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Biology A Exam Review

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Before proceeding on to each step of the scientific method, a person must first?

a)

Create a control

b)

Define the problem

c)

Create a procedure to follow

d)

Disprove a law

2.

What is being tested in an experiment?

a)

Control

b)

Conclusion

c)

Independent Variable

d)

Dependent Variable

3.

The sky is cloudy; it must be getting ready to rain is an example of-

a)

Observation

b)

Inferring

c)

Procedure

d)

Precision

4.

The stable level of internal conditions.

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Independent Variable

c)

Energy

d)

Conclusion

5.

Biology is the study of…

a)

the earth

b)

matter

c)

dissections

d)

living things

6.

Molecular and cellular function and grouping refer to which of the following characteristics of life?

a)

organization

b)

growth

c)

homeostasis

d)

reproduction

7.

Russian scientists have discovered fossil evidence of a group of “dwarf” mammoths on an island in Siberia. Carbon dating indicates that these mammoths were alive 6,000 years after other mammoth species became extinct.

• Some scientists think these “dwarf” mammoths survived because the island was isolated from humans.

• Other scientists think the milder climate on the island allowed them to survive longer.

Which term best describes these two statements?

a)

conclusions

b)

theories

c)

law

d)

hypotheses

8.

One early piece of evidence supporting the cell theory was the observation that...

a)

only plants are composed of cells

b)

only animals are composed of cells

c)

cells come from other cells

d)

animal cells come from plant cells

9.

One difference between Eukaryotic and Prokaryotic cells is that...

a)

prokaryotic cells are surrounded by a membrane

b)

prokaryotic cells have a nucleus

c)

eukaryotic cells have genetic information

d)

eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles

10.

This term refers to a direction of osmosis relating to cells.

a)

hypertonic

b)

isotonic

c)

hypotonic

d)

all choices

11.

Breaks down non-needed substances.

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

Endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Cytoskeleton

d)

Lysosomes

12.

Internal structures of a cell.

a)

cell wall

b)

isotonic

c)

cilia

d)

organelles

13.

The nucleus, mitochondria, & ______________ are all cell organelles that store DNA.

a)

chloroplasts

b)

vacuole

c)

ribosomes

d)

lysosomes

14.

Simple sugars are also known as...

a)

disaccharides

b)

polysaccharides

c)

dipeptides

d)

polypeptides

15.

Cholesterol and testosterone are examples of this type of lipid.

a)

wax

b)

steroid

c)

fat

d)

oil

16.

These are proteins that help control chemical reactions.

a)

enzymes

b)

dipeptides

c)

polypeptides

d)

isomers

17.

This nucleic acid stores information for manufacturing proteins.

a)

DNA

b)

Nucleotide

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

RNA

18.

Before energy can be used by a cell, the energy in the chemical bonds of sugar must be stored in which of the following?

a)

CO2

b)

H2O

c)

DNA

d)

ATP

19.

Which organic molecule is a polymer of amino acids?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

lipids

d)

nucleic acids

20.

Rod shaped structures made of DNA & Proteins connected by a centromere...

a)

Gametes

b)

Histones

c)

Chromosomes

d)

Karyotypes

21.

A haploid cell is created from the process of

a)

Prophase

b)

Binary Fission

c)

Meiosis

d)

Mitosis

22.

Two gametes join to form a (n)

a)

Zygote

b)

Cleavage Furrow

c)

Egg

d)

Chromatid

23.

Chromatids that are similar in size and shape and carry the same traits are

a)

Chromosome pairs

b)

Heterologous pairs

c)

DNA strands

d)

Homologous pairs

24.

Mitosis is a series of cell divisions during which this divides...

a)

Nucleus

b)

Organelles

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Parent cell

25.

This is the longest phase of the cell cycle.

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Anaphase

c)

Interphase

d)

Telophase

26.

During this phase of Mitosis, chromosomes move along the center of the cell.

a)

Prophase

b)

Telophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Metaphase

27.

The parts of DNA that provide the code for proteins are the-

a)

Nitrogenous bases

b)

Sugars

c)

Hydrogen bonds

d)

Phosphates

28.

If the sequence of nucleotides in one chain of a DNA molecule is C-C-T-A-G-G, a new nucleotide chain will be produced during replication with the complementary sequence-

a)

G-G-C-T-A-A

b)

T-T-C-G-A-A

c)

G-G-A-T-C-C

d)

C-C-T-A-G-G

29.

This is a single uncoiled chain of nucleic acid, and carries the genetic information from DNA in the nucleus to the cytosol.

a)

mRNA

b)

DNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

30.

Adenine & Thymine are…

a)

Purines

b)

Pyrimidines

c)

Nucleotides

d)

Complementary base pairs

31.

To determine the genotype of an individual that shows the dominant phenotype, you would cross that individual with one that is-

a)

heterozygous dominant

b)

heterozygous recessive

c)

homozygous dominant

d)

homozygous recessive

32.

The appearance of an organism is its

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

c)

genotype ratio

d)

phenotype ratio

33.

In the 1860s, Mendel conducted experiments that established

a)

bloodline theory

b)

the blending hypothesis

c)

codominance theory

d)

modern genetics

34.

In guinea pigs, black fur is dominant. A black guinea pig is crossed with a white guinea pig. If the litter contains a white offspring, the genotype of the black haired parent is probably

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

heterozygous

c)

homozygous recessive

d)

None of the above

35.

In incomplete dominance, the alleles are,

a)

not shown

b)

blended together

c)

expressed independently

d)

dominant

36.

In pea plants, the allele for round seeds (R) is dominant to the allele for wrinkled seeds (r).

What are the predicted results for a cross between two heterozygous plants?

a)

one phenotype and one genotype

b)

one phenotype and two genotypes

c)

two phenotypes and two genotypes

d)

two phenotypes and three genotypes

37.

A mutation that occurs in an organism’s gametes is known as-

a)

pedigree

b)

translocation

c)

X-linked

d)

germ-cell

38.

When a chromosome piece breaks off and reattaches to another, nonhomologous chromosome it is known as-

a)

deletion

b)

translocation

c)

nondisjunction

d)

sex-linkage

39.

A trait that is controlled by two or more genes is-

a)

polygenic

b)

unigenic

c)

carrier

d)

sex-linked

40.

Which of the following would affect an animal’s future offspring?

a)

toxic chemicals that cause a mutation in the animal’s skin cells

b)

gamma radiation that causes a mutation in the animal’s liver cells

c)

x-rays that cause a mutation in the animal’s nerve cells

d)

nuclear radiation that causes a mutation in the animal’s sperm cells

41.

Why does a frame-shift mutation often have more serious consequences than a point substitution?

a)

Point substitutions can be corrected by enzymes

b)

Frame-shift mutations may cause the resulting protein to be completely altered

c)

Point substitutions are less random than frame-shift mutations.

d)

Frame-shift mutations are more common than point substitutions at the beginning of a gene

42.

A random mutation that alters a gene is passed to a newborn. Which of the following will be directly affected as a result of this mutation?

a)

the function of lipids

b)

the production of proteins

c)

the number of nucleic acids

d)

the structure of carbohydrates

43.

The one characteristic that classifies organisms as prokaryotes, (bacteria), is that they:

a)

mutate

b)

cause disease

c)

are eukaryotic

d)

lack a cell nucleus

44.

Both bacteria and viruses have

a)

nucleic acids

b)

cell membranes

c)

mitochondria

d)

ribosomes

45.

Embryonic stem cells eventually differentiate into many types of cells. This differentiation of embryonic cells is mostly determined by

a)

gene mapping

b)

gene expression

c)

DNA replication

d)

DNA fingerprinting