WorksheetsAP Biology Evolution quiz
Total questions: 40
Worksheet time: 40mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Two populations of a species of squirrel are isolated from each other. One population is larger in number than the other. A new disease, which is easily spread and extremely contagious, affects both populations at the same time. Which of the following is the best prediction of how the new disease will affect the two populations?
a)
The two populations will be equally affected as they are the same species
b)
The larger population will be more affected as they have greater genetic variation
c)
The smaller population will be more affected as they have less genetic variation
d)
The smaller population will not be affected
2.
Sickle-cell anemia is associated with a mutation in the red blood cells that changes the shape. Scientists think this is an evolutionary response to exposure to malaria. People who are heterozygous for this allele are less likely to get malaria if they are bitten by a mosquito carrying the disease. This change in variation is called a..
a)
Mutation
b)
Response
c)
Migration
d)
Phenotype
3.
Hemophilia is a sex-linked disease involving the blood clotting mechanisms. It is carried on the X chromosome. Recessive traits are more common in small populations because
a)
Migration out of the small population is more likely to happen
b)
Alleles can randomly mutate in smaller populations
c)
A larger population are less likely to have a large genetic variation
d)
A smaller population are less likely to have a large genetic variation
4.
The evolution of one species into two or more species as a result of different populations becoming reproductively isolated from each other is:
a)
Reproductive selection
b)
Adaptive radiation
c)
Artificial selection
d)
Independent assortment
5.
A cladogram shows a model of how 4 mammals are related. Starting on the left, horses diverged first, then Gorillas, than Humans diverged from chimpanzees. What evidence would best support this claim of speciation?
a)
Physical traits and genetic similarities
b)
Presence of lungs and four limbs
c)
Mammals all have fur
d)
Environmental niche similarities
6.
Which of the following is an example of homologous structures?
a)
Whale hip bones
b)
Rabbits and birds have the same bones in the same order in their forelimbs, even though they use them for different purposes
c)
Mice and chicken differ by only 25 amino acids when they make hemoglobin protein.
d)
Embryos of fish and birds both make gill slits
7.
Scientists conducted a test of two alleles for fur color in a population of small mammals over a periodof twenty years, Their results showed that the original population expressed one allele for fur color and the population twenty years later showed expression of the other allele. This changed the phenotype from brown to gray. Which of the following statements best describes this shift in the population?
a)
It is an example of artificial selection
b)
Environmental changes have seen one organism been eliminated
c)
One phenotype replaces another
d)
This is an example of predator prey relationships
8.
Which of the following is a basic requirement for natural selection to be an effective evolutionary force?
a)
Individuals reproduce at a rapid rate
b)
Each population must be limited to a large size
c)
A population must exhibit no genetic variability
d)
None of the above
9.
The sickle cell trait
a)
is common in people whose ancestors came from areas where malaria was a significant health problem because of a serious bottleneck effect
b)
is an example of hybrid vigor
c)
can result in an increase in the fitness of people who are heterozygous for the trait
d)
results in resistance to malaria among people homozygous for the trait
10.
Antibiotic resistant strains of bacteria are on the increase, according to data from the CDC. Which of the following best provides a description for antibiotic resistance?
a)
Sexual reproduction
b)
Changes in the whole DNA
c)
Natural selection
d)
Drug failure
11.
If you are to construct a cladogram over ape species, Which of the following would be furthest apart?
a)
Rodents and apes
b)
Chimpanzee and Humans
c)
Lemur and Gorillas
d)
Gorilla and Humans
12.
Different species of animals, living in the same area, cannot interbreed because
a)
They are genetically different
b)
They are predator and prey
c)
They have different food requirements
d)
They are in different ecological niches
13.
The gene pool of a species
a)
remains constant over time
b)
continually loses alleles
c)
is identical to that of many other species
d)
is changed by evolutionary forces
14.
Gregor Mendel’s pioneering genetic experiments with pea plants occurred before the discovery of the structure and function of chromosomes. Which of the following observations about inheritance in pea plants could Gregor Mendel observe?
a)
Genotypes
b)
Allele frequencies
c)
Phenotypes
d)
Genetic mutations
15.
The differences in sparrow songs among similar species of sparrows is an example of what type of evolution?
a)
Adaptive
b)
Convergent
c)
Reproductive
d)
Behavioral
16.
Which is the correct order of appearance on Earth?
a)
photosynthetic prokaryotes, eukaryotes, primordial soup, non-photosynthetic prokaryotes
b)
primordial soup, non-photosynthetic prokaryotes, photosynthetic prokaryotes, eukaryotes
c)
primordial soup, eukaryotes, photosynthetic prokaryotes, non-photosynthetic prokaryotes
d)
non-photosynthetic prokaryotes, photosynthetic prokaryotes, primordial soup, eukaryotes
17.
Which of the following pieces of evidence best supports the hypothesis that birds and crocodilians (crocodiles and alligators) are more closely related to each other than they are to other organisms?
a)
Modern birds and crocodilians utilize different niches within the same geographical region
b)
Modern birds and crocodilians share similar hunting tactics
c)
The skulls of birds and crocodilians have similar structures
d)
Fossil evidence indicates that both modern birds and crocodilians originated during the Jurassic Period
18.
The eye structures of cephalopods, such as the blue ringed octopus, and mammals evolved independently to perform very similar functions. This type of evolution is called
a)
Allotopic separation
b)
Convergent evolution
c)
Divergent evolution
d)
Sympatic association
19.
Fossils of animals that lived during the early Permian period. From 299 million years ago to 271 million years ago, have been found in South Africa and Brazil. What is the best explanation for these fossils being found in these two countries?
a)
There are many fossils of these worldwide, many have not been discovered yet.
b)
Climate change forced the speciation of this organism in two separate countries
c)
The original organisms only lived in small area that then separated due to continental drift
d)
The organism expanded its range due to genetic drift
20.
Crossing over in the chromosomes during meiosis, conjugation between bacterial cells and fertilization of an egg cell with a sperm cell all will result in what?
a)
Transcription
b)
Increase in genetic variation
c)
Increase in chromosome numbers
d)
Missense mutation
21.
A group of mice was released into a large field to which no other mice had access. Immediately after the release,a representative sample of the mice was captured, and the fur color of each individual in the sample was observed and recorded. There were 10% gray mice, 80% brown mice and 10% black mice. The mice were then returned to the field. After twenty years, another representative sample of the mice was captured, and the fur color of each individual in the sample was again recorded. This time there were 60% gray mice, 30% brown mice and 10% black mice
a)
The allele for gray fur color is unstable
b)
The field was composed primarily of light-colored soil and little vegetation, affording gray mice protection from predators.Increasing the number of mice which have the allele for gray fur
c)
Natural selection led to increased mating frequency of black and brown versus gray and brown
d)
The gray mice were hardest to capture and so were underrepresented in the twenty-year sample
22.
Gel electrophoresis is a way of separating genes due to their relative size. The larger the gene, the less distance it travels in the gel. The electrophoresis results can best support which of the following conclusions?
a)
Genetic mutations occur more frequently
b)
Some organisms can share similar genes
c)
Organisms can have superior protein structures
d)
Muscle cells produce more hemoglobin than do cells from the other tissues
23.
A Biology student is cross breeding fruit flies and noticed the following observations. 75% of the offspring had red eyes and 25% of the offspring had white eyes. What conclusions can be supported by the data?
a)
Genes for eyes and body color were located on the same chromosome
b)
Genes for the red eyes were recessive
c)
Genes for white eyes are dominant
d)
Genes for white eyes are recessive
24.
Peacock males have evolved to have large and beautiful tales. Long tails are difficult to carry when trying to escape from a predator. However, females, peahens, have been shown to prefer males with longer, more resplendent tales, despite the risks from predation. This is an example of
a)
Disruptive selection
b)
Divergent evolution
c)
Sexual selection
d)
Geographical isolation
25.
The data below shows the percentage of tasters and nontasters for PTC, a bitter tasting chemical, in four separate populations. To taste PTC, you must homozygous for a recessive allele. Which population shows the highest percentage of non tasters compared to tasters?
a)
Population 1; Tasters 110, non tasters 32
b)
Population 2; Tasters 8,235, non tasters 4,328
c)
Population 3; Tasters 215, non tasters 500
d)
Population 4; Tasters 11,489, non tasters 2,596
26.
To determine phylogenetic relationships, scientists use a variety of techniques and sources. Examples of this include comparing fossils, bone structures, behavior and molecular biology. Which of the following hypothesis could be tested using these techniques?
a)
Gas exchange in different organisms differ
b)
Life began in the pacific ocean
c)
Evidence of common ancestors can be determined
d)
Predator and prey relationships can be determined
27.
Four species of animals were studied. Four traits of these animals were compared. The following data was gathered. Organism 1&2 shared 2 traits. Organism 1&3 shared 3 traits. Organism 2&3 shared 1 trait and organism 2&4 shared 4 traits. Using this data, which organisms are the closet in relations to each other?
a)
Organism 2&4
b)
Organism 3&1
c)
Organism 2&3
d)
Organism 1&2
28.
A study was conducted on a family with a rare genetic disorder. The grandfather had the disorder. He had three children with the same woman, two sons and one daughter. The sons did not have the disorder. The daughter, however, did have the disorder. The daughter married and had two children. Neither of these had the disorder. What can be determined from this family history?
a)
This disorder is sex linked
b)
This disorder is recessive
c)
This disorder is dominant
d)
This disorder is chromosomal
29.
Cystic Fibrosis is the most common genetic disease in Caucasian populations. Parents can be carriers and be unaffected. This means the disease is
a)
a single point mutation
b)
Domminant
c)
Missense mutation
d)
Recessive
30.
Population studies on a rat population showed that over time, one allele that used to be dominant, has been replaced with a different dominant allele. This is an example of
a)
Artificial selection
b)
Extinction
c)
Phenotype changes
d)
Diversity due to predation
31.
Antibiotic resistant bacteria, especially MRSA, are becoming more frequent. Which of the following is responsible for this event?
a)
Weaker drugs
b)
Use of antibiotics in humans
c)
Natural selection favors SA with resistance gene
d)
Once occurring mutation in a bacterial plasmid
32.
Which part of the evolutionary theory did Charles Darwin develop after reading Thomas Malthus?
a)
Evolution is always advantageous
b)
Variation increases an organisms chance of survival
c)
Fitness to reproduce favors those organisms
d)
Populations grow exponentially.
33.
A recessive trait has the frequency of 0.3. Assuming the population is in Hardy Weinberg equilibrium, what is the expected frequency of the heterozygous population?
a)
0.40
b)
0.50
c)
0.70
d)
0.90
34.
A population of snails has the dominant trait of brown stripes and the recessive trait of solid brown shell color. If the current population has 17% solid brown, what is the expected frequency of homozygous striped shells?
a)
0.35
b)
0.59
c)
59%
d)
35%
35.
If the frequency of two alleles in a gene pool is 90% A and 10% a, what is the frequency of individuals in the population with the genotype Aa?
a)
.78
b)
.81
c)
0.18
d)
0.19
36.
If a population experiences no migration, is very large, has no mutations, has random mating, and there is no selection, which of the following would you predict?
a)
The population will evolve, but much more slowly than normal.
b)
The makeup of the population's gene pool will remain virtually the same as long as these conditions hold
c)
The composition of the population's gene pool will change slowly in a predictable manner
d)
The population probably has an equal frequency of A and a alleles
37.
Which of the following is NOT a condition that must be met for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a)
Large population size
b)
No mutations
c)
Dominant alleles more frequent than recessive alleles
d)
No natural selection
38.
In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype is 0.09. What is the frequency of individuals that are homozygous for the dominant allele?
a)
0.3
b)
0.7
c)
0.49
d)
0.42
39.
In humans, Rh-positive individuals have the Rh antigen on their red blood cells, while Rh-negative individuals do not. If the Rh-positive phenotype is produced by a dominant gene (A), and the Rh-negative phenotype is due to its recessive allele (a), what is the frequency of the Rh-positive allele if 84% of a population is Rh-positive?
a)
0.04
b)
0.16
c)
0.48
d)
0.60
40.
In a population of mice, long hair (h) is recessive and short hair (H) is dominant. The population of the mice is 100, and there are 9 mice with long hair. What is the heterozygous frequency?
a)
0.3
b)
0.49
c)
0.42
d)
0.7
100 %
