consumer might experience from using a certain product?

a)

Financial risk

b)

Psychological risk

c)

Physical risk

d)

Social risk

14.

How did Luken&May plan to grow its international sales?

a)

By offering cheaper products than competitors.

b)

By focusing exclusively on its artisan brand.

c)

By developing a variety of niche products.

d)

By leveraging its intellectual property and recipes.

15.

What distinguished Luken&May's products from larger competitors?

a)

Lower price points.

b)

Extensive distribution networks.

c)

Quality ingredients and rich flavors.

d)

Use of preservatives.

16.

“Down-to-earth, honest, wholesome, cheerful" describes what type of brand personality?

a)

Competence

b)

Ruggedness

c)

Sincerity

d)

Sophistication

17.

Which of the following is the best definition of a brand?

a)

A brand is a name, term, design, symbol, or any other feature that identifies one seller's products or services as distinct from those of other sellers.

b)

A brand is a promise to deliver a consistent level of quality and value to customers.

c)

A brand is a way to create a connection with consumers and build loyalty.

d)

All of above

18.

Which is not a characteristic of a trademark

a)

Being a visible sign

b)

Viewed from a legal perspective

c)

Being capable of distinguishing goods or services of the mark owner from those of other subjects.

d)

Being a invisible sign

19.

According to Phillip Kotler’s Five Product Levels, what is the THIRD level of a product?

a)

Potential product level

b)

Typical product level

c)

Expected product level

d)

Augmented product level

20.

“Failure of the product results in an opportunity cost of finding another satisfactory product” refers to which type of risk in product decision?

a)

Functional risk

b)

Social risk

c)

Psychological risk

d)

Time risk

21.

Which of the following is NOT the role of the brand to consumers?

a)

Reduce risks in product decision

b)

Lower the search costs for products

c)

Bring competitive advantages

d)

Identify the source or maker of the product

22.

Kadak, Xerox, Exxon, Fidji are examples of brands’ names that are

a)

Fanciful

b)

Arbitrary

c)

Suggestive

d)

Descriptive

23.

What was the original purpose of branding?

a)

To differentiate between brands

b)

To mark and decorate items

c)

To comply with production regulations

d)

To promote goods and services

24.

How can consumers benefit from branding?

a)

Consumers can easily identify the source or maker of the product.

b)

The product they bought might not perform up to expectations.

c)

Consumer’s mental well-being could be affected.

d)

Branding helps them organize inventory and accounting records.

25.

According to the Brand Finance Global 500, which of the following brands is NOT among the top 10 most valuable brands in the world in 2023?

a)

Apple

b)

Tik Tok

c)

Google

d)

Facebook

26.

“Made in Vietnam” is

a)

Indication of source

b)

Geographical indication

c)

Certification trademark

d)

Certificate of origin

27.

Which of the following is NOT the role of the brand to firms?

a)

Offer legal protection for unique features

b)

Simplify product handling and tracing

c)

Add value to the business

d)

Save time in product decisions

28.

Where can you find a product’s label?

a)

On the goods’ commercial package

b)

On other materials affixed to the goods

c)

On the goods itself

d)

All of the above

29.

Which of the following is NOT a key component of branding?

a)

Brand marketing

b)

Brand positioning

c)

Brand experience

d)

Brand identity

30.

Wave S -  Wave S -  Wave RS; Samsung Galaxy J (J1, J3, J5, J7); Samsung Galaxy S (S7 và S7 Edge) are examples of:

a)

Certification trademarks

b)

Collective trademarks

c)

Integrated trademarks

d)

Well-known trademarks

31.

What purpose does the brand serve for customers?

a)

Reducing expenses, minimizing effort, and saving search time

b)

Establishing both corporate and product images within customers' perceptions

c)

Offering a competitive edge

d)

Enhancing the economy's standing

32.

Which element of a brand embodies the commitment to value and the reputation of a business?

a)

Design patterns

b)

Entity

c)

Packaging

d)

Musical slogans

33.

Which is not a function of branding?

a)

Commerce

b)

Information and Instructions

c)

Recognizing and Distinguishing

d)

Economy

34.

What level meaning of product stands for :” Basic version of the product containing only those attributes or characteristics absolutely necessary for its functioning but with no distinguishing features”?

a)

 Core benefit level

b)

Generic product level

c)

Expected product level

d)

Potential product level

35.

Brands do not help firms in term of:

a)

simplify product handling and tracing

b)

Help organizing inventory and accounting records

c)

Offer the firm legal protection for unique features or aspects of the product

d)

Simplify product decisions – Save time

36.

What is described as the total awareness and perceived value of the brand in the mind of customers?

a)

 brand equity

b)

brand experience

c)

brand vision

d)

brand mission

37.

What can be branded?

a)

Physical goods

b)

Distributors, retailers

c)

Ideas

d)

All of them

38.

Which brand is considered as the most valuable brand in 2023?

a)

Apple Inc.

c)

Google

d)

Facebook

39.

Which is not the component of the brand?

a)

Brand equity

b)

Brand positioning

c)

Brand promise

d)

Brand image

40.

____ refer to a form of product that consists of activities, benefits, or satisfactions offered for sale that are essentially intangible.

a)

Co-brands

b)

Line extensions

c)

Services

d)

Pure products

41.

Which are NOT integrated marks?

a)
  1. Wave S, Wave S, Wave RS

b)

Iphone 12, Iphone 12 mini, Iphone 12 Pro

c)

Thanh Hà Lychee, Nha Trang fish sauce, Đông Triều Ceramics

d)

Xbox Series X, Xbox Series S

42.

The term “Made in Vietnam” is

a)

Geographical Indications

b)

Appellation of Origin

c)

 Indication of origin

d)

Certificate of Origin

43.

What is not a marketing advantage of a strong brand?

a)

Greater loyalty

b)

Greater value added

c)

Brand expansion opportunity

d)

High reaction of customers price increases

44.

Intangible assets do NOT INCLUDE:

a)

Intellectual Property

b)

Accounts Receivable

c)

Intellectual capital

d)

Prestige

45.

What are the functions that brands provide to firms?

a)

Simplify product handling and tracing

b)

Help organizing inventory and accounting records

c)

Offers the firm legal protection for unique features or aspects of the product

d)

All of the above

46.

What is the correct order for The buyer’s decision process?

a)
  1. Need recognition - Information search - Evaluation of alternatives - Purchase decision - Post - purchase behavior

b)

Information search - Need recognition - Evaluation of alternatives - Purchase decision - Post - purchase behavior

c)

Information search - Need recognition - Evaluation of alternatives - Post - purchase behavior - Purchase decision

d)

Need recognition - Evaluation of alternatives - Information search - Purchase decision - Post - purchase behavior

47.

Fill in the blanks: “Brand awareness is related to the strength of the … or trace in memory”

a)

Brand equity

b)
  1. Brand voice

c)

Brand node

d)

Brand name

48.

Identify the CBBE - elements which measures emotional aspects of consumer

a)

Brand Image

b)

Brand feelings

c)

Brand resonance

d)

Brand salience

49.

Brand Equity refers to the brand value determined based on

a)

employee perception

b)

consumer perception

c)

Market / Income / Cost based assessment

d)

All of the above

50.

What are the 5 main elements of brand equity?

a)

Brand loyalty, brand awareness, perceived quality, brand associations, other proprietary assets

b)

Brand feelings, brand awareness, perceived quality, brand associations, other proprietary assets

c)

Brand feelings, brand awareness, perceived quality, brand resonance, other proprietary assets

d)

Brand loyalty, brand awareness, brand salience, brand resonance, other proprietary assets

51.

How to create brand awareness?

a)

Increase the familiarity of the brand through repeated exposure

b)

Increase brand recognition

c)

Improve brand recall

d)

All of the above

52.

Which is the first step of the buyer's decision process?

a)

Information search

b)

Purchase decision

c)

Evaluation of alternatives

d)

Need recognition

53.

Which buyers’ characteristics factor consists of age and life-cycling stage; economic situation, lifestyle, personality and self-concept?

a)
  1. Cultural factor

b)

Social factor

c)

Personal factor

d)

Psychological factor

54.

What are forms of brand association?

a)

Brand attributes and brand benefits

b)

Brand equity and brand attributes

c)

Brand recognition and brand equity

d)

Brand benefits and brand equity

55.

Brand dynamics pyramid by Milward Brown, what is the strongest relationship?

a)

Presence

b)

Relevance

c)

Bonding

d)

Performance

56.

Which of the following factors contributes to brand equity?

a)

Product quality and reliability

b)

Competitive pricing strategy

c)

Employee satisfaction

d)

Social media presence

57.

How can a company measure brand equity?

a)

Customer satisfaction surveys

b)

Revenue generated from sales

c)

Number of social media followers

d)

Employee turnover rate

58.

What are the purposes of brand awareness?

a)

To increase brand recognition

b)

To develop brand image

c)

To improve brand recall

d)

A and C are correct

59.

Which of these are included in the brand’s elements?

a)

Name

b)

Symbol

c)

Logo

d)

All are correct

60.

Fill in the blanks: “Creating brand awareness means increasing the … of the brand through repeated exposure

a)

Difference

b)

Identity

c)

Familiarity

d)

Awareness

61.

The total awareness and perceived value of the brand in the mind of customers is called:

a)

Brand asset

b)

Brand equity

c)

Brand mission

d)

Brand vision

62.

Theory of perception includes selective attention, selective distortion, selective retention and….

a)

selective perception

b)

selective remembrance

c)

subliminal perception

d)

subliminal remembrance

63.

How many elements are there in brand equity?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

64.

The three types of groups including:

a)

Membership, aspiration and reference

b)

Membership, aspiration, and formal

c)

Assembly, aspiration and formal

d)

Assembly, aspiration and reference

65.

Brand awareness is related to which of the following?

a)

The strength of the brand node or trace in memory

b)

The ability to recognize a brand's logo

c)

The number of social media followers a brand has

d)

The price of a brand's products

66.

Which of the following are the three requirements for any marketing effort to efficiently come into customer perception?

a)

Attractive, easy to produce, and easy to remember

b)

Attractive, easy to understand, and easy to remember

c)

Creative, easy to understand, and easy to remember

d)

Creative, easy to produce, and memorable

67.

Which of the following best describes "brand benefits"?

a)

The descriptive features that characterize a product or service.

b)

Consumers' perceptions about a brand.

c)

The personal value and meaning that consumers attach to the product or service attributes.

d)

Forging strong associations with the appropriate product category.

68.

According to the Brand Dynamics Pyramid by Millward Brown, which levels represents the highest and lowest consumers' perceptions about a brand?

a)

Bonding and Advantage

b)

Performance and Relevance

c)

Bonding and Presence

d)

Advantage and Presence

69.

Which term refers to consumers' ability to retrieve the brand from memory when provided with cues like the product category, fulfilled needs, or purchase situations?

a)

Brand awareness

b)

Brand recognition

c)

Brand recall

d)

Learning advantages

70.

How can positive customer experiences impact brand equity?

a)

They have no impact on brand equity.

b)

They can weaken brand recognition.

c)

They can lead to increased brand loyalty and higher perceived value.

d)

They are only relevant for new brands, not established ones.

71.

Which term refers to a customer's ability to recall and identify a brand? 

a)

Brand loyalty

b)

Brand awareness

c)

Brand affinity

d)

Brand extension

72.

Which factor plays a role in forming brand associations?

a)

The number of employees in the company

b)

The brand's physical location

c)

The marketing budget of the brand

d)

Customer experiences, advertising, and communication

73.

Customer’s differential responses which make up brand equity are reflected in … related to all aspects of brand marketing.

a)

Perception, preferences, behavior

b)

Attitude, characteristics, personality

c)

Personality, knowledge, attitude

d)

Preferences, personality, attitude

74.

How many steps are there in buyer’s decision process?

a)

6

b)

5

c)

4

d)

3

75.

What is the key to creating brand equity?

a)

Brand knowledge

b)

Brand loyalty

c)

Brand awareness

d)

Brand associations

76.

What is a unique selling proposition (USP)?

a)

A brand's overall perception in the market.

b)

A brand's position relative to its competitors.

c)

A brand's positive or negative connection with an image.

d)

A brand's distinct advantage over its competitors.

77.

What is the importance of perceived quality?

a)

It drives consumer decisions related to brand loyalty.

b)
  1. It determines the price of a product or service.

c)

It influences the level of brand recognition

d)

It defines the target audience for a brand.

78.

What is brand loyalty?

a)

Consumers' ability to confirm prior exposure to a brand.

b)

Consumers' perception of the overall quality of a brand.

c)

The dedication a customer feels toward a brand.

d)

Consumers' ability to retrieve a brand from memory.

79.

…… is consumer's perceptions about brand, as reflected by the brand associations held in consumer memory.

a)
Brand image
b)

Brand equity

c)

Brand Presence

d)

Brand Awareness

80.

Which is not a factor determining brand value?

a)

Core capabilities

b)

Market opportunities

c)

Market share

d)

Competitive advantage

81.

Brand equity is a result of

a)

Similarity in consumer response

b)

Differences in consumer response

c)

A & B

d)

None of the above

82.

What elements does the buyer's blackbox include?

a)

Buyer’s characteristics

b)

Buyer’s decision process

c)

Both A and B

d)

Buyer’s insight

83.

“Brand Recall” is shown in the casez?

a)

Subject is completely unaware of the brand when asked or mentioned

b)

When mentioning a product category, the brand name appears first

c)

Divided into 2 levels of visual or cue-assisted recognition and unassisted recognition

d)

Subjects are loyal customers of the brand

84.

When Apple products are mentioned, people will think of technology pioneers, innovation, the Apple logo, creativity,.... It is an expression of which element of brand equity:

a)

Brand awareness

b)

Perceived quality

c)

Brand association

d)

Loyal customers

85.

Which is not an element of brand equity?

a)

Brand loyalty

b)

Brand awareness

c)

Perceived quality

d)

Visual identity

86.

When a customer actively and constantly buys Vinamilk when they need milk, this is an example of?

a)

Brand association

b)

Brand identity

c)
  1. Brand recognition

d)

Brand loyalty

87.

What is the order of the buyer decision process?

a)

Need recognition - Evaluation of alternatives - Information search - Purchase decision - Post-purchase behavior

b)

Need recognition - Information search - Evaluation of alternatives - Purchase decision - Post-purchase behavior

c)

Information search - Need recognition - Evaluation of alternatives - Purchase decision - Post-purchase behavior

d)

Need recognition - Information search - Purchase decision -  Evaluation of alternatives - Post-purchase behavior

88.

How many elements does brand equity have? What are they?

a)

5: Brand loyalty, Brand awareness, Perceived quality, Brand associations, brand knowledge, other proprietary assets

b)

4: Brand loyalty, Brand awareness, Brand associations, other proprietary assets

c)

5: Brand loyalty, Brand awareness, Perceived quality, Brand associations, other proprietary assets

d)

4:  Brand loyalty, Brand awareness, Brand knowledge, Brand associations

89.

A customer is thirsty and decide to buy a bottle of fresh water in Circle K. He/she is choosing between Aquafina, Lavie and Dasani brands. Which step of the buyer  decision process is this?

a)

Perceiving a need

b)

Information search

c)

Accessing value

d)

Purchase decision

90.

“Customers do not understand everything they pay attention to” belongs to which step in theory of perceptions?

a)

Selective attention

b)

Selective distortion

c)

Selective retention

d)

Subliminal perception

91.

What are 2 components of brand knowledge?

a)

Brand awareness and brand image

b)

Brand image and brand identity

c)

Brand awareness and brand identity

d)

Brand symbol and brand identity

92.

Performance is the bottom level of the brand loyalty pyramid - Brand Dynamics Pyramid by Miilward Brown

a)

Second

b)

Third

c)

Fourth

d)

Fifth

93.

Which is not the target market/ target customers of Dairy Queen

a)

Adults with family

b)

Teens

c)

Young adult

d)

Families with baby and elders

94.

Which of the following is NOT considered as a element of brand equity:

a)

Brand awareness

b)

Brand value

c)

Brand association

d)

Perceived quality

95.

Brand Dynamics Pyramid model by Milward Brown include how many levels

a)

4

b)

5

c)

3

d)

7

96.

When customers do not react favorably for specific brand under same circumstances, is said to be

a)

Customer-based brand equity

b)

positive brand equity

c)

negative brand equity

d)

market share equity

97.

The ideas and beliefs people have about the brand

a)

Awareness

b)

Association

c)

Name

d)

Image

98.

A marketer needs to understand that some ‘general traits’ of a brand name are:

a)

Easy to recognize

b)

Easy to pronounce

c)

Easy to memorize or recall

d)

All of the above

99.

What is brand equity?

a)

The process of creating a new brand

b)

The monetary value of a brand

c)

The perception and value that consumers associate with a brand

d)

The legal ownership of a brand

100.

Why is brand equity important for businesses?

a)

It helps reduce marketing costs

b)

It improves brand loyalty and customer trust

c)

It allows businesses to avoid competition

d)

 It guarantees immediate financial success

101.

Vaseline- petroleum jelly sold as lip salve and moisturizer, is an example of

a)

Benefit related positioning

b)

Positioning by usage occasion and time of use

c)

Category related positioning

d)

Price Quality positioning

102.

What is the second step in designing a branding strategy ?

a)

Define target customers and analyze the market

b)

Determine brand mission and vision

c)

Develop brand identity system

d)

Integrated brand communications

103.

Which of the following criteria is NOT used to evaluate a branding strategy?

a)

The level of product value perception

b)

Brand association in the mind of the customer

c)

Number of transactions of customer

d)

Brand awareness

104.

Umbrella Brand Level is another name of which brand hierarchy ?

a)

Family Brand level

b)

Individual Brand level

c)

Corporate Brand level

d)

Modifier level

105.

Which of the following criteria is NOT Disadvantages of Company Brand level?

a)

High risk if failure

b)

Difficult to develop and expand brand and product portfolio

c)

May not be suitable when the business works in many fields

d)

High managing effort

106.

Which of the following criteria is NOT Advantage of Individual Brand level

a)

Minimize risks when one brand fails

b)

Helping businesses maximize market share

c)

Different product brands should easily meet the different needs of consumers

d)

New brands can take advantage of the reputation of the previous brand

107.

Which of the following criteria is NOT Advantage of Family Brand level?

a)

Create a positive image of product consistency

b)

Help to expand products but save marketing costs

c)

Match the unique product

d)

The new product does not need to be closely related to the current product

108.

Which of the following are not Points-of-difference (PODs)

a)

Functional related

b)

Performance related

c)

Abstract, imagery related

d)

 Image related

109.

Which of the following criteria is NOT Challenges of local marketing:

a)

Increased manufacturing and marketing costs

b)

Less economy of scale

c)

Dilution of company image

d)

Less customer-specific offerings

110.

Which of the following criteria is NOT Advantages of Concentrated marketing:

a)

Greater knowledge of consumer needs

b)

More effective and efficient marketing mix programs.

c)

Lower risk

d)

Can be highly profitable

111.

Which of the following criteria is NOT the core values of FTU

a)

 Innovation and Excellent

b)

Accountability and Resilience

c)

Diversity and Inclusion

d)

Modern and Tradition

112.

Which of the following criteria is NOT the reason for market segmentation:

a)

Buyers are too numerous, and varied in their needs and buying practices.

b)

The companies can not appeal to all buyers in the marketplace, or at least not to all buyers in the same way.

c)

The product of the company can satisfy demand for the majority of the market

d)

Helps companies learn the structure of the market and discover the “market holes” – niche market (where there are demands not satisfied yet)

113.

Which of the following is TRUE about brand missions?

a)

Brand mission should be company-oriented.

b)

Acts as an “invisible hand” that guides people in the organization.

c)

Brand mission is the brand’s concept of its future

d)

Brand mission includes specific and workable guidelines.

114.

What is the difference between Mission and Vision statements?

a)

Vision is usually bigger than Mission.

b)

Vision describes the “why”, while Mission focuses on the “how”

c)

Mission motivates the employees, while Vision informs them.

d)

Mission focuses on future objectives, while Vision focuses on the present.

115.

Which of the following is NOT a type of POPs (Points-of-parity)?

a)

Category

b)

Competitive

c)

Correlational

d)

Functional-related

116.

What is a "Point of Difference" (POD) in international branding?

a)

Attributes shared by multiple brands in the same market.

b)

Elements that make a brand stand out from its competitors.

c)

Universal attributes that define a product's core features.

d)

The least important attributes of a brand.

117.

Which level in the brand hierarchy refers to the overall corporate or company brand that encompasses multiple product lines or brands?

a)

Individual Brand

b)

Sub-Brand

c)

Family Brand

d)

Corporate Brand

118.

What is the primary advantage of utilizing a brand hierarchy in international branding?

a)

It allows for complete product standardization across all markets.

b)

It simplifies marketing efforts and reduces advertising costs.

c)

It enables brands to focus solely on Points of Parity (POPs)

d)

It accommodates a diverse range of products under one umbrella brand.

119.

What does a "Brand Extension" refer to in international branding?

a)

Creating a completely new brand for a specific international market.

b)

Modifying a brand's logo and color scheme for global consistency.

c)

Introducing a new product or product line under an existing brand name.

d)

Shifting a brand's target audience to a different market segment.

120.

What is NOT true about the company brand level?

a)

Easy in brand management

b)

Low cost of brand communication

c)

High level of investment concentration for the brand

d)

Low risk if failure

121.

What is NOT the advantage of Family brand level?

a)

Increase brand sales

b)

Create a positive image of product consistency

c)

The new product must be closely related to the current product

122.

When evaluating the brand, if the initial brand-building goals have not been achieved, the business needs to:

a)

Continue expanding and developing the brand

b)

Find ways to leverage the value the brand brings

c)

Go back to market research or re-positioning the brand

d)

All of the above options

123.

The final step in the brand-building process, the business needs to:

a)

Integrated brand communications

b)

Measure and evaluate the brand strategy

c)

Positioning the brand

d)

Develop brand identity system

124.

The evaluation of the branding strategy should be based on which popular criteria:

a)

The level of product value perception

b)

Brand awareness, Brand loyalty and Brand association in the mind of the customer

c)

The level of sales increase

d)

All of the above options

125.

Which type of segmentation is it: Young & Single, Married - no children, Married - with children, Single Parents, Unmarried Couples?

a)

Demographic

b)

Geographic

c)

Psychographic

d)

Behavioral

126.

What does the term “target market” refer to?

a)

A group of randomly selected buyers

b)

A specific geographic location

c)

A set of buyers with common needs or characteristics

d)

A group of competitors in the market

127.

What is the focus of concentrated marketing (or niche marketing)?

a)

Targeting a wide range of market segments

b)

Ignoring specific market segments

c)

Targeting a small share of one or a few segments or niches

d)

Targeting only the most popular segment

128.

Why is a clear brand mission statement considered an "invisible hand" within an organization?

a)

It physically guides employees through daily tasks.

b)

It provides a secretive advantage over competitors.

c)

It directs and influences decisions and actions of people in the organization.

d)

It remains unseen by customers but impacts product quality.

129.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between POPs (Points of Parity) and PODs (Points of Difference) in branding?

a)

POPs and PODs are two unrelated concepts in branding strategy.

b)

POPs are unique attributes that set a brand apart, while PODs are commonly shared features with competitors.

c)

POPs tell the target market that your product or service meets their basic needs, while PODs are distinctive attributes that differentiate a brand.

d)

POPs and PODs are interchangeable terms representing the same branding principle.

130.

Which of the following is NOT one of the popular criteria mentioned for evaluating a branding strategy?

a)

Brand awareness

b)

Product price

c)

Brand association

d)

Brand loyalty

131.

After reviewing and evaluating, what should the company do if it fails to achieve its previously set goals?

a)

Promote the exploitation of brand value

b)

Expand and develop the brand

c)

Set more goals to develop the brand

d)

 Re-positioning the brand

132.

In the process of building a brand, at the sixth step businesses need to

a)

Develop brand identity system

b)

Define target customers and analyse the market

c)

Choose brand hierarchy

d)

Position the brand

133.

…extends a current brand name to new or modified products in a new category

a)

New Brand

b)

Brand extension

c)

Multi - Brand

d)

Line extensions

134.

These are 2 statements of TH True Milk: which is the vision, which is the mission?

(1) To become the leading processor in Vietnam in the clean food industry of natural origin

(2) Providing food products of natural origin - clean, safe, fresh and nutritious dairy products

a)

Both are visions

b)

Both are missions

c)

(1) Vision, (2) Mission

d)

(1) Mission, (2) Vision

135.

 In the process of building a brand, the first step businesses need to

a)

Position the brand

b)

Define target customers and analyse the market

c)

 Build mission and vision

d)

Develop brand identity system

136.

What is the advantage of Invidual Brand Level?

a)

Help businesses maximize market share

b)

Help make products more understandable and relevant to consumers

c)

New brands can take advantage of the reputation of the previous brand

d)

Match the unique product

137.

Which is not a popular criteria for evaluating the brand strategy?

a)

The level of product value perception

b)

The level of sales increase

c)

The level of approaching new customer of the brand

d)

Brand awareness and loyalty

138.

These are 2 statements of VNPT (Vietnam Posts and Telecommunications Group): which is the vision, which is the mission?

(1) To become Vietnam's leading digital service provider by 2025 and Asia's digital hub by 2030.

(2) Providing customers and partners with quality, innovative and creative products and services Telecommunications - IT - Communication and Digital Services.

a)

Both are visions

b)

Both are missions

c)

(1) Vision, (2) Mission

d)

(1) Mission, (2) Vision

139.

______ are musical messages written around a brand.

a)

Logos

b)

 Symbols

c)

Jingles

d)

Taglines

140.

______is the activity of designing and producing containers or wrappers for a product. 

a)

Packaging

b)

Slogan

c)

Symbols

d)

Jingles

141.

Full form of URL?

a)

Universal resource locator

b)

Uniform resource locator

c)

Unity resource label

d)

Unidentified random locator

142.

______ are short phrases that communicate descriptive or persuasive information about the brand.

a)

 Characters

b)

Symbols

c)

Slogans

d)

 Jingles

143.

A ______is a graphic mark, emblem or symbol commonly used by commercial enterprises, organizations and even individuals to aid and promote instant public recognition

a)

Logo

b)

Slogan

c)

Tag line

d)

Symbols

144.

Which is not a function of packaging?

a)

 Product protection

b)

Product identification

c)

Product production

d)

Product promotion

145.

Amazon.com represents which brand element?

a)

Transferable

b)

Memorable

c)

Adaptable

d)

Likable

146.

Brand equity is a result of

a)

similarity in consumer response

b)

Differences in consumer response

c)

A & B

d)

None of the above

147.

The brand building components while choosing brand are:

a)

Transferable, adaptable and protectable

b)

Memorable, likable and meaningful

c)

Both a and b

d)

None of the above

148.

The defensive elements while choosing brand are:

a)

Transferable, adaptable and protectable

b)

Memorable, likable and meaningful

c)

Both a and b

d)

None of the above

149.

__________ ensures repeat purchase and helps marketers overcome competition from other firms.

a)

Brand awareness

b)

Brand loyalty

c)

Brand association

d)

None of the above

150.

Brand element is also known as _____________.

a)

Brand Awareness

b)

Brand Recall

c)

Brand Identity

d)

Brand Image

151.

Packaging is called the _________ P of marketing mix.

a)

First

b)

Third

c)

Fourth

d)

Fifth

152.

When choosing a brand name, management should choose the name that

a)

is suggested from friends and other uninformed sources

b)

maximizes the firm's branding and marketing objectives

c)

 includes cliched words such as "Innovation" or "Solution"

d)

can be found in an English dictionary

153.

Why are brand characters attention getting and useful for creating brand awareness?

a)

They demand pay raises

b)

They grow old

c)

They are often colorful and rich in imagery

d)

They cheat on their wives

154.

How many steps are there in the branding name process?

a)

2

b)

6

c)

1

d)

4

155.

In the final step of brand building process, the businesses need to:

a)

Communicate the brand

b)

Measure and evaluate

c)

Position the brand

d)

Build a new brand

156.

How do packages perform sale tasks?

a)

By attracting attention

b)

By describing the product

c)

By making the sale

d)

All are correct

157.

What does a brand name represent?

a)

The visual identity of a company

b)

The values and attributes associated with a product or service

c)

The target audience of a marketing campaign

d)

The price point of a product

158.

Which is NOT a benefit of making URLs?

a)

Known as domain names

b)

Protect the brands from unauthorized use in other domain names

c)

 Promote the company’s products

d)

Specify locations of pages on the Web

159.

What logos and symbols indicate?

a)

Product

b)

Ownership

c)

Origin

d)

 Association

160.

What is NOT the benefit of using a brand character?

a)

Attention grabbing

b)

Useful for creating brand awareness

c)

Help communicate a key product benefit

d)

Integrate with every culture the company reaches out to

161.

Which of the following statements is true about slogans?

a)

Slogans only contribute to brand awareness.

b)

Slogans can build both awareness and image for a brand.

c)

Slogans are unrelated to product-related messages.

d)

Slogans have no impact on brand equity.

162.

Which of the following is a requirement for marketers when changing slogans?

a)

Assess the impact of the slogan on brand equity

b)

Determine the extent of equity enhancement

c)

Preserve existing equities while introducing new elements

d)

None of the above

163.

Which statement is NOT true about jingles?

a)

Enhance brand awareness by repeating the brand name in clever and amusing ways

b)

 Musical messages written around the brand

c)

Short phrases that communicate descriptive or persuasive information about the brand

d)

Have catchy hooks and choruses that become permanently registered in the minds of listeners

164.

Which of the following is NOT function of a package:

a)

Presentation

b)

Promotion

c)

Preparation

d)

Practicability

165.

For building brand equity, what characteristic should brand elements possess?

a)

Ambiguous

b)

Forgettable

c)

Memorable and attention-getting

d)

Complex and difficult to understand

166.

What does a brand element provide when giving general information?

a)

Unique selling points

b)

Product category details

c)

Manufacturing process

d)

Brand's history

167.

What type of meaning does a brand element convey when suggesting a product's unique attributes?

a)

Descriptive

b)

Historical

c)

Persuasive

d)

Generic

168.

What are the key attributes that offer many advantages in brand elements, particularly when few other product-related associations exist?

a)

 Memorable, meaningful, and likable

b)

 Aesthetic, beautiful, and creative

c)

Tasty, quality, and freshness

d)

Powerful, respected, and recognized

169.

What does transferability measure in terms of brand elements?

a)

The connection of the brand name to geographical landmarks

b)

The extent to which the brand adds equity for new products or in new markets

c)

The popularity of the brand name in the home country

d)

The taste and quality of the product

170.

What does adaptability in brand elements primarily refer to?

a)

The ability to change the product's taste and quality

b)

The ability to update and make brand elements like logos and characters more modern and relevant

c)

The ability to connect the brand with consumer nostalgia

d)

The ability to translate brand names into different languages

171.

What are the essential steps in ensuring the protectability of a brand element both legally and competitively?

a)

Choosing, registering, and defending the brand elements

b)

Advertising, promoting, and updating the brand elements

c)

Translating, adapting, and globalizing the brand elements

d)

Copying, replicating, and distributing the brand elements

172.

Which is the first step developing effective marketing communication

a)

Design the message

b)

Determine the communication objectives

c)

Identify the target audience

d)

Select the message source

173.

Which is NOT the criteria integrated brand communication programs

a)

Competition

b)

Coverage

c)

Complementarity

d)

Contribution

174.

Informative Advertising includes these activities, EXCEPT:

a)

Describe available services and support

b)

Building brand preference

c)

Telling the market about a new product

d)

Correcting false impressions

175.

Which is NOT one of major PR tools:

a)

Events

b)

Lobby

c)

Identity media

d)

Coupons

176.

Which is NOT a new marketing communication trend?

a)

Markets are changing

b)

Consumers are changing

c)

Marketing strategies are changing

d)

Digital technology are causing remarkable changes

177.

How many stages are there in the AIDA model?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

178.

The short form of message format contains:

a)

Storytelling

b)

Product concept

c)

 Big idea

d)

Slogan

179.

What is the purpose of the AIDA Model?

a)

To identify the best social media channels to use for traffic.

b)

To guide marketers in better reaching their audiences.

c)

To provide a financial framework for a marketing budget.

d)

To illustrate the importance of the proper ratio between text and graphics. 

180.

Which is NOT criteria for integrated brand communication programs?

a)

Cost

b)

Commonality

c)

Comprehensibility

d)

Complementarity

181.

How many main types of promotion tools are there?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

182.

Persuasive Advertising includes these activities, EXCEPT:

a)

Suggesting new uses for a product

b)

Changing customer perception of product value

c)

Building brand preference

d)

Persuading customers to receive a sales call

183.

Preference stage belongs to which phase?

a)

 Cognitive Phase

b)

Affective Phase

c)

Behavioral Phase

d)

Evaluation Phase

184.

What activity belongs to reminder advertising?

a)

Maintaining customer relationships

b)

Persuading customers to purchase

c)

Communicating customer value

d)

Suggesting new use for the product

185.

Requirements for the communication objectives are SMART. What does SMART stand for?

a)

Social, Measurable, Attainable, Reliable, and Touching

b)

Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-based

c)

Specialized, Measurement, Achievement, Relevant, and Time-based

d)

Socialize, Measurement. Achievable, Relevant, and Touching

186.

Which of the following is NOT the objective of Reminder Advertising?

a)

Maintaining customer relationships

b)

Reminding consumers where to buy the product

c)

Keeping the brand in customer's mind during off-season

d)

Building brand preference

187.

What is not the criteria for a brand communication program?

a)

Coverage

b)

Cost

c)

Convertible

d)

Commonality

188.

Which of the following tools is not included in the IMC?

a)

Digital marketing

b)

Positioning

c)

 PR

d)

Personal selling

189.

Which of the following is the SECOND step in developing effective marketing communication?

a)

Select promotion tools

b)

Choose the media

c)

Design the message

d)

Determine the communication objectives

190.

Which of the following is not Criteria for integrated brand communication programs?

a)

Complementarity

b)

Conformability

c)

Rating

d)

Cost

191.

Which of the following is one type of Conformability criteria?

a)

Consumer

b)

Customer

c)

Community

d)

Society

192.

“Extent to which common information conveyed by different communication options shares meaning across communication options.” is the definition of ?

a)

Commonality

b)

Popularity

c)

Complementarity

d)

Conformability

193.

Coverage is defined as:

a)

Proportion of the revenue reached by each communication option, as well as how much money exists among communication options.

b)

Proportion of the audience reached by each communication option, as well as how much revenue exists among communication options.

c)

Proportion of the audience reached by each communication option, as well as how much overlap exists among communication options.

d)

Proportion of the target customer reached by each platform, as well as how much overlap exists among platforms.

194.

Marketing strategies are changing because of?

a)

Economic downturns

b)

National policy

c)

CEO’s decision

d)

Digital technology

195.

“Any paid form of nonpersonal presentation and promotion of ideas, goods, services by an identified sponsor” is the characteristic of …?

a)

Advertising

b)

Public relations

c)

Sales promotion

d)

Personal selling

196.

Which of the following is NOT included in setting advertising objectives?

a)

Informative advertising

b)

Persuasive advertising

c)

Processing advertising

d)

Reminder advertising

197.

What are the purposes of using sales promotion tools?

a)

Boosting long-term customer buying and involvement or enhancing long-term customer relationships.

b)

Boosting short-term customer buying and involvement or enhancing short-term customer relationships

c)

Boosting short-term customer buying and involvement or enhancing long-term customer relationships

d)

Boosting long-term customer buying and involvement or enhancing short-term customer relationships

198.

Which of the following include displays and demonstrations that take place at the point of sale?

a)

Cash refunds

b)

Premiums

c)

Advertising specialties

d)

 Point-of-purchase

199.

Which of the following is not a form of digital and social media marketing?

a)

Web sites

b)

Telemarketing

c)

 E-mail

d)

Online videos

200.

What kind of message content shows desired benefits of the product?

a)

Rational appeal

b)

 Emotional appeal

c)

Moral appeal

d)

All are correct

201.

Which of the following is the LAST step of the AIDA model?

a)

Activate

b)

Attention

c)

Action

d)

 Awareness

202.

Who may influence or make buying decisions for a product or service?

a)

Only potential buyers

b)

Only current users

c)

Both current users and potential buyers

d)

Only the general public

203.

What does the AIDA model stand for in message design?

a)

Awareness, Interest, Desire, Action

b)

Attention, Indulgence, Desire, Assessment

c)

Awareness, Interaction, Decision, Achievement

d)

Attention, Interest, Demand, Authority

204.

What is one advantage of using a two-sided message in advertising?

a)

It is shorter and more concise

b)

It is less expensive to produce

c)

 It enhances the advertiser's credibility

d)

It only mentions the product's strengths

205.

Which personal channel of communication involves cultivating opinion leaders to spread information about a product or service?

a)

Face to face communication

b)

Phone communication

c)

Words-of-mouth communication

d)

Buzz marketing communication

206.

What are the six buyer-readiness stages that consumers normally pass through on their way to making a purchase?

a)

Awareness, Interest, Desire, Action, Purchase, Loyalty

b)

Awareness, Knowledge, Liking, Preference, Conviction, Purchase

c)

Awareness, Understanding, Acceptance, Purchase, Repurchase, Advocacy

d)

Awareness, Comprehension, Knowledge, Purchase, Evaluation, Satisfaction

207.

What is the primary factor that affects the communicator's decisions on message content, timing, and delivery?

a)

Message structure and format

b)

Message source credibility

c)

Target audience

d)

Budget constraints