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WorksheetsReview Test 1
Total questions: 81
Worksheet time: 2hrs 16mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Hyperkalemia is a high concentration of:
a)
Calcium
b)
Potassium
c)
Albumin
d)
Nitrogen
2.
Which of the following tissues are cut using the curved Mayo scissors?
a)
Fascia
b)
Periosteum
c)
Dura Mater
d)
Arterial wall
3.
Which laser beam can travel through clear tissues without heating them?
a)
Argon
b)
Excimer
c)
Carbon dioxide
d)
YAG
4.
Which portion of the stomach surrounds the lower esophageal sphincter?
a)
Cardia
b)
Fundus
c)
Pylorus
d)
Antrum
5.
Low level disinfectants kill most microbes, but do not destroy:
a)
Viruses
b)
Bacteria
c)
Fungi
d)
Spores
6.
Which organism is a normal resident flora of the intestinal tract?
a)
Staphylococcus aureus
b)
Escherichia coli
c)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d)
Clostridium tetani
7.
Through which of the following do the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty?
a)
Duct of Santorini
b)
Ampulla of Vater
c)
Wirsung's duct
d)
Sphincter of Oddi
8.
Which of the following identifiers must be verified by the patient or their ID bracelet prior to transporting a patient to the OR?
a)
Name, Social security number, physician
b)
Name, medical record #, allergies
c)
Name, DOB, diagnosis
d)
Name, DOB, physician
9.
The primary function of the gallbladder is to:
a)
Store Bile
b)
Produce bile
c)
Emulsify fats
d)
Metabolize fats
10.
Which is the following is NOT a benefit of using surface-mounted sliding doors for access to the OR?
a)
Uses less space for opening
b)
Aid in controlling temperature
c)
Eliminate air turbulence
d)
Provides for thorough cleaning
11.
Which of the following is an examination of the cervix using a binocular microscope?
a)
Colposcopy
b)
Lararoscopy
c)
Urethroscopy
d)
Hysteroscopy
12.
Which suffix means surgical punctures to remove fluid?
a)
-dynia
b)
-tomy
c)
-lysis
d)
-centesis
13.
To which portion of the colon is the appendix attached?
a)
Ascending
b)
Descending
c)
Cecum
d)
Sigmoid
14.
Medication used to dilate the pupil is called:
a)
Miotics
b)
Myopics
c)
Mydriatics
d)
Muscarinics
15.
Which of the following drapes is non-fenstrated?
a)
Laparotomy
b)
U-drape
c)
Transverse
d)
Craniotomy
16.
Which of the following monitors provides positive assurance of sterility?
a)
Clerical
b)
Mechanical
c)
Biological
d)
Chemical
17.
The apron-like structure attached to the greater curvature of the stomach is the:
a)
Omentum
b)
Mesentery
c)
Ligamentum
d)
Peritoneum
18.
What organs are excised if an ovarian tumor is malignant?
a)
Bilateral ovaries only
b)
Bilateral Fallopian tubes, ovaries, and uterus
c)
Unilateral involved ovary and fallopian tube
19.
Which term refers to an abnormal thoracic curve of the spine referred to as "hunchback"?
a)
Lordosis
b)
Scoliosis
c)
Kyphosis
d)
Alkalosis
20.
What is the medical term for a bunion?
a)
Talipes valgus
b)
Hallux valgus
c)
Hallux varus
d)
Talipes varus
21.
What incision is also known as a lower oblique?
a)
Inguinal
b)
Para-median
c)
Infraumbilical
d)
Thoracoabdominal
22.
What us the term for a relationship in which two organisms occupy the same area and one organisms benefits while the other unharmed?
a)
Commensalism
b)
Neutralism
c)
Mutualism
d)
Parasitism
23.
What direction should the strecher be oriented when transporting a patient to the OR department?
a)
Feet first, side rails up
b)
Feet first, side rails down
c)
Head first, side rails up
d)
Head first, side rails down
24.
What is the name of the urinary catheter with a small, curved tapered tip used on patients with urethral strictures?
a)
Iglesias
b)
Coude
c)
Pigtail
d)
Bonanno
25.
What is the surgical position commonly used for thyroid and gallbladder surgery?
a)
Supine
b)
Fowler's
c)
Reverse Trendelenburg
d)
Lateral Kidney
26.
A congenital defect in which the fetal blood vessel between the pulmonary artery and aorta does not close is:
a)
Coarctation of the aorta
b)
Patent ductus arteriosus
c)
Tetrelogy of Fallot
d)
Ventricular septal defect
27.
What is the first step taken for an incorrect sponge count?
a)
Notify the surgeon
b)
X-ray patient
c)
Repeat Count
d)
Complete incident report
28.
The mumps may be diagnosed by finding inflammation in which of the following glands?
a)
Sublingual
b)
Thyroid
c)
Parotid
d)
Submandibular
29.
For which procedure would the Trendelenburg position provide optimal visualization?
a)
Cholecystectomy
b)
Hysterectomy
c)
Thyroidectomy
d)
Acromioplasty
30.
Which of the following is a non-adherent dressing?
a)
Kling
b)
Adaptic
c)
Collodion
d)
Elastoplast
31.
Which of the following is a fenestrated drape?
a)
Incise
b)
U-drape
c)
Aperture
d)
Half-sheet
32.
Which of the following terms describes a hernia that occurs within Hesselbach's triangle?
a)
Direct
b)
Indirect
c)
Femoral
d)
Hiatal
33.
Which of the following incisions is oblique?
a)
Epigastric
b)
Kocher
c)
Paramedian
d)
Pfannenstiel
34.
Which of the following dilators are used in the common duct?
a)
Pratt
b)
Van Buren
c)
Bakes
d)
Hegar
35.
The organ that is connected by a duct to the duodenum is the:
a)
Pancreas
b)
Gallbladder
c)
Stomach
d)
Liver
36.
A brain tumor causing alteration of muscle tone, voluntary muscle coordination, gait and balance would likely be located in the:
a)
Diencephalon
b)
Cerebellum
c)
Medulla
d)
Pons
37.
What type of anesthesia is a combination of inhalation and intravenous drugs?
a)
Spinal
b)
Sedation
c)
Regional
d)
Balanced
38.
The outer layer of the intestine is the:
a)
Mucosa
b)
Serosa
c)
Muscularis
d)
Submucosa
39.
Which surgical procedure is performed to correct an abnormality in which the urethral meatus is situated on the superior aspect of the penis?
a)
Hypospadias repair
b)
Epispadias repair
c)
Meatotomy
d)
Ureteroneocystostomy
40.
What is the most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage?
a)
Hypotension
b)
Hypertension
c)
Meningioma
d)
Meningitis
41.
The most common cause of retinal detachment is:
a)
Aging
b)
Trauma
c)
Glaucoma
d)
Inflammation
42.
What postoperative complication is associated with total hip arthoplasty?
a)
Compartment syndrome
b)
Upper extremity weakness
c)
Urinary incontinence
d)
Pulmonary embolism
43.
Which of the following is a type of passive drain?
a)
Penrose
b)
Hemovac
c)
Pleur-evac
d)
Jackson-Pratt
44.
Which structure has oral, nasal, and laryngeal divisions?
a)
Esophagus
b)
Trachea
c)
Pharynx
d)
Glottis
45.
An injury a patient sustains as a result of the care given by a healthcare professional is called:
a)
Latrogenic
b)
Liability
c)
Battery
d)
Tort
46.
Which muscle type is striated and voluntary?
a)
Visceral
b)
Heart
c)
Skeletal
d)
Cardiac
47.
What is the recommended maximum time limit for a tourniquest to remain inflated on an adult lower extremity?
a)
30 minutes
b)
60 minutes
c)
1.5 hours
d)
2.5 hours
48.
Which organism causes gas gangrene?
a)
Clostridium perfringens
b)
Clostridium botulinum
c)
Staphylococcus aureus
d)
Staphylococcus epidermidis
49.
Which of these instruments would be used during a keratoplasty?
a)
Kilner hook
b)
Bowman probe
c)
Kerrison rongeur
d)
Cottingham punch
50.
A partially dislocated joint is called:
a)
Subluxation
b)
Malrotation
c)
Avulsion
d)
Malunion
51.
The avascular, clear portion of the eye covering the iris is the:
a)
Cornea
b)
Sclera
c)
Pupil
d)
Conjunctiva
52.
When using the warm cycle of the EtO sterilizer, what is the minimum sterilization temperature if Fahrenheit?
a)
55
b)
65
c)
75
d)
85
53.
The space between the vocal cords is called the:
a)
Epiglottis
b)
Glottis
c)
Vocal fold
d)
Cricoid cartilage
54.
Which of the following retractors is used for spinal nerve roots?
a)
Taylor
b)
Love
c)
Cushing
d)
Meyerding
55.
How many hours must an item submerse in glutaraldehyde to sterilize?
a)
7
b)
8
c)
9
d)
10
56.
Which of the following is an ossicle of the middle ear?
a)
Pinna
b)
Incus
c)
Labyrinth
d)
Vestibule
57.
What is the term for the process of removing blood from an extremity prior to inflating the pneumatic tourniquet?
a)
Exanguination
b)
Extravasation
c)
Evisceration
d)
Evacuation
58.
Which of the following may require probing and dilating in pediatric patients with upper respiratory infections?
a)
Sinus cavities
b)
Eustachian tube
c)
Nasolacrimal duct
d)
Tympanic membrane
59.
In what circumstances would cell-saver transfusion be contraindicated?
a)
Anemic patients
b)
Diabetic patients
c)
Cancer patients
d)
Orthopedic patients
60.
Use of an intraluminal (circular) stapler (EEA) would be indicated for which of the following surgical procedures?
a)
Pancreatectomy
b)
Cholecystectomy
c)
Polypectomy
d)
Sigmoidectomy
61.
Use an intraluminal (circular) stapler (EEA) would be indicated for which of the following surgical procedures?
a)
Pancreatectomy
b)
Cholecystectomy
c)
Polypectomy
d)
Sigmoinectomy
62.
Satinsky, Herrick, and Mayo clamps may be specifically used on which of the following structures?
a)
Kidney pedicle
b)
Seminal vesicle
c)
Bladder neck
d)
Prostate gland
63.
Which of the following is used by the surgeon to intermittently remove prostatic tissue fragments during TURP?
a)
Randall forceps
b)
Wire snare
c)
Ellik evacuator
d)
Poole suction
64.
In addition to temperature, time and moisture, what is the fourth factor that determines the outcome of the steam sterilization process?
a)
Concentration
b)
Aeration
c)
Weight
d)
Pressure
65.
Which type of hematoma is a result of torn bridging meningeal veins?
a)
Subdural
b)
Epidural
c)
Intracerebral
d)
Intraventricular
66.
WHat is the name of the condition in which a loop bowel herniates into the Douglas's cul-de-sac?
a)
Cystocele
b)
Rectocele
c)
Enterocele
d)
Omphalocele
67.
Which of these conditions is characterized by a fleshy encroachment of conjunctiva onto the cornea?
a)
Chalazion
b)
Pterygium
c)
Strabismus
d)
Ecchymosis
68.
Which procedure would be listed in the OR schedule for a patient undergoing surgical treatment of uterine fibroids?
a)
Pelvic exenteration
b)
Cervical cerclage
c)
Colporrhaphy
d)
Myomectomy
69.
Where is a Baker's cyst located?
a)
Olecranon process
b)
Greater tubercle
c)
Popliteal fossa
d)
Carpal tunnel
70.
Which of of the following is a method of high-level disinfection?
a)
Peracetic acid for 30 minutes
b)
2% glutaraldehyde
c)
Steam under pressure for 10 minutes
d)
Hydrogen peroxide gas plasma for 75 minutes
71.
What is the burn degree classification that involves the epidermis and subcutaneous tissue?
a)
First
b)
Second
c)
Thrid
d)
Fourth
72.
Which portion of the ear is affected by Meniere's syndrome?
a)
Inner
b)
Middle
c)
Eustachian tube
d)
Auditory ossicles
73.
The cartilaginous nasal septum is anterior to which bone?
a)
Hyoid
b)
Vomer
c)
Mandible
d)
Palatine
74.
Which neurosurgical pathology would a myelogram diagnose?
a)
Subdural hematoma
b)
Creutzfeldt-Jakob
c)
Spinal stenosis
d)
Myelomeningocele
75.
How many hours must the steam sterilization biological indicator incubate?
a)
6
b)
12
c)
18
d)
24
76.
The nasal sinus located between the nose and the orbits is the:
a)
Frontal
b)
Sphenoid
c)
Ethmoid
d)
Maxillary
77.
For which of the following procedures would a McBurney incision be indicated?
a)
Appendectomy
b)
Cholecystectomy
c)
Herniorrhaphy
d)
Gastrectomy
78.
What degrees Celsius is the steam sterilization biological indicator incubated?
a)
43-48
b)
49-54
c)
55-60
d)
61-66
79.
What is the proper method for preparing a Fraizer suction tip for steam sterilization?
a)
Lumen is dry
b)
Distilled water in lumen
c)
Stylet is left inside lumen
d)
Disinfectant solution in lumen
80.
Which of the following is a telescoping of the intestines in neonates requiring immediate surgical intervention?
a)
Intussusception
b)
Pyloric stenosis
c)
Tetralogy of Fallot
d)
Omphalocele
81.
What is the name of the procedure for the excision of the tunica vagunalis?
a)
Spermatocelectomy
b)
Orchiectomy
c)
Hydrocelectomy
d)
Vasectomy
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