As of June 2015, both federal and state laws require that manufacturers supply a(n) _____ for all chemical products manufactured and sold.

Which agency is responsible for designating disinfecting agents as being effective enough to be used in a hospital setting and effective for cleaning blood and body fluids?

What is safe and useful type of disinfectant, commonly called quats?

State regulatory agencies _____.

Which action is best defined as removing all visible dirt and debris from tools, implements, and equipment by washing with soap and water?

One-celled microorganisms with both plant and animal characteristics are known as _____.

Which organisms are pus-forming bacteria that grow in clusters like bunches of grapes?

Spiral or corkscrew-shaped bacteria are called _____.

Together, the active stage and inactive, or spore-forming, stage of bacteria are referred to as the _____.

Inflammation is characterized by which of the following?

A pimple or an abscess is an example of a _____.

Which disease is bloodborne and can cause liver damage?

The body’s first line of defense against infection is _____.

What type of immunity does the body develop after overcoming a disease or through inoculations?

Single-use items that do not have the capacity to be disinfected after each client use must be _____.

Which statement best describes UV sanitizers?

Which substances work to break down stubborn films and remove the residue of pedicure products such as scrubs, salts, and masks?

Which statement describes the proper use of waterless hand sanitizers in the salon?

_____ gloves are considered the best choice for use in nail services because they are made of more durable material and help eliminate the possibility of latex allergy.

Specialized clothing or equipment worn by an employee for protection against a hazard is called _____.

What is the widest part of the head, starting at the temples and ending at the bottom of the crown, that can be found by placing a comb flat on the side of the head?

The two front corners represent the widest part of the _____.

Hair that grows below the parietal ridge, or crest, hangs because of _____.

By making a parting or drawing a line from the apex to the back of the ear, you can locate the _____ of the head, which consists of all the hair that falls naturally behind the ear.

A(n) _____ is a thin, continuous mark, curved or straight, used as a guide while cutting hair.

What is the working area of the hair that is separated prior to cutting?

_____ lines in a haircut are those that lie between the horizontal and vertical, have a slanting or sloping direction, and help to blend long layers into short layers to create fullness.

_____, or stacking, involves using diagonal lines to create angles by cutting the ends of the hair with a slight increase or decrease in length.

Elevation creates graduation and layers, and is usually described in _____.

What is the elevation, or degrees, contained in a blunt or one-length haircut?

When the hair is elevated _____, you are building weight in a haircut.

The angle at which the fingers are held when cutting the line that creates the shape is referred to as the _____.

Which guideline is used in a blunt, one-length haircut, or used in overdirection to create a length or weight increase?

If you want hair to be longer toward the front on a layered haircut, overdirect the sections to a stationary guide at the _____.

A _____ is a conversation between you and your client when you find out what the client is looking for, offer suggestions and professional advice, and come to a joint decision about the most suitable haircut. _{*STATE BOARD*}

A client’s _____ is how he or she looks from the side and can be best viewed by pulling the hair away from the face and up and away from the neck.

The _____ is the direction in which hair grows from the scalp and is also called the natural falling position.

Cowlicks and whorls are examples of _____ that will affect where the hair ends up once it is dry, especially in the nape.

You should use the _____ degree of tension when cutting hair with strong growth patterns, or around the ears, to compensate for the hair being pushed up when it dries.

_____ shears, also known as scissors, are mainly used to cut blunt or straight lines in hair, to slide cut, point cut, or to implement other texturizing techniques.

Which type of comb is used mainly to detangle the hair? _{*STATE BOARD*}

Before purchasing _____, the stylist should inquire about the manufacturing, steel quality, and the right blade edge.

Which type of texture shear adds increased blending?

A(n) _____ is a basic haircut, cut at a 90-degree elevation and then overdirected to maintain length and weight at the perimeter. 

Effilating, also known as _____, is the process of thinning the hair to graduated lengths with shears.

When using the slicing technique to remove weight and add movement through the lengths of the hair, the shears should never be completely _____.

Electric or battery-operated tools that cut the hair by using two moving blades held in place by a metal plate with teeth are called _____.

What technique allows you to cut hair very close to the scalp and create a flat top or square shape?

Without a thorough understanding of _____, cosmetologists could damage hair, cause hair loss, and harm their clients and themselves.

Chemical hair texturizers temporarily raise the pH of the hair to an alkaline state in order to _____.

Hydrogen bonds are weak physical side bonds that result from an attraction between negative and positive electrical charges and are easily broken by water or heat, but reform as the hair is _____.

Once in the cortex, the waving solution breaks the disulfide bonds through a chemical reaction called _____.

The _____ of the permanent waving solution is determined primarily by the concentration of the reducing agent, or thio.

The active ingredient or reducing agent in alkaline permanent waves is _____.

Alkaline waves, also known as _____, were developed in 1941.

Exothermic waves create a chemical reaction that heats the waving solution and speeds up _____.

It is important for stylists to remember that ammonia-free does not necessarily mean _____.

What is the most common neutralizer?

What perm rods are equal in diameter along their entire length or curling area?

What soft foam perm rods are usually about 12 inches (30.5 centimeters) long with a uniform diameter along the entire length of the rod?

_____, also known as circle rods, are usually about 12 inches (30.5 centimeters) long with a uniform diameter along the entire length of the rod, and are secured by fastening the ends together to form a loop.

The _____ is a perm wrap in which one end paper is placed under and another is placed over the strand of hair being wrapped, providing the most control over the hair ends.

Caution should be used with on-base rod placement to avoid additional _____.

_____ minimizes stress and tension on the hair.

The two methods of wrapping the hair around a perm rod are _____.

In the croquignole method of wrapping, the hair is wound from the _____ in overlapping concentric layers.

_____, often found in home haircoloring products, leave a coating on the hair that may cause uneven curls, severe discoloration, or hair breakage.

During a relaxer strand test, hair that is pressed to the scalp and continues to curl is _____.

Where should you start the application of the chemical relaxer, often considered the most resistant area?

When the cuticle is slightly raised and the hair is normal and processes in an average amount of time, the hair would be said to have _____.

When the cuticle is lifted and the hair is overly porous and takes color quickly, the hair would be said to have _____.

To test for porosity, take several strands from four different areas of the head: the front hairline, the temple, the crown, and the _____.

What type of melanin gives black and brown color to the hair?

What unit of measurement identifies the lightness or darkness of a color, or the saturation, density, or concentration of color?

The darkest hair colors in the level system are identified as being a level _____, while the lightest hair colors in the level system are _____.

_____ is described as a property of objects that depends on the light they reflect and is perceived (by the human eye) as red, yellow, blue, or other shades.

Colors with a predominance of blue are _____ colors, whereas colors with a predominance of red and/or yellow are _____ colors.

The primary color that brings depth or darkness to any color is _____.

Primary and secondary colors that are positioned opposite each on the color wheel are _____.

Tones can be described as cool, warm, or _____.

_____ tones absorb more light, therefore they look deeper than their actual level.

Oxidative haircolor is classified as demipermanent (deposit only) and _____ (lift and deposit)

Metallic haircolors are also known as _____.

The standard volume of hydrogen peroxide used to achieve most results with permanent haircolor is _____.

Chemical compounds that lighten hair by dispersing, dissolving, and decolorizing the natural pigment are _____.

What is the process by which oxygen is released within the cortex of the hair shaft?

The process in which the hair is pre-lightened and then toned is known as _____.

When is the most critical part of a color service?

What process lightens hair and deposits color in one application?

The U.S. Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act prescribes that a predisposition test be given _____.

Examples of single-process permanent coloring applications are virgin color applications and _____.

A _____ application refers to the first time the hair is colored.

You should NEVER apply hair color to a client if the scalp has any obvious signs of _____.

Lighteners that have a thicker consistency and give more control during scalp application are known as _____.

The coloring technique that involves coloring some strands of hair lighter than the natural color is known as _____.

The process of treating gray or very resistant hair to allow for better penetration of color is known as _____.