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WorksheetsPharmacology Opioids/Neuromuscular/
Total questions: 134
Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What are three major classes of opioid receptors?
a)
Mu, Delta, Epsilon
b)
Mu, Kappa, Lambda
c)
Kappa, Delta, Kappa
d)
Mu, Kappa, Delta
2.
Higher centers in the brain and brain stem that receive pain are following EXCEPT
a)
Substantia Gleatinosa
b)
Cortex
c)
Periaqueductal gray
d)
Hypothalamus
3.
What two neurotransmitters are important for nociceptive response
a)
Substance P, Glutamate
b)
Endorphins, Enkephalins
c)
Substance P, Potassium
d)
Magnesium, Glutamat
4.
What is the most common clinically used opioid receptor? At that receptor what is a side effect?
a)
Mu; Respiratory depression and diarrhea
b)
Kappa, Respiratory depression
c)
Delta, Miosis and Nausea
d)
Mu, Respiratory Depression and constipation
5.
Kappa receptors have the following effects EXCEPT:
a)
miosis
b)
sedation
c)
Euphoria
d)
Low abuse potential
6.
Which is a CNS effect of opioids
a)
Alertness
b)
Sedation
c)
Stabilization of mood
d)
Loss of consciousness
7.
True or False opioids have no effect on CBF (cerebral blood flow) and no change on CMRO2 and decreases ICP
a)
True
b)
False
8.
What is more effective at Antitussitive?
a)
Levorotatory isomers
b)
Dextroisomers
c)
Acetylcholine
d)
Tenacious
9.
Which medication will cause muscle rigidity the fastest?
a)
Sufentanil
b)
Morphine
c)
Fentanyl
d)
Hydromorphone
10.
True or false euphoric effects are related to abuse seen in Mu receptors
a)
true
b)
false
11.
What happens to minute volume and tidal volume when receiving opioids, respectively?
a)
Decrease, slight Decrease
b)
Increase, slight Increase
c)
Decrease, slight Increase
d)
Increase, slight decrease
12.
What relationship do opioids have with general anesthesia?
a)
Dose-related increase
b)
Dose-related decrease
c)
No effect
d)
Do not give volatile agents with opioids
13.
Which medication causes tachycardia
a)
Morphine
b)
Meperidine
c)
Fentanyl
d)
Hydromorphone
14.
Peripheral vasodilation is due what process found in some opioids
a)
Histamine release
b)
Prostaglandins
c)
Methyl-aspartate
d)
heteromers
15.
Opioids affect the heart by effecting what nerve?
a)
Suprapsinal preiaqeductal gray
b)
Thalamus
c)
Rostroventral Medulla
d)
Vagus
16.
Opioids have what effect in the biliary duct? How can is be reversed?
a)
Decrease biliary duct pressure; Naloxone
b)
Increase biliary duct pressure; Naloxone only
c)
Increase biliary duct pressure; Naloxone or glucagon
d)
Decrease biliary duct pressure; Naloxone or glucagon
17.
What is one of the most common side effects of intrathecal opioids?
a)
micturation
b)
vomiting
c)
non-histamine pruritis
d)
infection
18.
Histamine is released by which medication the most?
a)
Meperidine
b)
fentanyl
c)
naloxone
d)
diacetylmorphine
19.
What are the two classes of alkaloids?
a)
Phenanthrenes, Morphine
b)
Phenanthrenes, Benzylisoquinolines
c)
Benzylisoquinolines, Noscapine
d)
Benzylisoquinolines, butyrylcholinesterase
20.
What is the elimination half time of codeine?
a)
3-3.5 hours
b)
2.5-4.5 hours
c)
1.5-3.5 hours
d)
3-6 hours
21.
what percentage of codeine is demethylated to morphine by the liver?
a)
5%
b)
10%
c)
15%
d)
20%
22.
Which medication is the least lipophilic of clinically utilized opioids
a)
Morphine
b)
Fentanyl
c)
Sufentanil
d)
Hydromorphone
23.
What is the dose of morphine?
a)
0.01-0.05 mg/kg
b)
0.05-0.25 mg/Kg
c)
0.03-0.15 mg/Kg
d)
0.25-0.5 mg/kg
24.
Hydrogenated Ketone of morphine is what medication? what is the dose?
a)
Morphine; 0.25-0.5 mg
b)
Hydromorphone; 0.3-1 mg
c)
Codeine; 0.25-0.5 mg
d)
Hydromorphone; 0.25-0.5mg max 2mg
25.
Which is wrong?
a)
Fentanyl is 100 times strong than morphine
b)
Hydromorphone is 5 times stronger than morphine
c)
Alfentanil is 10 to 20 times stronger than morphine
d)
Heroine is 45 times stronger than morphine
26.
What is the usefulness of Meperidine
a)
Relieving severe pain
b)
Stops shivering in PACU patient
c)
What is meperidine?
d)
Meperidine is used for heart blocks
27.
What is the potency of Meperidine? What receptors does it work at?
a)
1/10th Morphine; Mu and Kappa
b)
1/1000th of Fentanyl; Mu and Kappa
c)
2 times Morphine; Mu and Kappa
d)
1/10th Morphine; Mu and Delta
28.
Fentanyl is how much more potent than morphine?
a)
1000 times
b)
50 times
c)
100 times
d)
They are the same
29.
True or false does a higher dose of Fentanyl i.e. 50-150 mcg/kg will cause chest wall rigidly
a)
True
b)
False
30.
What is the duration of action of Fentanyl? Elimination?
a)
0.5-1 hr; 2-4 hr
b)
1-2 hr; 4-8 hr
c)
1-2 mins; 2-4 hr
d)
0.5-1 hr; 5-6 hr
31.
Sufentanil is how more potent than morphine?
a)
10
b)
100
c)
1000
d)
10000
32.
True or False sufentanil is highly protein bound and needs to be diluted prior to use.
a)
true
b)
false
33.
What is the IV dose during induction of Sufentanil?
a)
0.25-10 mcg/kg
b)
0.05-0.10 mcg/kg
c)
0.1-0.2 mcg/kg
d)
5-6 mcg/kg
34.
Which medication has the fastest onest
a)
Morphine
b)
Fentanyl
c)
Alfentanil
d)
Hydromorphone
35.
How fast should a Remifentanil drip be infused at
a)
0.02-0.05 mcg/kg/min
b)
0.2-0.5 mcg/kg/min
c)
0.7-1 mcg/kg/min
d)
0.2-0.5 mg/kg/min
36.
Remifentanil utilizes what elimination process?
a)
Ester Hydrolysis
b)
N-dealkylation
c)
Phase 1 CYP 3A4
d)
Phase II glucuronic acid
37.
Methadone is used mostly in clinical practice for?
a)
Chronic Pain
b)
Detoxification of opioids
c)
Paralysis
d)
it is not used because high addiction abuse
38.
True or False Naxloxone produces a discernible effects in the absence of opioids and should not be given
a)
True
b)
False
39.
Giving Naloxone 0.04-0.08 mg in the presents of opioids all of the following are an effect EXCEPT
a)
Increase respiratory rate
b)
decrease in sedation
c)
Reduction in pruritis
d)
no symptoms of withdrawal
40.
How long should you wait in between doses of Naloxone
a)
3-5 minutes
b)
1 minute
c)
Don't wait give it
d)
8-10 minutes
41.
True or False agonist-antagonists have no limit on their clinical effects
a)
True
b)
False
42.
What is the potency of Nalbuphine-Nubain compared to morphine? what is the onset of action?
a)
10 times stronger; 2-3 minutes
b)
Same strength; 2-3 minutes
c)
2 times stronger; 5-6 minutes
d)
1/2 strength; 2-3 minutes
43.
Tramadol (Ultram) has the following properties EXCEPT:
a)
Weakly inhibits re-uptake of NE and 5HT
b)
Opioid-like side effects
c)
Useful in pt's unable to take NSAID's
d)
High addiction potential
44.
Decadron (Dexamethasone) inhibits what to produce effects
a)
Phospholipase A
b)
Cyclooxgenase
c)
COX1
d)
Prostaglandins
45.
NSAIDs have all of the following properties EXCEPT:
a)
anti-inflammatory
b)
analgesic
c)
antipyretic
d)
platelet aggregation
46.
30 mg of Ketorolac is equivalent to how many mg of morphine
a)
1mg
b)
15mg
c)
10mg
d)
5mg
47.
Ketorolac is contraindicated in what type of patient
a)
CAD
b)
Gangrene of the foot
c)
elevated serum potassium non-renal related
d)
elevated serum creatinine advanced renal impairment
48.
What is the IV dose and the duration of time to give Caldolor?
a)
400 mg to 600mg over 50 minutes
b)
400 mg to 1000 mg over 1 hour
c)
400 mg to 800 mg over 30 minutes
d)
400 mg to 800 mg over 15 minutes
49.
IV magnesium reduces pain by
a)
Plugging NMDA receptors
b)
Contraction of smooth muscles
c)
reduction of oral medication required post operatively
d)
Blocks GABA receptors
50.
Ofirmev is the IV version of what oral medication? what is the appropriate dose for an adult that weighs 55 kg
a)
Tylenol; 15 mg/kg IV q 6 hrs
b)
Tylenol; 1000 mg IV q 6 hrs
c)
Ibuprofen; 1000 mg q 6 hrs
d)
Ibuprofen; 15 mg/kg q 6 hrs
51.
During opioid free anesthesia what is given pre-operatively to ensure home readiness?
a)
gabapentin and versed
b)
versed and ketamine bolus
c)
Oral Ibuprofen and gabapentin
d)
Oral acetaminophen and gabapentin
52.
Mivacurium is metabolized by?
a)
Plasma cholinesterase
b)
Hoffman elimination
c)
Ester hydrolysis
d)
Acetylcholinesterase
53.
All of the following are purpose of paralysis EXCEPT:
a)
Facilitate intubation
b)
Facilitate surgical exposure
c)
Increase FiO2
d)
Improve controlled ventilation
54.
Which of the following statements is FALSE
a)
Motor and Sensory Nerves are Somatic Nerves
b)
Motor Nerves exit the Dorsal Cord
c)
Sensory Nerves enter the Dorsal Cord
d)
Motor Nerves Exit the Ventral Cord
55.
In infants, which ACh sub-unit is replaced by a Gamma γ?
a)
Alpha
b)
Beta
c)
Delta
d)
Epsilon
56.
How many ACh's combine with an alpha Nicotinic receptor?
a)
1
b)
3
c)
4
d)
2
57.
what percentage of the receptors are need to generate an AP
a)
10-30%
b)
50-80%
c)
5-20%
d)
5-10%
58.
Acetylcholinesterase breaks down ACh into what two molecules
a)
Choline and Acetate
b)
Acetate and motoneuron
c)
Curare and Choline
d)
ryanodine and acetate
59.
Which of the following are NOT a intermediate duration neuromuscular blocking agents
a)
mivacurium
b)
atracurium
c)
cisatracurium
d)
rocuronium
60.
In acute intoxication of anticholinesterases what two medications can be given and in what time frame?
a)
Pralidoxime and Atropine; Nicholas Cage has the right idea Right Away
b)
Pralidoxime and Neostigmine; 5 hours
c)
Atropine only
d)
We are going back to Rock
61.
What theoretical dose of neuromuscular blocking agents is needed to suppress a twitch response
a)
ED 50
b)
ED 80
c)
ED 95
d)
ED 85
62.
Which of the following is NOT true about neuromuscular blocking agents
a)
Cross BBB-with CNS effect
b)
Renal Tubular reabsorption minimal
c)
No placental transmission
d)
Highly protein bound
63.
Which molecule is composed of two ACh molecules linked together?
a)
Succinylcholine
b)
Mivacurium
c)
Rapacuronium
d)
Cisatracurium
64.
How many molecules of succinylcholine are needed to bind to the nicotinic receptor to open the channel
a)
1
b)
2
c)
72.4444444444
d)
3
65.
How is succinylcholine metabolized?
a)
Plasma Cholinesterase
b)
Psuedocholinesterase
c)
Butyrocholinesterase
d)
All the answer are the same and therefore correct
66.
Succinlycholine metabolism is decreased in all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
liver disease
b)
thyroid disease
c)
pregnancy
d)
acute kidney injury
67.
What test is conducted for atypical pseudocholinesterase metabolism? what is it testing?
a)
Cholinersterase number; Quantity of enzymes
b)
Dibucaine Number; Quality of enzymes
c)
Succinylcholine Metabolism number; Quality of enzymes
d)
Amide Anesthesia test; Quantity of enzymes
68.
What is the dose succinylcholine
a)
0.5-1.5 mg/kg IV, 4-6 mg/Kg IM
b)
0.25-0.5 mg/kg IV, 4-6 mg/kg IM
c)
0.5-1.5 mg/kg IV, 8-10 mg/kg IM
d)
2-5 mg/kg IV, 4-8 mg/kg IM
69.
True or False Sinus Bradycardia , junctional rhythm, cardiac arrest due to succinylcholine action on cardiac muscarinic receptors are more likely to occur in the second dose
a)
True
b)
False
70.
Succinylcholine increases plasma potassium in a normal by ______ and in Burns and crushing Trauma's ______
a)
0.2 mEq/L; 8-15 mEq/L
b)
0.5 mEq/L; 5-10 mEq/L
c)
0.05 mEq/L; 5-20 mEq/L
d)
0.8 mEq/L; 5-10 mEq/L
71.
Which of following is INCORRECT about adverse effects of succinylcholine
a)
Trismus
b)
Myalgias due to fasciculations
c)
Increased Intraocular pressure
d)
Increased intragastric pressure, causing emesis
72.
Succinylcholine side effects are all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
Increased Intraocular Pressure
b)
Malignant Hyperthermia
c)
AV Block
d)
SVT
73.
Nondepolarizing agents are?
a)
Nicotinic receptor agonist
b)
Nicotinic receptor competitive antagonist
c)
Nicotinic receptor partial agonist
d)
Nicotinic receptor irreversible agonist
74.
Which is NOT a Benzylisoquinoline neuromuscular blocking agent?
a)
Mivacurium
b)
Atracurium
c)
d-tubocurare
d)
Pancuronium
75.
Which is not a Ammonio-steroid neuromuscular blocking agent
a)
Rocuronium
b)
Vecuronium
c)
Pancuronium
d)
Atracurium
76.
Which statement is wrong about histamine release in Benzylioquinolinium neuromuscular class?
a)
Histamine release
b)
Can attenuate by slow injection
c)
non-immunologic response
d)
Most common with Cisatracurium
77.
Muscarinic Blockade seen in which type of nondepolarizing agents?
a)
Steroidal Compounds
b)
Benzylisoquinoline
c)
Rocuronium only
d)
Vecuronium
78.
All of the following increase the block requiring less nondepolarizers EXCEPT
a)
Aminoglycosides
b)
Furosemide
c)
Magnesium
d)
Hyperkalemia
79.
True or False: Phenytoin and hyperkalemia decrease the block and increase the required dose needed
a)
True
b)
False
80.
Nondepolarizing Duration
Short _____
Intermediate_____
Long_____
Short _____
Intermediate_____
Long_____
a)
5-10 mins; 60-120 mins; 200-300 mins
b)
5-10 mins; 40-60 mins; 60-120 mins
c)
5-10 mins; 20-40 mins; 60-120 mins
d)
15-30 mins; 50-70 mins; 100-150 mins
81.
In a patient with both Renal and Liver Failure which nondepolarizing would you use
a)
Vecuronium
b)
Rocuronium
c)
Succinylcholine
d)
Cisatracurium
82.
True or False Atracurium and Cisatracurium are metabolized by Hoffman elimination only
a)
True
b)
False
83.
What is the time to intubate with Rocuronium?
a)
30-60 sec
b)
4-5 mins
c)
1-3 mins
d)
1.5-
84.
What is the length of time in minutes to see 4/4 twitches on a patient who received pancuronium?
a)
80-100
b)
60-80
c)
70-150
d)
20-40
85.
Which statement about Atracurium is INCORRECT?
a)
At higher pH metabolism is faster
b)
when metabolized it creates laudanosine molecules
c)
duration of action less than or equal to 35 minutes
d)
a rapid push will not cause a histamine release
86.
Which statement regarding cisatracurium is True
a)
Less potent than atracurium
b)
releases histamine levels even with slow push
c)
metabolized by pH and temperature called Hofmann elimination
d)
drops BP and HR
87.
In regards to Pancuronium what happens to the cardiovascular system
a)
Bradycardia, Increase in BP, Decrease CO, Hypotension
b)
Tachycardia, increase in BP, increase in CO, mild hypertension
c)
Tachycardia, decrease in BP, increase in CO, hypotension
d)
Bradycardia, decrease in BP, increase in CO, Hypertension
88.
Which statement regarding Vecuronium is False
a)
Increase lipophilicity cause greater hepatic metabolism
b)
less affinity for cardiac muscarinic receptors
c)
Duration of action is 60 minutes
d)
Very predictable time frame seen in patient
89.
What is the dose of Rocuronium
a)
0.1-0.5 mg/kg
b)
0.8-2 mg/kg
c)
0.6-1.2 mg/kg
d)
1-4 mg/kg
90.
Why is rocuronium unpredictable?
a)
Less lipophilic
b)
No ganglionic effects
c)
Histamine release
d)
Redistribution effects
91.
What is the succinylcholine dose needed if a non-depolarizing dose of Rocuronium is given?
a)
0.5 mg/kg
b)
Just intubate enough Roc was given
c)
1.5 mg/kg
d)
0.5-0.7 mg/kg
92.
Which Therapeutic use is Incorrect about Anticholinersterases
a)
Antagonize neurimuscular blockade
b)
Treat myasthenia gravis
c)
Treat anticholinergic syndrome
d)
Treat excessive acetylcholine
93.
True or False anitcholinesterases reverse the blockade of depolarizing agents by increasing the number of ACh in the NMJ (Neuro Muscular Junction)
a)
True
b)
False
94.
Which is not a Carbamoyl Ester Inhibitor
a)
Physostigmine
b)
Neostigmine
c)
Pyridostigmine
d)
Phosphorstigmine
95.
Which anticholinesterases crosses the blood brain barrier
a)
Physostigmine
b)
Neostigmine
c)
Pyridostigmine
d)
None of them
96.
Are anticholinersterases reversible? What is the mechanism of action?
a)
Yes; Hydrolysis of AChE
b)
No; Plasma Cholinesterase
c)
Yes; Carbamoyl Ester
d)
No; Phase
97.
Ogranophosphate Inhibitors has what unique property
a)
Forms a reversible covalent bond
b)
Forms a irreversible covalent bond
c)
Regenrates new AChE enzymes
d)
Depending on the agent used nothing with happen
98.
Which of the following is not a muscarinic effect of cholinesterase inhbitors
a)
Decreased Heart rate
b)
Bronchospasm
c)
increased peristaltic activity
d)
Mydriasis
99.
True or False symptoms of Acute intoxication of Anticholinesterases include: Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, Hypotension, Bradycardia
a)
True
b)
False
100.
What is the duration of action of Neostigmine and Pyridostigmine? How is it metabolized?
a)
30 mins; Plasma Esterases only
b)
80 mins; Plasma esterases and liver enzymes
c)
50 mins; Plasma esterases and liver enzymes
d)
40 mins; ACh metabolizes it
101.
What is the max does of Negostigmine? what is the ratio to glycopyrrolate?
a)
10 mg; 1:1 cc
b)
5 mg; 1 mg : 0.2 mg
c)
5 mg; 1 mg : 1 mg
d)
5 mg; 1 mg : 0.2 ml
102.
Cyclodextrines like Sugammadex encapsulate what type of neuromuscular molecules
a)
All nondeploarizing agents
b)
Depolarizing agents
c)
Ammonio -Steroids
d)
Benzylisoquinolines
103.
What is the dose of Suggmmadex for a patient that has 1 to 2 twitches on TOF
a)
4 mg/kg
b)
2 mg/kg
c)
8 mg/kg
d)
16 mg/kg
104.
What makes Catecholamins endogenous
a)
Alpha stimulation
b)
Hydroxyl group on 3 and 4 carbon benzene ring
c)
Beta Stimulation
d)
Hydroxyl group on 5 and 7 carbon benzene ring
105.
Epinephrine all of the following clinical uses EXCEPT:
a)
Treatment of Anaphylaxis
b)
CPR
c)
Severe Cardiac instability
d)
COPD exacerbation
106.
Low dose Epinephrine mainly effects what receptor?
a)
α1
b)
β1
c)
α2
d)
β2
107.
A patient received a non-selective beta blocker and is given epinephrine what is expected to occur
a)
bronchodilation β2 effect
b)
bronchoconstriction α2 effect unopposed
c)
Bronchoconstriction α1 effect unopposed
d)
Bronchodilation β1 effect unopposed
108.
Regarding epinephrine which statement is FALSE
a)
Iris muscle contraction-mydriasis
b)
Constriction of GI smooth muscle
c)
Bladder detrusor relaxation- β receptors
d)
Glycogenolysis, lipolysis-β
109.
Norepinephrine stimulates what receptors
a)
α1 and β1 with minimal β2
b)
α1 only
c)
β2 β1 and minimal α1
d)
α1 and β2
110.
Clinical uses for norepinephrine are all of the following EXCEPT
a)
Hypotension, decreased MAP
b)
Refractory hypotension in the presence of Sepsis
c)
Support BP during weaning from CPB
d)
Increased pulmonary wedge pressure
111.
A patient comes with right sided heart failure what dose of Dopamine would be given? What receptor is effected
a)
0.5-3 mcg/kg/min; D1
b)
3-10 mcg/kg/min; α1
c)
>10 mcg/kg/min; α1 + β1
d)
3-10 mcg/kg/min; β1 + α1
112.
True or False Dopamine, Epinephrine, and norepinephrine are all metabolized either partially or entirely by Catechol-O-methytransferase
a)
true
b)
false
113.
All of the following side effects of Dopamine are true EXCEPT:
a)
May cause huy ischemia due to decreased flow to mucosal layer of gut
b)
Promotes lymphocyte apoptosis
c)
Increases IOP
d)
Increases serum prolactin levels
114.
Isoproterenol stimulate which receptors? what is the dose?
a)
β1 β2; 1-5 mcg/kg/min
b)
α1 β2; 1-5 mcg/kg/min
c)
β1 β2; 6-8 mcg/kg/min
d)
α2 β1; 6-8 mcg/kg/min
115.
Which of the following is an adverse effect of Isoproterenol?
a)
Vasoconstriction
b)
Bradyarrhythmia
c)
Right ventricular dysfunction
d)
Decrease in BP
116.
A patient has CHF with pulmonary hypertension which medication would you give and what dose?
a)
Dopamine 10 mcg/kg/min
b)
Dobutamine 20 mcg/kg/min
c)
Dobutamine 5 mcg/kg/min
d)
Norepinephrine 6 mcg/kg/min
117.
What is the antidote of an infiltrate IV of dopamine or Phenylephrine
a)
There is no antidote
b)
Phentolamine
c)
Phospotolamine
d)
COMT inhibitor
118.
All of the following are α1 actions EXCEPT:
a)
Vasoconstriction
b)
Increased peripheral resistance
c)
Mydriasis
d)
Decreases closure of internal sphincter of the baldder
119.
α2 has the following properties except
a)
vasodilation
b)
Inhibition of Norepi Release
c)
Inhibition of acetylcholine release
d)
Inhibition of insulin release
120.
β1 has what action in adrenoceptors
a)
Bradycardia
b)
Decreased lipolysis
c)
Increased myocardial contractility
d)
Decrease release of renin
121.
β2 has the following actions EXCEPT:
a)
Vasodilation
b)
Bronchodilation
c)
Increased release of glucagon
d)
Constriction of uterine smooth muscle
122.
Ephedrine has the what effects on the cardiovascular system
a)
Increase BP
b)
Increase HR
c)
Increase CO
d)
all the answer choices are correct
123.
Phenylephrine acts on what receptors? what is the single IV dose
a)
α1; 150-300 mcg
b)
α1; 50-200 mcg
c)
β1; 20-100 mcg
d)
β2; 50-200 mcg
124.
What is contraindicated with Phenylephrine as it will lead to unopposed alpha stimulation?
a)
Alpha 2 agonist
b)
Beta 1 agonist
c)
Beta Antagonist
d)
Atropine
125.
True or False β2 stimulates cAMP formation that is responsible for smooth muscle relaxation
a)
True
b)
False
126.
What is the dose of albuterol per puff
a)
100 mcg
b)
150 mcg
c)
50 mcg
d)
14 puffs
127.
Terbutaline is a β2 agonist what is it used to treat?
a)
Low HR
b)
Increases BP
c)
Preterm Labor
d)
FPS
128.
True or False Digoxin mechanism of action is Na+ accumulation inhibits Na-Ca exchanger system thereby allowing Calcium ions to accumulate inside cell and a range of 0.5-2.5 ng/ml
a)
True
b)
False
129.
What is an early manifestations of digoxin toxicity
a)
Blue and yellow ring around the light
b)
Prolonged P-R interval
c)
Nausea, Vomiting
d)
Atrial tachycardia
130.
A patient presents with Rapid A-fib and right sided CHF which medication would you choose and at what dose
a)
Milrinone 0.375-0.75 mcg/kg/min
b)
Dobutamine 5 mcg/kg/min
c)
Milrinone 5 mcg/kg/min
d)
Dobutamine 0.375-0.75 mcg/kg/min
131.
A patient presents with Rapid A-fib and right sided CHF and renal failure which medication would you choose and at what dose
a)
Milrinone 0.375-0.75 mcg/kg/min
b)
Dobutamine 5 mcg/kg/min
c)
Milrinone 5 mcg/kg/min
d)
Dobutamine 0.375-0.75 mcg/kg/min
132.
True or false Calcium is not a potent inotrope
a)
true
b)
false
133.
How much Dantrolene do you give for MH?
a)
2.5 mg/kg IVP every 5 minutes until the episode subsides (up to 10 mg/kg)
b)
2.5 mg/kg IVP every 5 minutes until the episode subsides (up to 60 mg/kg)
c)
5 mg/kg IVP every 2 minutes until the episode subsides (up to 10 mg/kg)
d)
2.5 mg/kg IVP every 2-6 minutes until the episode subsides (up to 100 mg/kg
134.
What is the first sign of MH
a)
Increase in ETCO2
b)
Increased Temperature
c)
Increased Serum creatine kinase
d)
Decrease in U/O
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