WorksheetsChapter 5 Review
Total questions: 55
Worksheet time: 3hrs 6mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is Urban Sprawl?
a)
Slow growth in an urban area, decreasing in resources
b)
Population decrease in an urban area
c)
The rapid growth of an urban area, increasing development in urban areas
2.
What is a metropolitan area?
a)
spreading of urban developments on a city
b)
A region that includes a central city and its surrounding suburbs
c)
The directness of routes linking pairs of places
3.
True or false: Since 1950, more than 90% of the US metropolitan population growth has taken place in the suburbs
a)
True
b)
False
4.
Which is a negative effect of urban sprawl?
a)
new, affordable homes
b)
more farmland
c)
destruction of habitats
d)
more people pass their geography quiz
5.
What do the dark spots on this population density map represent?
a)
urban cores
b)
metropolitan areas
c)
Somerset, Wisconsin
d)
public transit systems
6.
Which is a positive effect of urban sprawl?
a)
there are more affordable houses
b)
increased pollution
c)
destruction of habitats
d)
more taco bells (this one's not the right answer, but it is true)
7.
What does "affordability" mean?
a)
Barely getting by with some help from my friends
b)
Owning a two-story mansion with eight bedrooms
c)
Able to get "more for your money" in the suburbs
8.
This is the term used to describe a structure that has businesses on the lower levels and residential units on the upper floors.
a)
mixed-use development
b)
infill
c)
metropolitan area
d)
a transformer
9.
This is the rapid, often poorly planned spread of development from an urban area outward into rural areas
a)
urban sprawl
b)
metropolitan area
c)
rural fringe
d)
whooping cough
10.
What part of the metropolitan area is A pointing to?
a)
urban core
b)
urban fringe
c)
rural fringe
d)
metropolitan area
11.
What part of the metropolitan area is B pointing to?
a)
urban core
b)
rural fringe
c)
urban fringe
d)
mitochondria
12.
What part of the metropolitan area is C pointing to?
a)
rural fringe
b)
urban fringe
c)
urban core
d)
cell membrane
13.
What part of the metropolitan area is a suburb most likely to be located in?
a)
the rural fringe
b)
the urban core
c)
the urban fringe
d)
no
14.
In 1973, Oregon placed growth boundaries around its urban areas. What was the purpose of these boundaries?
a)
to prevent the development of farmland and forests
b)
to build a new building on an old, abandoned lot
c)
to create bigger and better suburbs
d)
to kick all the people out of the city and let squirrels live in the apartments
15.
Toronto’s Official Plan encourages infill instead of urban sprawl. Which of these is the best example of infill?
a)
getting a cavity filled in at the dentist
b)
eating ALL THE SWEETS
c)
replacing an abandoned factory with a new apartment building
d)
outfill
16.
Increasing public transit is one way to get people in a metropolitan area to drive less. What is public transit?
a)
A network of buses, trains, and other vehicles used for moving passengers.
b)
not allowing people to build developments on farmland
c)
replacing an abandoned factory with a new apartment building
d)
when all the 7th graders get in Ms. Dodor's beetle and go to Taco Bell
17.
Which is a positive effect of urban sprawl?
a)
there are more affordable houses
b)
increased pollution
c)
destruction of habitats
d)
more taco bells (this one's not the right answer, but it is true)
18.
Which phrase best describes Portland today?
a)
A. a compact city with controlled growth
b)
B. a sprawling city with a rundown urban core
c)
C. the fastest-spreading human settlement in history
d)
D. a lightly populated city of big houses on large lots
19.
In Portland, the legal border that separates urban land from rural land is called
a)
A. a mixed-use development.
b)
B. an urban growth boundary.
c)
C. the Official Plan.
d)
D. MARTA.
20.
As Portland, Oregon began to expand in the 1960s and 1970s, people feared that
a)
A. federal highway funds would be withheld because of excessive air pollution.
b)
B. city planners would close down the public transit system.
c)
C. the rich farmland of the Willamette Valley would be covered by development.
d)
D. all of the above
21.
Which of the following is a statement that a person opposing urban growth might say?
a)
A. Homeowners in new developments pay taxes which help fund roads, schools, and other city services.
b)
B. Houses in the suburbs cost less and are better places to raise a family.
c)
C. People in new developments spend money on furnishings, which is good for local stores.
d)
D. Developing rural areas destroys habitats for plants and animals.
22.
What mode of transportation allowed city workers to live in far away suburbs and commute to their jobs?
a)
A. streetcars
b)
B. horses
c)
C. cars
d)
D. trains
23.
What is one benefit of a mixed-use development?
a)
A. Housing is kept far away from the noise and traffic of business districts.
b)
B. There is plentiful parking because the development is built around the need for cars.
c)
C. People can live, work, and shop in the same neighborhood.
d)
D. Housing density is lower, and there is plenty of land between homes.
24.
How did Toronto address its problems with a rundown urban core in the 1960s?
a)
A. It largely abandoned the city center and focused on building sprawling suburbs.
b)
B. It ignored the problem because city planners could not reach a resolution.
c)
C. It demolished most downtown buildings and converted the area to a city park.
d)
D. It rebuilt its downtown through infill projects, including many skyscrapers.
25.
What decision did Toronto's leaders make in 1999 that would affect the city for decades?
a)
A. They decided to allow private developers to shape Toronto's growth.
b)
B. They began to create a plan to control the growth of the city.
c)
C. They gave up federal highway funds to avoid having to deal with the air pollution problem.
d)
D. They abandoned the urban core in favor of suburban development.
26.
Toronto's Official Plan allows growth to continue in what percentage of the city?
a)
A. 5 percent
b)
B. 25 percent
c)
C. 45 percent
d)
D. 75 percent
27.
According to Toronto's Official Plan, most new developments will consist of
a)
A. infill and mixed-use projects in the urban core.
b)
B. housing and commercial developments in the suburbs.
c)
C. developments in parks and other open spaces.
d)
D. all of the above.
28.
What resulted from Atlanta's remarkable growth in the 1990s?
a)
A. urban sprawl
b)
B. traffic jams
c)
C. air pollution
d)
D. all of the above
29.
After violating the Clean Air Act, what did Atlanta do to improve air quality?
a)
A. It did nothing, and therefore it lost all of its federal highway funds.
b)
B. It cut pollution by creating a regional transportation system to get people out of their cars.
c)
C. It limited urban sprawl by denying all development permits for a period of 10 years.
d)
D. It created an urban growth boundary and limited development to the urban core.
30.
Why did Governor Roy Barnes of Georgia decide to focus on public transit in Atlanta?
a)
A. He wanted Atlanta to continue growing.
b)
B. He wanted Atlanta to meet Clean Air Act standards.
c)
C. He wanted Atlanta to receive its federal highway funds.
d)
D. all of the above
31.
What resulted from Atlanta's commitment to building a regional public transit system?
a)
A. The city now meets Clean Air Act standards.
b)
B. Urban growth has slowed down dramatically.
c)
C. Residents of Atlanta are now in agreement about urban sprawl.
d)
D. The size of Atlanta is actually decreasing.
32.
Which of the following statements about the United States and Canada is true?
a)
A. The populations of both countries are no longer growing.
b)
B. Development continues to push into the rural fringe in both countries.
c)
C. Urban sprawl is actually good for the environment.
d)
D. Both nations have agreed to bring a halt to all future development.
33.
Why does urban sprawl continue in the United States and Canada?
a)
A. Land and building costs are cheaper in the rural fringe than in the urban core.
b)
B. Some people prefer suburban homes to city apartments.
c)
C. Many people don't like laws that limit where they can choose to live.
d)
D. all of the above
34.
What type of map is this?
a)
Political
b)
Climate
c)
Physical Features
d)
Economic Resources
35.
How would you describe this place?
a)
Urban
b)
Rural
c)
Suburban
36.
What trend can you see by studying the following map of the Mississippi River?
a)
Cities have developed along the Rocky Mountain Range
b)
There is no trend
c)
Cities have developed along the river
d)
Cities located inside the Mojave Desert
37.
Which of these is a list of symbols?
a)
map key
b)
compass rose
c)
index
d)
title
38.
TV dinners were created as the result of a 26 ton turkey surplus.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
39.
Which president declared Thanksgiving a National Holiday?
a)
George Washington
b)
Abe Lincoln
c)
Andrew Jackson
d)
Ulysses S. Grant
40.
Thanksgiving is only an American holiday.
a)
True
b)
False
41.
The first department store to hold a Thanksgiving parade was
a)
Macy's
b)
Montgomery Wards
c)
J.C. Penny's
d)
Gimbel's
42.
Turkeys can drown if they look up in the rain.
a)
True
b)
False
43.
The color of a turkey’s head and throat will change depending on his mood.
a)
True
b)
False
44.
Wild turkeys can run at speeds of up to ____
a)
15 mph
b)
25 mph
c)
30 mph
d)
40 mph
45.
Wild turkeys can fly at speeds of up to ____
a)
10 mph
b)
25 mph
c)
55 mph
d)
70 mph
46.
The longest balloon in the Macy's Thanksgiving Day Parade is:
a)
Spiderman
b)
Superman
c)
Wonder Woman
d)
Barney the Dinosaur
47.
What was the name of the ship that brought the Pilgrims to North America
a)
Nina
b)
Mayflower
c)
Pinta
d)
Santa Maria
48.
In the US Thanksgiving is traditionally celebrated on the 4th _______ of November.
a)
Wednesday
b)
Friday
c)
Sunday
d)
Thursday
49.
Which US State produces the most turkeys annually?
a)
Alabama
b)
North Carolina
c)
Missouri
d)
Arkansas
50.
Approximately how many feathers does a mature turkey have?
a)
750
b)
1,500
c)
3,500
d)
4,000
51.
Only one type of turkey can make the "gobble" sound. Which one is it?
a)
male turkeys
b)
female turkeys
c)
wild turkeys
d)
captive turkeys
52.
All turkeys can fly: True or false
a)
True
b)
False
53.
What sport is commonly associated with Thanksgiving?
a)
football
b)
soccer
c)
baseball
54.
Approximately what percentage of American homes eat turkey on Thanksgiving?
a)
10%
b)
40%
c)
50%
d)
90%
55.
The first Thanksgiving football game was started in 1934 by which team?
a)
Pittsburgh Steelers
b)
Kansas City Chiefs
c)
Detroit Lions
d)
Indianapolis Colts
100 %
