WorksheetsACLS Exam 2 practice
Total questions: 46
Worksheet time: 2hrs 32mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
In which comorbidity would you double the dose of vasopressin?
a)
Renal Failure
b)
Liver cirrhosis
c)
CVA
d)
Osteoporosis
2.
Which is not an ACLS route of administration for emergency drugs?
a)
Interosseous
b)
ETTube
c)
IV
d)
Nasal
3.
When administering drugs via the ETT, dosages
a)
are cut by a third
b)
are cut in half
c)
are doubled
d)
are tripled
4.
What is the appropriate units for the infusion of Epinephrine?
a)
mcg/kg/min
b)
mcg/min
c)
mcg/kg/hr
d)
mcg/hr
5.
Administering too much epinephrine can cause what electrolyte imbalance?
a)
hypokalemia
b)
hypercalcemia
c)
hyponatremia
d)
hypermagnesemia
6.
Which arrythmia is does not recommend the use of vasopressin?
a)
PEA
b)
Asystole
c)
V-Tach
d)
A-fib
7.
Which procedure will render atropine ineffective after it is completed?
a)
Heart Transplant
b)
CABG
c)
Aortic Valve replacement
d)
TAA repair
8.
Which statement is TRUE about shock?
a)
All victims, regardless of injuries, should be treated for shock.
b)
Increased pulse and respirations, and low blood pressure, are symptoms of shock.
c)
Keeping a shock victim calm and comfortable is a myth.
d)
As long as a victim is conscious, he/she is not in shock.
9.
A patient with chronic heart failure has atrial fibrillation and an LV ejection fraction of 18%. To decrease the risk of complications from these conditions, the nurse anticipates the administration of
a)
Diuretics
b)
Anti-coagulants
c)
Beta-blockers
d)
Potassium
10.
All of these arrthymias cannot be cardioverted with adenosine EXCEPT:
a)
A-fib
b)
A-flutter
c)
pulseless VT
d)
Stable narrow SVT
11.
There is no maximum dose of esmolol because
a)
It is an endogenous drug
b)
it is rapidly metabolized
c)
it has no toxic effects
d)
it has a sequestering reversal agent
12.
A stable tachycardic patient has all the follow except
a)
heart rate >150
b)
no significant signs or symptoms
c)
renal disease
d)
a cardiac abnormality
13.
An multifocal atrial tachycardia with a QRS <.12 sec responds better to
a)
cardioversion
b)
blocking agents
c)
lidocaine
d)
defibrillation
14.
Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia is more likely to become pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
15.
Which of these is not a clinical feature of atrial fib/flutter?
a)
patient is unstable
b)
WPW is present
c)
duration
d)
converted rhythym
16.
Which of the following pairings of a-fib/flutter clinical feature-clinical treatment is wrong?
a)
is WPW present?=convert rhythm
b)
is duration <48 hrs or >48 hrs=provide anticoagulation if indicated
c)
is cardiac fuction impaired?=control rate
d)
is patient clinically unstable?= treat non-urgently
17.
What percent of patients sent home for "non-cardiac" chest pain actually had some type of ischemic heart disease?
a)
42%
b)
30%
c)
28%
d)
95%
18.
Which of the following would make a patient a high risk of developing ACS?
a)
normal ECG during chest pain
b)
Age >70 yrs
c)
new BBB
d)
prior MI
19.
All of these areas could feel myocardial ischemic pain EXCEPT:
a)
left lower anterior chest
b)
epigastric
c)
shoulder
d)
retrosternal
20.
Which of these is associated with NSTEMI?
a)
elevated cardiac enzymes
b)
non-occlusive thrombus
c)
ST elevations
d)
nonspecific ECG
21.
Which is not a treatment for a NSTEMI?
a)
Morphine
b)
ASA
c)
Nitrates
d)
Heparin
22.
What is the appropriate and maximum dose of ephedrine?
a)
5-10 mg/ 50 mg
b)
1-5 mg/ 50 mg
c)
1-10 mg/ 25 mg
d)
5-10 mg/ 50 mg
23.
What is the second dose of amioderone in VF/pVT?
a)
300 mg
b)
150 mg
c)
600 mg
d)
75 mg
24.
It is effective to give lidocaine after amiodarone in and emergency situation.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
25.
Which of these is not part of the secondary airway survery?
a)
placing an ETT
b)
placing an oral airway
c)
opening the airway
d)
placing an LMA
26.
Which of these cannot be used to pace a patient?
a)
PA catheter
b)
AED pads
c)
defibbrilator paddles
d)
EKG leads
27.
What is the main drug clinically recommended for asystole?
a)
vasopressin
b)
atropine
c)
epinephrine
d)
lidocaine
28.
PEA has all of these signs except:
a)
No pulseox signal
b)
No etCO2
c)
EKG signal
d)
a-line waveform
29.
What is the correct administration order of drugs for bradycardia?
a)
dopamine atropine, epi, ephedra
b)
ephedra, epi, dopamine, atropine
c)
ephedra, atropine, epi, dopamine
d)
epi, ephedra, atropine, dopamine
30.
Which of these is an absolute contraindication for fibrinolysis therapy?
a)
cerberal vascular lesion
b)
severe, poorly controlled hypertension
c)
traumatic CPR
d)
pregnancy
31.
Verapamil is used for what arrythmia and at what initial dose?
a)
PEA, 2.5-5 mg
b)
Bradycardia, 5-10 mg
c)
SVT, 2.5-5 mg
d)
A-fib, 20 mg
32.
Diltiazem is what kind of drug?
a)
beta blocker
b)
calcium channel blocker
c)
sodium/ potassium pump blocker
d)
alpha antagonist
33.
Which of these is not a type of hypoxia?
a)
hypoxic
b)
histotoxic
c)
hypovolemic
d)
anemic
34.
What is the first treatment for hyperkalemia?
a)
epinephrine
b)
bicarbonate
c)
calcium
d)
hyperventilate
35.
How many units of heparin should be given if a coronary thrombosis is suspected?
a)
500-1000 u
b)
1000-3000 u
c)
2000-4000 u
d)
3000-5000 u
36.
Which of the following drugs should be avoided in hypothermic bradycardia?
a)
epinephrine
b)
isoperturnol
c)
ephedrine
d)
atropine
37.
Which of the following drugs will not be effective in Mobitz type II?
a)
epinephrine
b)
isoperterenol
c)
ephedrine
d)
atropine
38.
If I take 1 mL of 1:1000 epinephrine and put it into a 250 mL NS bag, what is my final concentration in the 250 mL bag?
a)
1 mcg/cc
b)
2 mcg/cc
c)
3 mcg/cc
d)
5 mcg/cc
39.
What is the max total dose of atropine?
a)
.04 mg/kg (total of 3 mg)
b)
.01 mg/kg (total of 1 mg)
c)
.04 mg/kg (total of 4 mg)
d)
.01 mg/kg (total of 3 mg)
40.
What is the ACLS dose of atropine for mildly symtomatic bradycardia?
a)
.5-1.0 mg every 3-5 min
b)
.5-1.0 mcg every 3-5 min
c)
.1-.5 mg every 1 min
d)
.1-.5 mcg every 1 min
41.
Which of the following ACLS drugs cannot be given down the ETT?
a)
Norepinephrine
b)
xylocaine
c)
adrenaline
d)
ativan
42.
According to ACLS pharmacology, which of the following drugs is not used for bradycardia?
a)
Atropine
b)
Epinephrine
c)
dopamine
d)
diltiazem
43.
According to ACLS pharmacology, which of the following drugs is not used for Vfib/Vtach?
a)
epinephrine
b)
amiodarone
c)
lidocaine
d)
esmolol
44.
Which dose of dopamine is associated with increased RBF, CO , HR, and Ionotropy?
a)
1-4 mcg/kg/min
b)
5-15 mcg/kg/min
c)
20-50 mcg/kg/min
d)
50-100 mcg/kg/min
45.
Amiodarone is used for the following rhythms, except?
a)
V-fib
b)
narrow complex tachycardia with a pulse
c)
A-fib with a pulse
d)
Pulseless VT
46.
What is the max dose of amiodarone (nexterone) in a 24 hr period?
a)
1.1 g
b)
2.2 g
c)
3.3 g
d)
4.4 g
100 %
