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Regional II

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the density of CSF
a)
1.004-1.005
b)
1.003-1.009
c)
1.004-1.006
d)
1.004-1.008
2.
What is number 1
a)
Pia Mater
b)
Dura Mater 
c)
Spinal Cord 
d)
Epidural space
3.
What is number 2
a)
Spinal Cord
b)
Pia mater
c)
Arachnoid mater
d)
Dura mater
4.
What is number 3 
a)
Pia mater
b)
Arachnoid mater
c)
Cauda equina
d)
Internal filum terminale
5.
What is number 4
a)
Spinal Cord
b)
Pia mater
c)
Arachnoid mater
d)
Dura mater
6.
What is number 5
a)
Cauda equina
b)
Epidural Space
c)
Conus Medullaris
d)
Ligamentum flavum
7.
What is number 6
a)
Epidural space
b)
Cauda equnia 
c)
Distal dural sac
d)
External filum terminale
8.
What is number 7
a)
Epidural Space
b)
Cauda equina
c)
Ligamentum flavum
d)
Internal filum terminale 
9.
What is directly correlated with skin to epidural space?
a)
Body weight
b)
Spinal cord size
c)
Thoracic region distance 
d)
Cervical curvature 
10.
What ligament connects the spinous process together
a)
Ligamentum flavum
b)
Dura mater
c)
supraspinous ligament
d)
subspinous ligament
11.
What is the toughest ligament? 
a)
Pia mater
b)
Arachnoid mater
c)
Dura mater
d)
Conus medullaris 
12.
A patient just received a bolus of Bupivacaine just after the ligamentum flavum what type of anesthesia did the patient receive?
a)
Spinal Anesthesia 
b)
Epidural Anesthesia
c)
Total Spinal block
d)
The patient did not receive anesthesia because there is nothing there
13.
What is the average distance to the epidural space? Where is the space the largest?
a)
4 cm; Cervical
b)
 5 cm; Mid-Lumbar
c)
6 cm; Mid-Lumbar
d)
7 cm; Distal-Lumbar 
14.
What dermatome are the nipples located at?
a)
T1
b)
T2
c)
T4
d)
T5
15.
The umbilicus is located at what dermatome?
a)
T9
b)
T8 
c)
T12
d)
T10
16.
Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects the level of Spinal Anesthesia
a)
Baricity
b)
Positioning after injection
c)
Dose of the anesthetic injection
d)
Paramedian versus midline approach
17.
What is the maximum dose of Bupivacaine without Epi
a)
2.5 mg/kg
b)
3.5 mg/kg
c)
7 mg/kg
d)
3.2 mg/kg
18.
You observe an SRNA perform a spinal on a 28-year-old female for a colon resection surgery.  The SRNA states that he has punctured the skin, through the subcutaneous tissue, has met resistance against the ligamentum flavum has passed through and stated he has felt the "the second pop". What approach did the SRNA do? what is the structure of "second pop"?
a)
Midline; Subarachnoid layer 
b)
Paramedian; Dural layer
c)
Midline; Dural Layer
d)
Paramedian; Subarachnoid 
19.

Select all the of the absolute contraindications for a Spinal or epidural

a)

Patient Refusal

b)

Severe Aortic Stenosis

c)

Severe uncorrected Hypovolemia

d)

Untreated Chronic Hypertension

20.

What is the generalized acceptable platelet count to perform a spinal

a)

90,000

b)

100,000

c)

35,000

d)

50,000

21.

Which statement regarding spinal disadvantages is false

a)

Sympathetic blockade occurs 100% of the time

b)

Intense motor blockade

c)

Placing a spinal takes a long time

d)

Surgeons complain that spinals take to long

22.

The spinal cord ends at what level in children

a)

L1

b)

L2

c)

L3

d)

L4

23.

Artery of Adamkiewics (Radicularis Magna) supplies what portion of the spinal cord

a)

Posterior 2/3 of the spinal cord

b)

Anterior 2/3 of the spinal cord

c)

Posterior 1/3 of the spinal cord

d)

Anterior 1/3 of the spinal cord

24.

What is the principle site of action in spinal anesthesia

a)

CSF fluid bathing the nerve

b)

Dorsal nerve roots that have somatic and conduction properties

c)

anterior nerve roots which prevents motor and autonomic function

d)

Lamina X, central canal working from the inside out

25.

What happens when there is an injury to the artery of Adamkiewics

a)

Nothing; Circumferential arterial supplies the spine

b)

Paraplegia; ischemia to the posterior 1/3 lower blood supply to the spine causes motor loss

c)

Paraplegia; ischemia to the anterior lower 2/3 blood supply to the spine causes motor loss

d)

Sensory loss; Patient usually have lower extremities sensation deficit

26.

Mr. Jones just received spinal anesthesia by a SRNA for a TRUP procedure what level is the motor blockade if sensory loss is at T8? Sympathetic blockade is at what level?

a)

Motor T6; Sympathetic T6

b)

Motor T10; Sympathetic T8

c)

Motor T9; Sympathetic T4

d)

Motor T10; Sympathetic T6

27.

If the patient loss sensation 2 cm superior to the umbilicus what level is the sensory spinal based on the dermatome man

a)

T10

b)

T9

c)

T8

d)

T11

28.

What dermatome level are the hips located at?

a)

L1

b)

L2

c)

L3

d)

T12

29.
What is the correct order of local anesthetic affect to first order neurons?
a)
C, B, Aδ, Aβ, Aγ, Aα
b)
B, C, Aδ, Aγ, Aβ, Aα
c)
B, C, Aα, Aβ, Aγ, Aδ
d)
Aα, Aβ, B, C, Aδ, Aγ
30.

What medication would you give first for a drop in blood pressure if the patient cannot feel their nipples

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Ephedrine

c)

Vasopressin

d)

Neosynephrine

31.

A laboring patient that just received an epidural is feeling nauseous and dizzy, what would you do?

a)

Give a fluid bolus

b)

Give a pure alpha-1 agonist

c)

Give a Beta-1 and alpha 1 agonist

d)

Give an anti-emetic, and wait

32.

How would you assess a L4-L5 motor block? How about a T6-T12 motor block?

a)

Dorsiflexion; Lift shoulders off the bed

b)

Plantar flexion; Lift shoulders off the bed

c)

Raising on the knee; Lift shoulders off the bed

d)

Dorsiflexion; raise knees

33.

Select all the intervention utilized to prevent a Cardiovascular effect in a spinal

a)

Atropine

b)

Fluid bolus 10-20 ml/kg

c)

Epinephrine 15-20 mcg bolus

d)

Left uterine displacement if patient is pregnant

e)

Trendelenburg after the spinal

34.

Frank is 83 year old patient having a robotic prostatectomy, he has smoked from 63 years and has severe COPD; the surgeon is fast and requests a spinal prior to surgery, as the CRNA what do you do?

a)

Perform the spinal at requested

b)

Give half the dose anticipated

c)

Discuss with the surgeon the risk of severe COPD and spinals and avoid the spinal

d)

Discuss with the surgeon the risk of steep Trendelenburg and spinals and give it anyway

35.

Which of the following statements about spinal anesthesia is false

a)

Loss of control of the bladder function leads to urinary retention and distention of the bladder

b)

Sympathetic outflow originates from T5-L1

c)

Vagal tone dominance cause small contracted gut with active peristalsis

d)

Hepatic blood flow increases with decrease MAP

36.

Maria is taking Warfarin for her atrial fibrillation she is having a laparoscopic hysterectomy and requested a spinal to reduce the pain, she stopped her warfarin 3 days ago what do you do?

a)

Check an INR only and if it less than 1.5 perform the spinal

b)

Perform the spinal

c)

Abort the procedure and ask the patient to come tomorrow and not take her warfarin

d)

Give vitamin K and perform the spinal

37.

What is the minimum number of days off of Plavix required to perform a spinal? What about Ticlopidine?

a)

7days;14 days

b)

7 days; 8 days

c)

1 week; 20 days

d)

5 days; 12 days

38.

Dr. T is an orthopedic surgeon that gives intraoperative heparin how much time is need before administration of heparin if the patient has a spinal on board

a)

60 minutes

b)

120 minutes

c)

45 minutes

d)

30 minutes

39.

A patient has an epidural catheter in place that has been in place for 16 hours and needs to be pulled by 24 hours per hospital policy. The patient received Lovenox just now what do you?

a)

Follow hospital policy and pull the catheter at 24 hours

b)

For patient safety wait and pull in 10 hours

c)

For patient safety wait and pull in 12 hours

d)

Pull it now and schedule a spinal hematoma surgery

40.

What is the current consensus on adult neuraxial anesthesia of the asleep or awake patient?

a)

Awake is more appropriate

b)

Asleep is more appropriate

c)

It does not matter

41.

What is one critical pre-operative consent explanation needed? what type of monitors are required from neuraxial anesthesia

a)

Back-up plan; SpO2 only

b)

Back-up plan; All monitors in ASA standard V

c)

Labs results; All monitors in ASA standard V

d)

Risk and benefits; SpO2 only

42.

Tuffier's line is what spinous process or interspace

a)

L3; L3 L4 interspace

b)

L4; L3 L4 interspace

c)

L4; L4 L5 interspace

d)

L5; L5 S1 interspace

43.

Sitting position, lateral position with hip flexion facilitates what?

a)

Narrowing of the Anterior spinous ligament

b)

Widening of the interspinous ligament

c)

Widening of the Ligamentum Flavum

d)

Optimal view of the spinous process

44.

Select all that apply for a midline approach spinal procedure

a)

Palpation of the spinous process

b)

Sterile gloves and sterile prep

c)

Subcutaneous Local anesthetic skin wheal using a 20 gauge needle

d)

Place needle in a slight caudal fashion

e)

Advance through the layers until you reach the subarachnoid layer

45.

Which is the muscle punctured in a paramedian approach

a)

Paraspinous muscle

b)

Psoas Major

c)

Rhomboideous major muscle

d)

Semispinalis

46.

Anatomic features pertinent to the performance of nuraxial blockade include all Except:

a)

In adults the spinal cord ends at L1-L2

b)

The angulation of the spinous process of the thoracic vertebrae makes a paramedian approach preferable

c)

In adults the dural sac ends at S2

d)

The largest interspace in the vertebral column is L4-L5

47.

How would an SRNA assess Sensory function after a spinal injection? what about sympathectomy?

a)

Cannot test for either

b)

Sharp needle small fast punctures; Alcohol swab

c)

Blunt needle soft pokes; Cold alcohol swab against the test

d)

Blunt needle soft pokes; Ice water poured down the back

48.

Which is the sharpest spinal needle that has a higher probability of causing a post dural puncture headache (PDPH)

a)

Quincke

b)

Whitacre

c)

Sprotte

d)

Crawford

49.

Bupivicaine has what onset time for a spinal?

a)

3-5 minutes

b)

15 minutes

c)

30 minutes

d)

10-12 minutes

50.

Bupivicaine 0.5% plain has a specific gravity of 0.996 what does that mean?

a)

It is isobaric

b)

It is hyperbaric

c)

It is hypobaric

d)

It will be mixed with CSF making it Isobaric

51.

Which has the longest duration of spinal Anesthesia

a)

Tetracaine 1%

b)

Bupivicaine 0.75%

c)

Lidocaine 5%

d)

Procaine 10%

52.

Select of the following that are true about intrathecal Fentanyl

a)

Dose is 15-25 mcg

b)

Higher doses cause respiratory depression

c)

Onset is 5 to 10 minutes

d)

Duration is 5 to 6 hours

e)

There is no itching effect with intrathecal

Fentanyl

53.

What statement regarding intrathecal morphine is False

a)

Most common used intrathecal opioid

b)

onset time is 60 to 90 minutes

c)

dose 1 to 5 mg

d)

Provides profound analgesia for 18-27 hours

54.

What are the most important factors to document after performing a spinal procedure. Select all that apply

a)

No blood return upon injection

b)

No parethesia noted prior to injection

c)

Total volume infused with medication amount

d)

Negative CSF swirl upon injection

55.

Mrs. Williams is 70 year patient that fell at home and fractured her right hip. Where would you place her spinal and what baracity would you use of medication would you us

a)

Right Lateral; Hyperbaric

b)

Left Lateral; Hyperbaric

c)

Sitting; Isobaric

d)

Sitting; Hyperbaric

56.

Mr. Baker requires a T 10 spinal for his procedure, he is 5'9" [5 feet 9 inches] how much volume would you give him?

a)

1.45

b)

1.015

c)

1.03

d)

0.58

57.

How much volume would you give to Joanna who is 4'10" [4 feet 10 inches] for a T 4 block?

a)

Cannot give local anesthetic

b)

0.9

c)

0.8

d)

0.5

58.

Select all that affect the level of blockade after a spinal

a)

Age of the patient

b)

Dosage of drug

c)

Patient's height

d)

CSF volume

e)

Direction of the needle bevel

59.

Cauda Equina Syndrome has all following symptoms Except

a)

Sever pain in radicular pattern

b)

Loss of sensation

c)

Weakness in the legs

d)

Bladder/ bowel/ sexual dysfunction

e)

Circumoral numbness

60.

Epidural Anesthesia has all of the following principles except

a)

Ability to be performed over at the lumbar,thoracic, or cervical levels

b)

Epidurals can be used for postoperative pain control or operative anesthesia

c)

May be used as a single injection technique or with a catheter

d)

Have a faster onset than spinals

61.

Select all that are in the epidural space

a)

Veins

b)

Lymphatics

c)

Segmental Arteries

d)

CSF

e)

Subdural space

62.

Where does the epidural space start and end?

a)

Base of the cranium to the base of the sacral sulcus

b)

C 1 to the base of the sacral sulcus

c)

C 6 to L 5

d)

C 1 to S 3

63.

Epidural Needles have a curved tip to do what? What is the distance from the tip to hub?

a)

Push the ligamentum flavum; 11 cm

b)

Push the dura mater; 11 cm

c)

Push the ligamentum flavum; 9 cm

d)

Push the dura mater; 10 cm

64.

What is the appropriate test dose for an epidural

a)

3 ml Lidocaine 1.5% 45 mg with 15 mcg epi

b)

2 ml Lidocaine 1.5% 30 mg with 15 mcg of epi

c)

4 ml Lidocaine 1.5% 60 mg with 15 mcg of epi

d)

3 ml Lidocaine 1% 30 mg with 15 mcg of epi

65.

If local anesthetic with epi is injected intravascularly what percentage will the HR and BP systolic rise?

a)

10%

b)

15%

c)

20%

d)

25%

66.

Select all of the side effects of an intravascular injection of local anesthetic without epi

a)

Tinnitus

b)

Metallic taste

c)

Circumorally numbness

d)

Different feeling within the patient

e)

Increased heart rate

67.

How far is the epidural catheter inserted

a)

1 to 2 cm

b)

2 to 3 cm

c)

3 to 5 cm

d)

5 to 7 cm

68.

Epidural anesthesia rule of thumb is what for dosing

a)

1 to 2 ml per inch after 5 feet

b)

1 to 2 ml per segment of block desired

c)

2 to 3 ml per inch after 5 feet

d)

2 to 4 ml per segment

69.

What is the average distance from skin to epidural space in an average person? What about an Obese person?

a)

4-6 cm; 8 cm

b)

2-5 cm; 9cm

c)

5-8 cm; 12 cm

d)

1-2 cm; 5 cm

70.

Which surgery does not match the sensory level block desired?

a)

S2-S5: Hemorrhoids

b)

L2-L3: Foot Surgery

c)

T10: TURP/ Hip Surgery

d)

T6- T7 Cesarean Section

71.

Frank is a patient that is 6'7" [6 feet 7 inches] how volume is required to achieve a T4 block if the catheter is inserted at L4 L5 interspinous space

a)

29 ml

b)

24 ml

c)

13 ml

d)

12 ml

72.

Which statement regarding epidural catheters is false

a)

Always chart that the tip of catheter intact when removed

b)

Visually inspect catheter prior to insertion

c)

Pull a catheter back through the insertion needle

d)

2 dashes equals 10 cm

73.

Potential complication occur with epidural inserted include all of the following except

a)

Possible parethesia encountered during needle placement

b)

Apnea and phrenic nerve paralysis

c)

Intercostal muscle paralysis

d)

Mild drop in B/P and HR

74.

Select all that apply with Epidural Blood Patch

a)

Sterility must be maintain throughout the procedure

b)

Autologous blood is injected into the epidural space

c)

Blood will move in the cephalad direction so inject one or two interspace below

d)

Injected blood will increase subarachnoid and epidural pressure and form a clot sealing the dural tear

e)

30 cc is the maximum to be pushed in the epidural space

75.

Which anatomical structure anchors the spine

a)

Distal dural sac

b)

Internal filum terminale

c)

External filum terminale

d)

Ligamentum flavum

76.

Select all that apply with the CSF

a)

30 and 80 ml in the spinal cord at given time

b)

The pH of CSF is 7.32

c)

There is 500 ml of CSF made daily

d)

It is reabsorbed by arachnoid granulations along the sagittal sinus

e)

CSF pressure is 30 to 40 cm H20

77.

What is that major issue with two level technique

a)

Tissue Trauma

b)

Increased discomfort- 2 sticks

c)

Epidural catheter laceration by the spinal needle

d)

Inability to get CSF because of compression of the dural sac by the test dose

78.

All of the following are utilization of caudal anesthesia except

a)

Anal surgery, hemorrhoids

b)

Surgery of vulva or vagina

c)

Surgery scrotum

d)

Abdominal surgery

79.

At what age does the S4 and S5 sacral hiatus

a)

12 years old

b)

15 years old

c)

14 years old

d)

3 years old

80.

What ligament is punctured during a caudal block

a)

Sacral Coccygeal ligament

b)

Internum filum terminale

c)

Ligamentum flavum

d)

Dural sac

81.

How far should a touhy needle be inserted in a caudal block

a)

1 to 3 cm

b)

4 to 6 cm

c)

3 to 4 cm

d)

2 to 4 cm

82.

True or false you should use chlorhexidine solution instead of povidone-iodine solutions due to increase potential infection

a)

True

b)

False