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Phleb Chapter 14

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The normal daily fluctuations in body chemistry related to hormonal cycles, sleep-wake cycles, and other regular patterns of change are known as:

a)

Therapeutic drug monitoring

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Diurnal variation

d)

Septicemia

2.

By definition, the basal state of the body is the body' state after abstention from exercise and fasting for _____ hours.

a)

6

b)

12

c)

20

d)

24

3.

All of the following factors influence blood composition, except:

a)

Age

b)

Stress

c)

Diet

d)

Height

4.

The phlebotomist must check the fasting status of the patient before performing the venipuncture. Which of the following substances is not prohibited during a fasting period?

a)

Caffeine

b)

Water

c)

Nicotine

d)

Glucose

5.

Which of the following ordered tests is usually drawn as a timed specimen?

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Triglycerides

c)

Digoxin

d)

CBC

6.

Which of the following tests are used to test for diabetes mellitus?

a)

2-hour postprandial test

b)

Epinephrine tolerance test

c)

Lactose tolerance test

d)

Glucagon tolerance test

7.

An abnormally elevated blood sugar is found in which of the following condition(s)?

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Hyperlipidemia

d)

Hyperhidrosis

8.

Which of the following tests is used to diagnose hypoglycemia?

a)

Glycohemoglobin

b)

3-hour OGTT

c)

5-hour OGTT

d)

Epinephrine tolerance test

9.

When testing a 2-hour postprandial sample for glucose, the patient who is diabetic would have a glucose level that is:

a)

Higher than normal reference range

b)

Lower than normal reference range

c)

Identical to normal reference range

d)

Identical to the baseline sample value

10.

How long must a patient fast before beginning an oral glucose tolerance test?

a)

2 hours

b)

6 hours

c)

10 hours

d)

12 hours

11.

The body’s state after 12 hours of fasting and abstention from strenuous exercise.

a)

Aerobic bacteria

b)

Basal state

c)

Blood culture

d)

Diurnal variation

12.

The time for half the ingested amount of drug to be metabolized.

a)

Half-life

b)

Peak level

c)

Sepsis

d)

Trough level

13.

Sticking together.

a)

Anaerobic bacteria

b)

Bacteremia

c)

Agglutination

d)

Cryofibrinogen

14.

Test for the presence of microorganisms in the blood.

a)

Blood culture

b)

Cold agglutinins

c)

Differential count

d)

Fasting specimen

15.

Specimen drawn after a 12 hour complete fast.

a)

Blood culture

b)

Feathered edge

c)

Gestational diabetes

d)

Fasting specimen

16.

Excess iron in the blood.

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Hemochromatosis

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Polycythemia

17.

Excessive production of red blood cells.

a)

Hemochromatosis

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Peak level

d)

Polycythemia

18.

Lowest serum level of a drug.

a)

Trough level

b)

Chain of custody

c)

Cryoglobulin

d)

Fever of unknown origin

19.

Bacteria that live without oxygen.

a)

Aerobic bacteria

b)

Anaerobic bacteria

c)

Bacteremia

d)

Glucagon tolerance test

20.

Test for diabetes mellitus.

a)

Sepsis

b)

2 hour postprandial test

c)

Oral glucose tolerance test

d)

Lactose tolerance test

21.

Which of the following must a blood donor provide on his or her registration?

a)

Name

b)

Address

c)

Date of birth

d)

All of the above

22.

The phlebotomist will be performing blood donor draws at the local university and will be involved with screening the potential donors. Which of the following is NOT a reason for donor rejection during blood donor collection procedures?

a)

Exposure to HIV

b)

Exposure to hepatitis

c)

Race/ethnicity

d)

Drug consumption

23.

The blood donor is screened for hemoglobin levels using this solution __________

a)

Copper sulfate

b)

Copper oxalate

c)

Sodium sulfate

d)

Sodium oxalate

24.

A first-time blood donor wants to know how much blood will be taken during the procedure. The phlebotomist states that the average volume of a "unit" of blood is:

a)

250 mL

b)

350 mL

c)

450 mL

d)

550 mL

25.

The minimum gauge needle used for collection of blood for blood donation is ________ in size.

a)

22 gauge

b)

21 gauge

c)

20 gauge

d)

18 gauge

26.

The donation of blood by a patient for his or her own use at a later time is known as:

a)

Directed donation

b)

Therapeutic phlebotomy

c)

Autologous donation

d)

None of the above

27.

You have a patient with polycythemia vera who comes in on a regular basis to have blood drawn. The removal of blood from a patient's system to aid in treatment of a particular disorder is known as:

a)

Directed donation

b)

Therapeutic phlebotomy

c)

Autologous donation

d)

None of the above

28.

The phlebotomist has just completed the collection of a specimen for cold agglutinins. What special collection and/or transport measures must be taken by the phlebotomist after collection of this sample?

a)

The specimen must be protected from light

b)

The specimen must be transported on ice

c)

The specimen must be collected in a prewarmed tube

d)

The specimen must be collected in a heparinized syringe

29.

which of the following specimen collections does not require the collection of the sample in a prewarmed tube?

a)

Cryoglobulin

b)

Sedimentation rate

c)

Cold agglutinins

d)

Cryofibrinogen

30.

Which of the following sample collections does NOT require transportation of the sample to the laboratory in a chilled environment?

a)

Ammonia

b)

Vitamin A

c)

Gastrin

d)

Parathyroid hormone

31.

The phlebotomist has just collected a specimen that needs to be protected from light during transportation to the laboratory. Which of the following specimens did the phlebotomist collect?

a)

Alkaline phosphatase

b)

Lactate dehydrogenase

c)

Beta-carotene

d)

Triglycerides

32.

Which of the following specimens is NOT a time-sensitive specimen collection and does not need to be delivered to the lab immediately?

a)

Ammonia

b)

Glucagon

c)

Lactate

d)

Aldolase

33.

Which of the following sample is NOT collected for use as evidence in a legal proceeding?

a)

Alcohol

b)

DNA analysis

c)

PKU testing

d)

Drug testing

34.

The phlebotomist is called to the ER to pick up forensic specimens for a sexual assault. The most important concept the phlebotomist must adhere to in handling forensic specimens is proper:

a)

Specimen volume

b)

Specimen transportation

c)

Chain of custody

d)

Temperature of specimen

35.

Collection of specimens for blood alcohol should be obtained using any of the following antiseptics, EXCEPT:

a)

Soap and water

b)

Iodine

c)

Cyclohexadiene

d)

Alcohol

36.

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the collection of blood alcohol specimens?

a)

The site must not be cleaned with alcohol

b)

The patient must recline during blood collection

c)

Tubes must be filled as full as the vacuum tube will allow

d)

Specimen should remain capped until testing

37.

Which of the following cells is NOT found on a normal peripheral blood smear?

a)

White blood cells

b)

Red blood cells

c)

Platelets

d)

Mast cells

38.

Which of the following criteria is evaluated to determine if a peripheral blood smear is of adequate quality?

a)

The slide has a feathered edge

b)

The slide has no holes

c)

The slide has no streaks

d)

All of the above

39.

When making a smear for examination for malaria, the phlebotomist should prepare which of the following?

a)

Three normal and one thick blood smear

b)

One normal and one thick blood smear

c)

Three wedge and one thick blood smear

d)

Two wet mounts and two normal blood smears

40.

When should the phlebotomist draw a specimen for examination for malaria?

a)

On the patient's arrival at the facility

b)

just before the patient's febrile episode

c)

72 hours after onset of symptoms

d)

After chills and shaking subside

41.

during glucose tolerance testing, the patient must be instructed to drink the glucose solution with _____ minutes?

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

d)

20

42.

your GTT pt has just vomited in the waiting room not more than 20 minutes after ingesting the glucose solution. How should you proceed?

a)

stop the test, document, send pt home

b)

give pt another dose

c)

continue the test but document the time the pt vomited

d)

call the MD to see if the test should be continued or rescheduled

43.

to maintain constant drug levels & make sure a drug dose does not reach toxic levels in a pt, you may be called to perform blood collection for...

a)

lipid monitoring

b)

therapeutic drug monitoring

c)

drug screening

d)

toxicology

44.

A blood infection by a pathogenic microorganism is known as...

a)

septic shock

b)

septicemia

c)

bacteremia

d)

fever of unknown origin

45.

The optimal collection time for retrieval of a bacterial sample in the bloodstream is...

a)

morning when temp is normal

b)

evening when temp is elevated

c)

just before temp spike

d)

after medication to reduce the fever

46.

the level of a drug that is drawn 30 minutes before the administration of the next dose is known as the...

a)

peak level

b)

trough level

c)

therapeutic level

d)

none of the above

47.

blood cultures are drawn at timed intervals from multiple sites for all the following reasons, EXCEPT...

a)

increase the likelihood of retrieving pathogens

b)

decrease number of false positive tests

c)

retrieve different organisms colonizing various vessels

d)

verify presence of known contanminant

48.

when collecting blood cultures and using butterfly needle, which sample is drawn FIRST?

a)

anaerobic bottle

b)

aerobic bottle

c)

anticoagulated tube

d)

SST Tube

49.

all of the following antiseptic solutions are acceptable when preparing a venipuncture site for blood cultures EXCEPT..

a)

alcohol & povidone-iodine

b)

povidone-iodine

c)

isopropyl alcohol

d)

soap & water

50.

which of the following organizations regulates & safeguards the collection procedures for blood donor collections?

a)

US Food & Drug Administration

b)

Drug Enforcement Agency

c)

Centers for Disease Contol

d)

Occupational Health & Safety Adminstration