WorksheetsUS Government Final Review
Total questions: 45
Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Powers of Congress that are not stated in the Constitution are:
a)
reserved
b)
expressed
c)
concurrent
d)
implied
2.
A person with a liberal political ideology would be most likely to support:
a)
increased military spending
b)
affirmative action programs
c)
active participation of religious groups in the political process
d)
prayer in public schools
3.
Which branch can approve or reject a President's nomination of a Supreme Court Justice?
a)
Executive
b)
Legislative
c)
Judicial
d)
None of the Above
4.
The powers of the national government are separated into different branches to -
a)
increase the government's power
b)
allow the government to do whatever it wants
c)
give some powers to the states
d)
prevent an abuse of power
5.
“In framing a government which is to be administered by men over men, the great difficulty lies in this, you must first enable the government to control the governed; and in the next place, oblige it to control itself.” This passage from the Federalist No. 51 refers to the need for
a)
a strong executive branch
b)
a system of checks and balances
c)
an independent military
d)
a national education system
6.
In determining the power of Congress to regulate commerce in the case of Gibbons v. Ogden (1824), the Supreme Court:
a)
prohibited Congress from regulating business activity on the grounds it violated private property rights.
b)
listed the implied powers of Congress and the national government
c)
defined commerce clause very broadly, encompassing virtually every form of commercial activity
d)
defined commerce clause very narrowly in considering the right of Congress to regulate it
7.
Which of these was NOT a principle established in the case of McCulloch v. Maryland?
a)
State governments are able to tax federal institutions because of the powers granted in the 10th Amendment
b)
The national government can establish a national bank, even though the Constitution does not say it can
c)
The national government is supreme to the states when it is acting within its sphere of action
d)
The national government has certain implied powers that go beyond its enumerated powers
8.
Federalism contributes to representative democracy by each of the following ways EXCEPT
a)
delegating the burdens on the national government so it can function more effectively
b)
increasing the opportunities for government to be responsive to demand for policies
c)
increasing access so that people can participate at various levels of government
d)
providing means for uniformity among the states so all policies are the same
9.
According to James Madison in Federalist No. 10, the way to prevent any one faction from having too much power is to
a)
eliminate most factions
b)
embrace a multitude of factions
c)
strictly regulate factions
d)
make factions unconstitutional
10.
Which of the following is true of the Supreme Court’s decision in U.S. v. Lopez (1995)?
a)
The Supreme Court used the supremacy clause to increase the national government’s authority over the states.
b)
The Supreme Court used the 10th amendment to increase the states’ authority over the national government.
c)
The Supreme Court interpreted the commerce clause broadly, increasing the power of the national government in relation to the states.
d)
The Supreme Court interpreted the commerce clause narrowly, increasing state power in relation to the national government.
11.
The wall of separation between church and state is best found in what clause of the Constitution?
a)
the free exercise clause
b)
the establishment clause
c)
the full faith and credit clause
d)
the equal protection clause
12.
What prevents people from being tried twice for the same crime?
a)
self-incrimination
b)
unreasonable seizures
c)
double jeopardy
d)
cruel and unusual punishment
13.
The 14th amendment was ratified during Reconstruction to correct which of the following?
a)
African-Americans not being able to vote in the South
b)
African-Americans being denied their rights as American citizens in some states
c)
Some Southern states wanted to re-establish slavery
d)
African-American men had been permanently denied rights under the Constitution
14.
Which of the following statements best describes the impact of the Fourteenth Amendment?
a)
The addition of the Fourteenth Amendment immediately forced state governments to abide by all of the provisions in the Bill of Rights.
b)
The addition of the Fourteenth Amendment had no effect whatsoever on state governments because it was designed to address the federal government.
c)
The addition of the Fourteenth Amendment eventually forced state governments to abide by almost every provision in the Bill of Rights, but the process took over 100 years.
d)
The addition of the Fourteenth Amendment required states to immediately abide by the First Amendment to the Constitution but not to any of the other amendments in the Bill of Rights.
15.
Brown v. Board of Education specifically ordered the integration of what?
a)
Public schools
b)
Buses
c)
The military
d)
Fire departments
16.
What outlawed racial discrimination in the US?
a)
19th Amendment
b)
Civil Rights Act of 1964
c)
14th Amendment
d)
Montgomery Bus Boycott
17.
Which of the following best summarizes the Supreme Court’s ruling in Brown v. Board of Education (1954)?
a)
Racially segregated schools are inherently unequal
b)
States that segregate must spend less money on all-white schools in order to make them equal with African American schools
c)
The federal judiciary, but not Congress, has the power to enforce civil rights
d)
School segregation is unethical but does not violate the 14th Amendment
18.
What ended segregation in public places and banned employment discrimination?
a)
The Voting Rights Act of 1965
b)
The Civil Rights Act of 1964
c)
The Fair Housing Act of 1968
d)
Jim Crow Laws
19.
Which of the following statements about voting behavior in the U.S. is correct?
a)
College graduates are less likely to vote than those with just a high school degree.
b)
Voters under 25 are less likely to vote than those in any other age group
c)
Registration requirements have no significant effect on voter turnout
d)
Since 1920, the proportion of women who have voted is about the same as the proportion of men who have voted
20.
Compared to men, women are more likely to:
a)
support higher levels of military spending
b)
support spending on social services including welfare programs
c)
have no position on issues of government spending
d)
support broad gun ownership laws
21.
Which of the following is true about the judicial branch of the federal government?
a)
It consistently scores higher in public trust than the other two branches of the federal government.
b)
It consistently scores lower in public trust than the other two branches of the federal government.
c)
It consistently scores lower in public trust than the executive branch but higher than the legislative branch.
d)
It consistently scores lower in public trust than the legislative branch but higher than the executive branch.
22.
The basic principles of traditional democratic theory include all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
equality in voting
b)
effective participation
c)
government control of information
d)
inclusion
23.
Minority proponents of ethnic separatism are most likely to use which of the following arguments to justify their position?
a)
Avoidance of the majority group will reduce intergroup prejudices and suspicions.
b)
Self-segregation will foster individualism among minority group members.
c)
Avoidance of the majority group will reduce conflict among members of the minority group.
d)
Self-segregation will enable minority group members to preserve their culture.
24.
Public opinion refers to:
a)
a person who influences how others think
b)
the attitudes held by large numbers of people
c)
the process by which people form opinions about issues
d)
private organizations that work to change public policy
25.
Public opinion polls are only estimates because
a)
samples of fewer than one million people are too small.
b)
all surveys have a sampling error.
c)
pollsters sometimes have to make educated guesses about the results.
d)
random-digit dialing has replaced person-to-person interviewing.
26.
Why is the judiciary unique in its relationship with the media?
a)
The judiciary is less dependent on public opinion in the media
b)
Judges have become starts in the media
c)
The judiciary is dependent on the media for implementation of its rulings
d)
The judiciary relies exclusively on social media for publicity
27.
Where does the majority of Political Socialization occur?
a)
Inside the house
b)
At School
c)
From Grandparents
d)
Imaginary Friends
28.
After the ruling of Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission (2010) people felt:
a)
That the Supreme Court opposed corporations
b)
That the First Amendment should be removed from the Constitution
c)
That the Constitution needs to be re-written
d)
That the Supreme Court put the rights of corporations ahead of the people's
29.
The power of judicial review was first used in John Marshall's majority opinion expressed in:
a)
Marbury v. Madison
b)
McCulloch v. Maryland
c)
Gibbons v. Ogden
d)
Dred Scott v. Sanford
30.
What power is granted to the vice president by the Constitution?
a)
advice and consent to presidential treaties and appointments
b)
tie-breaking power in votes by the Senate
c)
floor leadership in the House of Representatives
d)
power to veto legislative bills
31.
Media programming on cable TV (examples are CNN, ESPN, MTV) or the internet, that are focused on a particular interest is called:
a)
Broadcast programming
b)
Narrowcasting programming
c)
Investigative Journalism
d)
Chains
32.
In which of the following activities is a lobbyist most likely to participate?
a)
selecting Congressional candidates who favor their interests
b)
contacting government officials by phone, email or letter
c)
raising money from members for election campaigns
d)
organizing violent events to gain favor for their cause
33.
The media's effect on public opinion can best be described as:
a)
Influencing older citizens’ opinions of incumbents
b)
Affecting the public’s views on domestic policy only
c)
Influencing which issues the public sees as important
d)
Changing well-educated people’s views on foreign policy
34.
Voting for candidates of two or more parties for different offices is known as
a)
dividing government
b)
identifying as an independent
c)
swing voting
d)
ticket splitting
35.
Which of the following describes the result in a winner-take-all, single-member-district plurality system?
a)
The candidate who receives the most votes in the election wins
b)
The candidate must receive at least 51% of the votes to win
c)
The top two vote-getters compete in a run-off election
d)
A political party must receive 51% of the votes to win all the seats in the district
36.
Which of the following best describes gerrymandering?
a)
The party in control of the state legislature draws district boundaries in such a way as to favor its own candidates in future elections.
b)
The public decides which issues are most important and tells the elected officials how to vote on specific bills.
c)
The Supreme Court requires that state legislatures must adopt the doctrine of one person, one vote.
d)
The party in power wins four or five surrounding districts by very small margins.
37.
Interest groups use political action committees (PAC) to:
a)
Provide expertise to members of Congress when they are writing legislature
b)
Raise and spend money on election campaigns
c)
Generate research that can be used to influence public opinion
d)
Hire policy experts who will promote their views in the media
38.
The balance of power between the House of Representatives and the Senate is best illustrated through
a)
The amendment process
b)
The impeachment process
c)
The electoral process
d)
The impoundment process
39.
The line item veto was found unconstitutional as a presidential power because...
a)
It was not approved by Congress
b)
It was a violation of separation of powers
c)
It was never used by a President
d)
It was used to veto legislation
40.
The notion of the presidency as a bully pulpit suggests that presidents can
a)
Persuade the public to support their policies if they are skilled communicators
b)
Mobilize members of their parties to force legislation through Congress
c)
Control the flow of information between the White House, the press, and the American public
d)
Nominate federal judges who will support their agenda
41.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the electoral college?
a)
The electoral college mandates presidential electors to vote for the candidate they are pledged to
b)
The electoral college establishes a power base for third-party candidates
c)
The electoral college became part of the Constitution to give more power to individual voters
d)
The electoral college has resulted in occasions when a president wins the electoral vote but not the popular vote
42.
The “rule of four” refers to:
a)
The number of Supreme Court justices needed to decide a majority opinion.
b)
The number of minority justices currently serving on the Supreme Court.
c)
The number of cases that most justices are willing to review in any given court session.
d)
The number of Supreme Court justices that need to agree to grant review to a case in order to get a case on the docket.
43.
The power of courts to determine whether acts of Congress and the executive are constitutional is the power of ____________, first articulated in ___________.
a)
stare decisis; Marbury v. Madison
b)
writ of certiorari; United States v. Nixon
c)
judicial review; Brown v. Board of Education
d)
judicial review; Marbury v. Madison
44.
What was the main purpose of the war powers act of 1973?
a)
to give the president more power to protect the country
b)
to limit the president's power to send troops into combat
c)
to allow the people to vote on whether or not to sent troops into battle
d)
to allow the president to know how many recruits are enlisted in the Army reserves
45.
An agreement made by the president with another country's leaders without needing the Senate's consent
a)
veto
b)
pardon
c)
executive agreement
d)
domestic policy
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