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WorksheetsAirports, Air Traffic Control, Airspace
Total questions: 55
Worksheet time: 32mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?
a)
Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.
b)
Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course.
c)
Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.
2.
Which is true with respect to vortex circulation in the wake turbulence generated by an aircraft?
a)
When vortex circulation sinks into ground effect, it tends to dissipate rapidly and offer little danger.
b)
Helicopters generate downwash turbulence only, not vortex circulation.
c)
The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.
3.
Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength?
a)
Heavy and Slow with Gear and Flaps UP
Heavy and Slow with Gear and Flaps UP
b)
Heavy and Slow with Gear and Flaps DOWN
c)
Heavy and Fast with Gear and Flaps DOWN
4.
When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is
a)
an emergency.
b)
if the clearance contains a restriction
c)
when the clearance states "at pilot's discretion."
5.
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
a)
When parallel runways are in use
b)
When visibility is less than 1 mile.
c)
When departing from a runway intersection.
6.
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
a)
Runway identification and course guidance.
b)
Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.
c)
Lateral course guidance to the runway.
7.
(Refer to figure 25, area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is
a)
3,200 feet MSL.
b)
at the surface.
c)
4,000 feet MSL.
8.
Refer to Figure: Figure 25 - Sectional Chart Excerpt(Refer to figure 25, area 2.) The floor of Class B airspace at Addison Airport is
a)
2,500 feet MSL.
b)
2,100 feet MSL.
c)
3,000 feet MSL.
9.
When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester AFSS is
a)
"MC ALESTER FLIGHT SERVICE STATION, HAWK NOVEMBER SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER."
b)
"MC ALESTER STATION, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CEE BEE, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER."
c)
"MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER."
10.
The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is
a)
"FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED."
b)
"FORTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL."
c)
"FOUR POINT FIVE."
11.
The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is
a)
"ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED.
"ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED.
b)
"TEN POINT FIVE."
"TEN POINT FIVE."
c)
"TEN THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED FEET."
12.
(Refer to figure 23, area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?
a)
1,700 feet MSL.
b)
1,300 feet MSL.
c)
1,300 feet AGL.
13.
Refer to Figure: Figure 25 - Sectional Chart Excerpt(Refer to figure 25.) At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized?
a)
Addison and Dallas Executive (Redbird)
b)
Fort Worth Meacham and Fort Worth Spinks.
c)
Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field.
14.
During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a)
The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
b)
The other aircraft is crossing to the right.
c)
The other aircraft is approaching head-on.
15.
During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a)
The other aircraft is crossing to the right.
b)
The other aircraft is flying away from you.
c)
The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
16.
During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a)
The other aircraft is flying away from you.
b)
The other aircraft is approaching head-on.
c)
The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
17.
Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by
a)
blue omnidirectional lights.
b)
alternate red and green lights.
c)
white directional lights.
18.
A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is
a)
four white lights.
b)
two white lights and two red lights.
c)
three white lights and one red light.
three white lights and one red light.
19.
A below glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is a
a)
red light signal.
b)
pink light signal.
c)
green light signal.
20.
An above glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is
a)
a green light signal.
b)
a white light signal.
c)
an amber light signal.
21.
An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is
a)
a white light signal.
b)
an amber light signal.
c)
a green light signal.
22.
A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a
a)
pulsating white light.
b)
pulsating red light.
c)
steady white light.
23.
Refer to Figure: Figure 47 - VASI Illustrations(Refer to figure 47.) Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is
a)
above the glide slope.
b)
on the glide slope.
c)
below the glide slope.
24.
Refer to Figure: Figure 47 - VASI Illustrations(Refer to figure 47.) VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is
a)
above the glide slope.
b)
below the glide slope.
c)
off course to the left.
25.
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 47.) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is
a)
above the glide path.
b)
below the glide path.
c)
on the glide path.
26.
To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it
a)
one time within four seconds.
one time within four seconds.
b)
three time within three seconds.
three time within three seconds.
c)
five times within five seconds.
five times within five seconds.
27.
An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates
a)
that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.
b)
there are obstructions on the airport.
c)
the Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation.
28.
A lighted heliport may be identified by a
a)
green, yellow, and white rotating beacon.
green, yellow, and white rotating beacon.
b)
blue lighted square landing area.
c)
flashing yellow light.
29.
A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits
a)
two quick, white flashes between green flashes.
two quick, white flashes between green flashes.
b)
white and green alternating flashes.
c)
green, yellow, and white flashes.
30.
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 48.) The portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for
a)
landing.
b)
taxiing and landing.
c)
taxiing and takeoff.
31.
(Refer to figure 48.) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?
a)
The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position A.
b)
Runway 30 is equipped at position D with emergency arresting gear to provide a means of stopping military aircraft.
c)
Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B.
32.
(Refer to figure 48.) What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted?
a)
"A" may be used for taxi and takeoff; "E" may be used only as an overrun.
"A" may be used for taxi and takeoff; "E" may be used only as an overrun.
b)
"A" may be used only for taxiing; "E" may be used for all operations except landings.
"A" may be used only for taxiing; "E" may be used for all operations except landings.
c)
"A" may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landings; "E" may be used only as an overrun.
33.
(Refer to figure 48.) Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a
a)
closed runway.
b)
multiple heliport.
c)
stabilized area.
34.
(Refer to figure 49.) The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area
a)
is usable for taxiing, takeoff, and landing.
b)
may be used only for taxiing.
c)
cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff.
35.
The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately
a)
009° and 027° true.
b)
090° and 270° true.
c)
090° and 270° magnetic.
36.
The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally
a)
4,000 feet AGL.
b)
1,200 feet AGL.
c)
3,000 feet AGL.
37.
The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is
a)
20 nautical miles.
b)
15 nautical miles.
c)
5 nautical miles.
38.
All operations within Class C airspace must be in
a)
an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability.
b)
compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.
c)
accordance with instrument flight rules.
39.
Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
a)
The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
b)
The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace.
c)
The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure.
40.
Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with
a)
Air Traffic Control.
b)
the controlling agency.
c)
all pilots.
41.
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning
a)
noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas.
b)
nonessential information to reduce frequency congestion.
c)
pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an obstruction.
42.
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090°: "TRAFFIC 3 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
a)
East.
b)
South.
c)
West.
43.
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360°: "TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
a)
Northeast.
b)
Northwest.
c)
Southwest.
44.
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight: "TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
a)
Between directly ahead and 90° to the right.
b)
Between directly ahead and 90° to the left.
c)
Between directly behind and 90° to the right.
45.
Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as
a)
wind-shear warning at participating airports.
b)
mandatory radar service provided by the Automated Radar Terminal System (ARTS) program.
c)
safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft.
46.
From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?
a)
Ground control, on initial contact.
b)
Clearance delivery.
c)
Tower, just before takeoff.
47.
TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides
a)
IFR separation (1,000 feet vertical and 3 miles lateral) between all aircraft.
b)
sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft.
c)
warning to pilots when their aircraft are in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft.
48.
Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?
a)
Contact the FSS for traffic advisories.
b)
Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.
c)
Contact the tower and request permission to enter.
49.
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?
a)
0700, 1700, 7000.
0700, 1700, 7000.
b)
7500, 7600, 7700.
c)
1200, 1500, 7000.
50.
When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?
a)
1200.
b)
7600.
c)
7700.
51.
If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?
a)
Flash the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the airport.
b)
Enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings.
c)
Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.
52.
(Refer to figure 49.) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on
a)
Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.
Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.
b)
Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right.
c)
Runway 22 directly into the wind.
53.
(Refer to figure 50B.) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is
a)
left-hand for Runway 34 and right-hand for Runway 16.
b)
right-hand for Runway 09 and left-hand for Runway 27.
c)
left-hand for Runway 16 and right-hand for Runway 09.
54.
(Refer to figure 50B.) The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the
a)
north of the airport.
b)
south of the airport.
c)
southeast of the airport.
55.
(Refer to figure 50B.) The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 27 will be with a
a)
left-quartering headwind.
b)
right-quartering headwind.
c)
right-quartering tailwind.
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