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WorksheetsPeriod 3 Final Review
Total questions: 106
Worksheet time: 7hrs 10mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Suppose there is a 2"x4" board of wood. If it is cut in half, what type of change has occurred?
a)
Physical change
b)
Chemical change
2.
Of the 3 common states of matter, which has an indefinite volume and, an indefinite shape?
a)
solid
b)
gas
c)
liquid
d)
all of the above
3.
How of the measures of weight and mass different?
a)
mass is constant, whereas weight changes due to gravity.
b)
they are not different
c)
weight is constant, but mass changes
4.
Which of the following definitions best suits that of energy?
a)
The capacity to do work, and has no mass
b)
A way to describe the math of an object
5.
How is specific heat(cp) expressed mathematically?
a)
q=m x cp x (T1 -T2)
b)
s = d/t
c)
d = m/v
d)
2pi r
6.
Which of the following is "O2?"
a)
atom
b)
molecule
c)
solution
d)
compound
7.
Do atoms stop moving at 0 degrees centigrade?
a)
yes
b)
no
8.
Of the choices, is there a form of energy (Heat, Milk, Carbon, Hydrogen)
a)
yes
b)
No
9.
If one heats water from 25 degrees to 100 degrees has the person increased the water's energy
a)
no
b)
yes
10.
Does all matter have mass?
a)
yes
b)
no
11.
How many significant figures are in 0.0456?
a)
2
b)
5
c)
3
d)
1
12.
How many significant figures are in 0.088893 ?
a)
5
b)
6
c)
8
d)
2
13.
How many significant are in 206 grams?
a)
2
b)
0
c)
1
d)
3
14.
How many significant figures are in 20600 molecules?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
15.
Add the following numbers and record your answer using significant figures :
2.5g + 0.50g + 0.055g = ?
2.5g + 0.50g + 0.055g = ?
a)
3.0 g
b)
3.1 g
c)
3 g
d)
3.055 g
16.
Divide these 3 numbers to the precise significant figure
0.530 g / 0.1010 mL = ?
0.530 g / 0.1010 mL = ?
a)
5.22 g/mL
b)
5.3 g/mL
c)
2 g/mL
d)
5.25 g/mL
17.
Multiply these 3 numbers to the precise significant figure
0.020 cm × 50 cm × 11.1 cm = ?
0.020 cm × 50 cm × 11.1 cm = ?
a)
10
10 cm3
10 cm3
b)
11.2 cm
c)
13.1 cm3
d)
8 cm3
18.
How many significant are in 811.30
a)
4
b)
5
c)
3
d)
1
19.
How many significant figures are in 0.42000?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
0
d)
5
20.
How many significant figures are in 40, 500 mg ?
a)
3
b)
5
c)
1
d)
2
21.
Complete the calculation below using the proper number of significant figures
(8.41 × 2.873) + 4.77
(8.41 × 2.873) + 4.77
a)
21.93
b)
29.0
c)
34
d)
28.9
22.
Who discovered electrons and how?
a)
Rutherford; gold foil experiment
b)
Thomson; cathode ray tube
c)
Bohr; emission spectrum
d)
Thomson; emission spectrum
23.
Who discovered the nucleus and how?
a)
Rutherford; gold foil experiment
b)
Thomson; cathode ray tube
c)
Bohr; emission spectrum
d)
Rutherford; emission spectrum
24.
Who discovered that electrons orbit around the nucleus and how?
a)
Rutherford; gold foil experiment
b)
Thomson; cathode ray tube
c)
Bohr; emission spectrum
d)
Bohr; cathode ray tube
25.
How many protons, electrons, and neutrons are in Nitrogen?
a)
7 protons, 7 electrons, 7 neutrons
b)
7 protons, 7 electrons, 6 neutrons
c)
7 protons, 6 electrons, 7 neutrons
d)
7 protons, 7 electrons, 0 neutrons
26.
Where are protons, neutrons, and electrons found?
a)
nucleus, outside of nucleus, nucleus
b)
nucleus, nucleus, nucleus
c)
outside nucleus, nucleus, outside nucleus
d)
nucleus, nucleus, outside nucleus
27.
What is the electron configuration for Sulfur?
a)
1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^3
b)
1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^4
c)
1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3p^4
d)
1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^1
28.
Calculate the frequency of a photon of light with a wavelength of 4.34 nm.
a)
6.91x10^16 Hz
b)
7.92x10^14 Hz
c)
7.92x10^16 Hz
d)
6.91x10^14 Hz
29.
Find the energy of a red photon with a frequency of 4.57x10^14 Hz.
a)
3.03x10^-20 J
b)
3.03x10^-19 J
c)
4.01x10^-20
d)
4.01x10^-19
30.
Find the wavelength of a photon with a frequency of 4.57x10^14 Hz.
a)
6.56x10^7 m
b)
6.56x10^-7 nm
c)
6.56x10^-7 m
d)
6.56x10^7 nm
31.
Electrons emit light when they move from their ground state to their excited state.
a)
True
b)
False
32.
What group number are the alkali metals?
a)
Group 2
b)
Group 1
c)
Group 7
d)
Group 8
33.
What are the names of the sublevels of the periodic table?
a)
A, B, C, D
b)
S, P, D, C
c)
S, A, P, G
d)
S, D, P, F
34.
What region of the periodic table is Rubidium (Rb)?
a)
alkali metals
b)
alkali earth metals
c)
noble gases
d)
halogens
35.
The trend of atomic radius increases
a)
Left & down
b)
Left & up
c)
Right & down
d)
Right & up
36.
What’s the difference between atomic radius and electronegativity?
a)
Atomic radius is a measure of distance but electronegativity is the measure of the ability of a compound to attract electrons
b)
Atomic radius is a measure of distance but electronegativity is energy required to remove an electron from a neutral atom
c)
Atomic radius is the measure of energy change when an electron is added to a neutral atom but electronegativity is the measure of the ability of a compound to attract electrons
d)
Atomic radius is the measure of energy change when an electron is added to a neutral atom but electronegativity is the measure of the ability of a compound to attract electrons
37.
What is electron affinity?
a)
a measure of distance
b)
the measure of the ability of a compound to attract electrons
c)
the measure of energy change when an electron is added to a neutral atom
d)
he measure of the ability of a compound to attract electrons
38.
The trend for ionization energy, electronegativity, and electron affinity all increase up & right?
a)
true
b)
false
39.
What is Avogadro’s number?
a)
6.022 x 10^-23
b)
6.022 x 10^23
c)
.6022 x 10^-23
d)
.6022 x 10^23
40.
Which element has the highest electronegativity? The lowest?
a)
Francium, Fluorine
b)
Lithium, Astatine
c)
Fluorine, Francium
d)
Astatine, Lithium
41.
The period the element is in represents ____ and the group represent _____.
a)
# of valence electrons, # of orbitals
b)
# of protons, # of neutrons
c)
# of neutrons, # of protons
d)
# of orbitals, # of valence electrons
42.
What is a polyatomic ion?
a)
an ion with a charge higher than 1
b)
an ion with an atomic mass higher than hydrogen's atomic mass
c)
an ion with a higher atomic number than 1
d)
an ion made up of 2 or more atoms
43.
What is sodium nitrate ionic formula
a)
NONA
b)
NaNO3
c)
NaNO2
d)
NO3Na
44.
A cation is negatively charged
a)
False
b)
True
45.
What is the name for: Ba2CrO4
a)
Barium Chromate Oxide
b)
Beryllium Chromate
c)
Beryllium Chloride Oxide
d)
Barium Chromate
46.
When Mg+2 and NaOH ionically bond, they form...
a)
MgOH2
b)
MgNaOH2
c)
NaMg2
d)
OHNa
47.
Which is an example of a transition metal?
a)
Lithium
b)
Molybdenum
c)
Praseodymium
d)
Tin
48.
Which is a property of an ionic compound?
a)
Hard & brittle
b)
Soft & strong
49.
What is the name for FePO4?
a)
Iron Phosphorus Tetraoxide
b)
Iron (lll) Phosphide
c)
Iron (lll) Hydroxide
d)
Fluoride Tetraoxide
50.
The empirical is always in the simplest ratio
a)
False
b)
True
51.
What is the Octet Rule?
a)
atoms are in the octet rule if they an atomic mass higher than 8
b)
atoms react to achieve full valense shells (8 e-)
c)
atoms are in the octet rule if they have a high mass number than 8
d)
the octet rule does not apply to atoms
52.
Why does bonding occur?
a)
To form a dipole
b)
To transfer electrons to random atoms
c)
To achieve stability
d)
To bind atoms together
53.
What is a covalent bond?
a)
A bond that involves the sharing of electrons
b)
A bond that involves opposite charges
c)
A bond that fits a lock and key model
d)
A bond that relies on polarity
54.
What is the difference between a covalent and ionic bond?
a)
A covalent bond is bigger than an ionic bond
b)
Ionic bond involves the transfer of electrons while a covalent involves the sharing of electrons
c)
An ionic bond forms in bases while a covalent bond forms in acids
d)
There is no difference
55.
What kind of atoms do covalent bonds form between?
a)
Two metals
b)
Two polar molecules
c)
Two nonpolar molecules
d)
Two non-metals
56.
Why do covalent compounds have lower melting and boiling points?
a)
Because they are much smaller compounds
b)
Because covalent bonds are weaker bonds
c)
Because they have less electrons
d)
Because they are composed of a lot of air
57.
What is a dipole?
a)
A molecule that has a partial positive charge at one end and a partial negative charge at the other
b)
A molecule that has both an ionic and covalent bond
c)
A molecule that is both polar and nonpolar
d)
A molecule that is covered in areas of positive and negative charge
58.
When do atoms stop sharing electrons?
a)
When they feel like it
b)
When the octet rule is complete
c)
When the atoms form an ionic bond
d)
After one bond is formed
59.
What are intermolecular forces?
a)
forces that tell polarity
b)
none of the options
c)
Forces within a single molecule
d)
Attractive forces between molecules
60.
What ED range is a nonpolar covalent bond?
a)
0 - 0.50
b)
0.51 - 2.1
c)
2.1 <
d)
0
61.
What ED range is a polar covalent bond?
a)
0 - 0.50
b)
0.51 - 2.1
c)
2.1 <
d)
0
62.
Which is an example of a single displacement reaction?
a)
Zn+2HCl ---> H2+ ZnCl2
b)
H2SO4+2NaOH--> NaSO4+2H2O
c)
2H2O--> 2H2+O2
d)
2H2+O2-->2H2O
63.
Which is an example of a synthesis reaction?
a)
Zn+2HCl ---> H2+ ZnCl2
b)
H2SO4+2NaOH--> NaSO4+2H2O
c)
2H2O--> 2H2+O2
d)
2H2+O2-->2H2O
64.
Which is an example of a double displacement reaction?
a)
Zn+2HCl ---> H2+ ZnCl2
b)
H2SO4+2NaOH--> NaSO4+2H2O
c)
2H2O--> 2H2+O2
d)
2H2+O2-->2H2O
65.
Which is an example of a decomposition reaction?
a)
Zn+2HCl ---> H2+ ZnCl2
b)
H2SO4+2NaOH--> NaSO4+2H2O
c)
2H2O--> 2H2+O2
d)
2H2+O2-->2H2O
66.
What is the general form of a combustion reaction?
a)
AB--> A+B
b)
A+BC-->AC+B
c)
A+B-->AB
d)
AB+CD-->AD+CB
67.
Balance the equation
__Na2SO4(aq)+__Sr(NO3)2(aq)-->__NaNO3(aq)+__SrSO4(s)
__Na2SO4(aq)+__Sr(NO3)2(aq)-->__NaNO3(aq)+__SrSO4(s)
a)
1,1,2,1
b)
2,1,2,1
c)
2,2,3,1
d)
1,3,1,2
68.
Balance the equation
__K2CO3(aq)+__FeCl2(aq)-->__KCl(aq)+__FeCO3(s)
__K2CO3(aq)+__FeCl2(aq)-->__KCl(aq)+__FeCO3(s)
a)
1,1,1,1
b)
1,2,1,1
c)
1,1,2,1
d)
3,2,1,2
69.
Balance the equation
__KClO3-->__KCl+__O2
__KClO3-->__KCl+__O2
a)
1,1,2
b)
2,2,3
c)
1,2,3
d)
3,2,2
70.
In the equation C6H12O6(aq)+6O2(g)-->6CO2(g)+6H2O(l)+2870kj/mol if 4 mol of sugar is used, how much oxygen would be needed?
a)
12 mol
b)
6 mol
c)
24 mol
d)
1 mol
71.
At STP, 1 mol of gas occupies how much volume?
a)
22.41L
b)
24.1L
c)
22.1L
d)
42.21L
72.
How many moles of CaCl2 will be produced if 3.7 mol Cl2 react with excess Ca? Ca + Cl2 → CaCl2
a)
3.7 Mol CaCl2
b)
2.4 Mol CaCl
c)
1.0 Mol CaCl2
d)
3.4 Mol CaCl2
73.
How many grams of Iodine (I2) are required to react completely with 4.3 moles of Aluminum (Al)? 3I2 + 2Al → 2AlI3
a)
1600g I2
b)
100g I2
c)
5g I
d)
20g Fe
74.
What Is the volume of a gas at STP?
a)
22.41 L / 1 mole
b)
5 L / 3 mole
c)
48.2 L / 1 mole
d)
34 L / 1 mole
75.
How many grams of ammonia are produced from 4.70 grams of nitrogen with excess hydrogen. N2 + 3 H2 → 2 NH3
a)
5.71g NH3
b)
2.4g NH2
c)
1.11g H2
d)
3.33g NH3
76.
If 54.0 L of acetylene gas (C2H2) is burned at STP, how many moles of water will be produced? 2 C2H2 + 5 O2 → 4CO2 + 2 H2O
a)
2.41 mol H2O
b)
1 L H2O
c)
3.75 mol H2O
d)
6.93 mol H2O
77.
24.0g of Aluminum reacts with 43.0g of Cl2 to produce aluminum chloride. What is the limiting reactant and amount?
a)
LR Cl2 = 53.9g AlCl3
b)
ER Al = 119
c)
LR Cl2 = 118.6
d)
ER Cl2 = 73.7
78.
If 34.0g of Barium react with 45.0g of Iodine to create barium iodide. What is the ER and amount? Ba + I2 → BaI2
a)
ER I2 = 69.3g BaI2
b)
ER Ba = 96.8g BaI2
c)
LR I2 = 34.7g BaI2
d)
LR Ba = 47.0g BaI2
79.
10.0g of Calcium reacts with 10.0g of Iodine to create calcium iodide. If iodine is found to be the LR how much calcium is leftover?
a)
8.42g Calcium
b)
1.57g Calcium
c)
3.43g Iodine
d)
4.45g CaI2
80.
A reaction is supposed to produce 125.0g of MgBr2. After the lab the MgBr2 is measured and there are 96.45g. How efficient is the reaction?
a)
53.4%
b)
65.9%
c)
77.16%
d)
42.77%
81.
You obtain 78% yield of KCl when you started with 4.80g of K and excess Chlorine. What amount of KCl was produced?
a)
345g KCl
b)
358g KCl
c)
453g KCl
d)
279g KCl
82.
A transfer of heat does not always result in a temperature change.
a)
true
b)
false
83.
How are pressure and volume related?
a)
directly
b)
inversely
84.
What are the variables for a gas?
a)
n, V, T, Q
b)
P, V, n, T
c)
V, m, R, S
d)
P, V, n, R
85.
If 700 mL of hydrogen is stored in a cylinder with a movable piston at 250 kPa and the pressure is increased to 540 kPa at a constant temperature. What is the new volume?
a)
193 mL
b)
1,512 mL
c)
324 mL
d)
196
86.
Particles of lower mass diffuse ______ than particles of higher mass.
a)
at the same rate
b)
slower
c)
faster
87.
_________ is the relationship between temperature and volume.
a)
Charles's law
b)
Avagadro's law
c)
Lussac's law
d)
Graham's law
88.
The ideal gas law is the relationship between all ____ variables of gas.
a)
3
b)
2
c)
8
d)
4
89.
pressure of each gas = partial pressure
a)
false
b)
true
90.
How many liters will be produced at 280.0 k and 96.0 kPa if 1.74 mol of sodium react with excess water according to the equation:
2Na(s) + 2H20 (l)
→ 2NaOH(aq)+ H2 (g)
2Na(s) + 2H20 (l)
→ 2NaOH(aq)+ H2 (g)
a)
21.1 L
b)
5.6 L
c)
2.1 L
d)
42.2 L
91.
What is the movement of particles from high concentration to low concentration
a)
diffusion
b)
effusion
92.
How much space would 3.45 moles of nitrogen gas occupy at a temperature of 18 degrees Celsius and a pressure of 888mmHg?
a)
81.6 L
b)
72.9 L
c)
90.0 L
d)
70.5 L
93.
Gases have a high density.
a)
true
b)
false
94.
Particles do not attract or repel eafch other
a)
false
b)
true
95.
What law shows the relationship between pressure and volume?
a)
Charles's law
b)
Boyle's Law
c)
Avagadro's law
d)
Lussac's law
96.
Graham's Law compares rates of diffusion for different gases.
a)
true
b)
false
97.
____ Is the substance in the greatest quantity. This is also the substance that does the dissolving.
a)
Solvent
b)
Solute
c)
Homogeneou Mixture
d)
Dilution
98.
___ Is the substance in less concentration. This substance is what is dissolved in a solution.
a)
Solvent
b)
Solute
c)
Heterogeneous Mixture
d)
Dilution
99.
How many grams of NaOH are needed to make a 750.0 mL of a 6.00 M solution of NaOH?
a)
180 grams
b)
280 grams
c)
1.35 grams
d)
4.82 grams
100.
How many grams of 2-butanol, C4H10O, must be dissolved in 125 g of ethanol in order to produce a 12.0 m 2-butanol solution?
a)
111 g
b)
143 g
c)
200 g
d)
56.3 g
101.
What is the percent by mass of a solution made by dissolving a 0.49 g of potassium sulfate in 12.70 g. of water?
a)
3.7%
b)
4.3%
c)
56%
d)
23.4%
102.
Which is NOT a stress that can occur in reversible reactions?
a)
Concentration
b)
Pressure/Volume
c)
Temp. Change
d)
Color change
103.
TRUE or FALSE: In a reversible reaction, the reactants form products and the products form reactants.
a)
True
b)
False
104.
Equilibrium is the state of which the rate of the forward reaction is not equal to the rate of the reverse reaction.
a)
True, the rates are not equal
b)
False, the rates ARE equal
105.
What do you not include in an equilibrium constant expression?
a)
Aq. solutions and liquids
b)
solids and gases
c)
solids and liquids
d)
solids and aq. solutions
106.
If the Keq value is greater than 1,
a)
the products are favored
b)
neither the products nor the reactants are favored
c)
reactants are favored
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