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8th grade Mixed Review

Total questions: 170

Worksheet time: 4hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many covalent bonds can a carbon atom make?

a)

two

b)

four

c)

six

d)

eight

2.

Anything that has mass and takes up space is called

a)

matter

b)

energy

c)

heterogeneous

d)

homogeneous

3.

Which is the correct set of acid properties, as described by Boyle:

a)

sour taste, corrosive, change litmus from red to blue

b)

sweet taste, slippery, change litmus from blue to red

c)

sour taste, slippery, change litmus from blue to red

d)

sour taste, corrosive, change litmus from blue to red sour taste, corrosive, change litmus from blue to red

4.

Substances that CANNOT be broken down chemically into other substances are

a)

elements

b)

compounds

c)

mixtures

d)

solutions

5.

One example of a chemical change is

a)

filtering

b)

burning wood

c)

boiling water

d)

crushing a can

6.

Earth is kept in orbit around the sun by

a)

its speed and distance from the sun.

b)

inertia and gravity.

c)

its shape and size.

d)

electricity and magnetism.

7.

Does a hollow ball with a density of 1.67 g/ml float or sink when placed in water

a)

float

b)

sink

8.

Andrea is standing at an intersection. She quickly determines the velocity of the cars on the street and decides she can cross safely. Why is her estimation of velocity more helpful than knowing the speed of the cars?

a)

Velocity is a vector

b)

Velocity is a scalar

c)

Velocity is an octet

d)

Velocity is scalene

9.

In the following graphs, the slope represents which characteristic of motion?

a)

acceleration

b)

kinetic energy

c)

speed

d)

momentum

10.

We learned of three things that are conserved. What are they

a)

work, energy and power

b)

mass, energy and momentum

c)

mass, momentum and relativity

d)

pressure, acceleration and mass

11.

If you reject the hypothesis, it means you did your experiment wrong.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

This object would move

a)

to the left

b)

to the right

c)

up

d)

down

13.

Does the following equation comply with the law of Conservation of Mass?

a)

Yes, the number of reactant molecules is equal to the number of product molecules

b)

Yes, the number of reactant atoms is equal to the number of product atoms

c)

No, the number of reactant molecules is not equal to the number of product molecules

d)

No, the number of reactant atoms is not equal to the number of product atoms

14.

What is an astronomical unit (A.U.)?

a)

the distance between the Earth and center of the galaxy

b)

the distance between the asteroid belt and the Sun

c)

a really big unit

d)

the average distance between the Earth and the Sun

15.

Which of the following methods is used to separate the colors in food dyes?

a)

evaporation

b)

sieving

c)

chromatography

d)

decanting

16.

If you heat a liquid and measure the temperature at which it boils, you are measuring a(n)

a)

atomic property

b)

physical property

c)

chemical property

d)

molecular property

17.

The building blocks of proteins are called

a)

fatty acids

b)

simple sugars

c)

aminoacids

d)

nucleic acids

18.

According to Newton, when a hammer strikes and exerts force on a nail, the nail

a)

creates a friction with the hammer.

b)

disappears into the wood.

c)

exerts an equal force back on the hammer.

d)

moves at a constant speed. moves at a constant speed.

19.

In an experiment where you change only the temperature, the temperature is the

a)

responding variable

b)

manipulated variable

c)

hypothesis

d)

controlled parameter controlled parameter

20.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a physical change

a)

gasoline burning

b)

dissolving salt

c)

crushing a can

d)

boiling water boiling water

21.

What is conventionally considered the smallest possible piece of matter?

a)

element

b)

atom

c)

molecule

d)

mixture

22.

Two ways to increase acceleration of an object are

a)

increase force and increase mass

b)

decrease mass and decrease force

c)

decrease force and increase mass

d)

increase force and decrease mass

23.

What is a simple way to summarize Newton's 2nd law?

a)

density = mass/volume

b)

force = mass x acceleration

c)

what goes around comes around

d)

volume = length x width x height

24.
In a transverse wave, particles move...?
a)
back and forth
b)
vertically
c)
up and down
d)
wherever the matter's going
25.
What kind of wave can travel through space?
a)
electromagnetic waves
b)
compressional waves
c)
transverse waves
d)
longitudinal waves
26.
A wave carries...?
a)
energy only
b)
matter only
c)
the matter carries the energy
d)
neither
27.
What is the measure of how many waves pass a point in a certain amount of time?
a)
frequency
b)
wavelength
c)
midpoint
d)
crest and trough
28.
This graph shows
a)
An object stopped
b)
An object slowing down
c)
An object speeding up
d)
An object moving at constant speed
29.
Speed is different from velocity because
a)
Velocity has a direction
b)
Speed uses Distance /Time
c)
Velocity doesn't include time
d)
Velocity doesn't include distance
30.
This graph shows 
a)
An object stopped
b)
An object speeding up
c)
An object slowing down
d)
An object moving at constant speed
31.
The rate at which velocity changes is known as __________
a)
acceleration
b)
net force
c)
speed
d)
velocity
32.
Janet drives her car, which changes speed every second. Her car is therefore __________
a)
accelerating
b)
constant
33.

Which of the following occurs as a result of convection currents?

a)

Tectonic plates on the crust move.

b)

The mantle increases in size.

c)

Pressure in the crust increases.

d)

Pressure in the crust decreases.

34.

Wegner used all of the following pieces of evidence in his theory of plate tectonics, EXCEPT?

a)

Continents and fossils fitting together/matching-up like puzzle pieces

b)

glacier scars and other climate evidence from temperature

c)

mountain ranges and rocks lining up across continents

d)

distribution of tortoises on the Galapagos islands

35.

When a piece of cork is cut in half its density

a)

is cut in half, too.

b)

doubles

c)

quadruples

d)

remains the same remains the same

36.
Which type of rock results from melting and cooling of magma?
a)
Igneous
b)
Metamorphic
c)
Sedimentary
d)
Extrusive
37.
Wind, water, and ice breaking down rock is called
a)
Erosion
b)
Deposition
c)
Compaction
d)
Weathering
38.
Sediment being moved from one area to another is called
a)
erosion
b)
deposition
c)
weathering
d)
compaction
39.
What does heterozygous mean?
a)
An organism that has the same genes for a trait (TT or tt)
b)
An organism that has different genes for a trait (Tt)
c)
When neither gene is fully dominant; offspring is a mixture of both
d)
the different forms of a trait (hair color--> brown, blonde, red
40.
If T=Tall & t=short, what is the genotypic ratio?
a)
1:3
b)
3:1
c)
1:2:1
d)
2:2
41.

If you wrap more coils around an electromagnet, it will become...

a)

brighter

b)

stronger

c)

weaker

d)

invisible

42.
What will happen when these magnets are brought close together?
a)
They will attract each other.
b)
They will repel each other.
c)
Both magnets will turn to the left
d)
Both magnets will turn to the right
43.
Where is the strongest attraction force of the magnet?
a)
at the poles
b)
in the middle
c)
above the magnet
d)
below the magnet
44.
The smallest units or parts of living things; the body's building blocks.
a)
cells
b)
organs
c)
tissues
d)
system
45.
Where does digestion start?
a)
stomach
b)
mouth
c)
esophagus
46.
All cells need energy to function.  Which cell organelle is responsible for producing energy in the cell?
a)
chloroplasts
b)
mitochondria
c)
nucleus
d)
vacuoles
47.

Which of the following is NOT a statement found in cell theory.

a)

All living things are composed of cells

b)

All cells come from pre-existing cells

c)

Cells are the basic unit of structure and function of all living things

d)

Cells are able to function in different environments

48.

Element that is a waste product of photosynthesis and can rust metals.

a)

H2O

b)

O (oxygen)

c)

C (carbon)

d)

CO2

49.

Look at the diagram.

If these organisms were arranged in a food pyramid, which organism would have the least amount of total energy available?

a)

coyote

b)

lizard

c)

insect

d)

frog

50.

Look at the diagram.

Which population would increase most if the insects were eliminated?

a)

decomposers

b)

producers

c)

primary consumers

d)

secondary consumers

51.

Which of the following populations begins the flow of energy through the food web?

a)

coyotes

b)

insects

c)

lizards

d)

shrubs

52.

A community in which barn owls and snakes consume only mice is being observed. If the number of snakes increases, which of the following is most likely to happen first?

a)

The barn owl population will increase.

b)

The mouse population will decrease.

c)

The barn owl population will decrease.

d)

The mouse population will remain the same.

53.

Which of the following explains why producers are always found at the beginning of a food chain?

a)

Consumers are eaten by a variety of producers.

b)

Producers convert light energy into chemical energy.

c)

Producers are larger than consumers.

d)

Producers are found in fewer numbers than consumers.

54.
All energy on Earth ultimately comes from what source?
a)
Water
b)
Sun
c)
Consumers
d)
Oxygen
55.
The arrows in a food chain or web represents what?
a)
They point to the organism that is being eaten.
b)
It shows how sunlight flows within an ecosystem.
c)
They show what direction the energy is flowing between organisms. 
d)
They represent how water is transferred within a habitat.
56.
Why is there a limited amount of energy that can be passed on to the next feeding level?
a)
There is never enough sunlight available. 
b)
Some ecosystems have limited resources. 
c)
Organisms use some of the energy they get from eating.
d)
All the energy is available to be passed on. 
57.
What may happen if the snowshoe hare was removed from the food web pictured?
a)
The insects in the habitat would increase.
b)
The shrew population would decrease due to being only hawk food source.
c)
The willow tree population would decrease.
d)
Foxes would dies due to no food source. 
58.
Which organism do the owl and the weasel compete for in the food web?
a)
Hawk
b)
Spider
c)
Grasshopper
d)
Shrew
59.

How can you decide if an object is in motion?

a)

if its speed increases

b)

if its distance from another object is changing

c)

if its direction changes

d)

if its velocity increases

60.

A place or object used for comparison to determine if something is in motion is a ......

a)

unit of measurment

b)

parameter

c)

constant

d)

reference point

61.

After 1.5 seconds, the squirrel has traveled approximately...

a)

2 meters

b)

3 meters

c)

3.9 meters

d)

4 meters

62.

On a graph showing motion, what information is plotted on the x-axis?

a)

distance

b)

time

c)

rate

d)

direction

63.

A change in velocity can involve ......

a)

a change in speed

b)

a change in direction

c)

a change in acceleration

d)

a change in distance

64.
D-Lo watches a red buggy car, which is his favorite activity. He watches the car cover 2 meters every second. Which graph would represent this?
a)
A (upper left)
b)
B (bottom left)
c)
C (upper right)
d)
D (bottom right)
65.
Which graph shows an object not moving?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
66.
Which graph shows an object increasing speed?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
D
d)
E
67.
Which graph shows an object going back to the start position?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
68.
Morgan walks 10 miles South. Trevor walks 10 miles North in the same amount of time.  They have:
a)
Different average speeds
b)
Different velocities
c)
Same velocity
d)
Same motion
69.
How many variables should be changed in an experiment?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
doesn't matter
70.
A car is driven for 3 hours. What else do you need to know to describe this car’s speed?
a)
the road the car in driven on
b)
the time of day
c)
the distance the car is driven
d)
the number of passengers in the car
71.
Two cars are in motion for the same amount of time. What will determine which car covers more distance?
a)
the starting position of the each car
b)
the speed of each car
c)
the direction in which each car moves
d)
the length of the car
72.
The position of a runner in a race changes as time passes. What could a reference point to describe the change in position? 
a)
the starting line
b)
the runner’s speed
c)
the runner’s right foot
d)
another runner
73.
When two equal and opposite forces are at work, what happens to motion?
a)
It increases
b)
It decreases.
c)
There is no motion.
d)
There is maximum friction.
74.
What is the speed of a runner who runs 400 meters in 40 seconds? (speed = distance ÷ time)
a)
10 meters/second
b)
40 meters/second
c)
100 meters/second
d)
1,600 meters/second
75.

What is a force?

a)

How much something weighs

b)

How much matter something has

c)

A push or a pull on an object

d)

How massive something is

76.

Which is not one of the Laws of Motion?

a)

Objects only on move when something pushes or pulls them. They keep moving until something stops them.

b)

Objects can move freely

c)

The harder an object is pushed or pulled the faster it goes

d)

The more massive and object is to start or stop

77.

What is Gravity?

a)

A force that pulls things to Earth

b)

A strong pull on metals

c)

The rubbing together of matter

d)

When matter bumps against each other

78.

What is matter?

a)

How much something weighs

b)

How something changes

c)

How much space something takes up

d)

How something looks

79.

What is mass?

a)

How much space something takes up

b)

How big something is

c)

How small something is

d)

The amount of matter in an object.

80.

Ms. Miller and Ms. Watson are exercising. Ms. Miller has a tennis ball, and Ms. Watson a soccer ball. They each kick their ball with the same amount of force. Ms. Miller's tennis ball travels 5 feet. Ms. Watson's soccer ball travels 2 feet. Which law of motion explains why?

a)

Objects only move when something pushes or pulls them

b)

The harder an object is pushed or pulled, the faster it goes

c)

The more massive an object is, the harder it is to move.

d)

Objects tend to move until something stops them.

81.

Adam makes a paper air plane. He throws it across the room. It glides through the air and then falls to the ground. What force caused the paper airplane to fall?

a)

gravity

b)

push

c)

friction

d)

magnetism

82.

A soccer ball is rolling across the grass. It begins to slow down. Then it stops. What force caused the motion to stop?

a)

push

b)

pull

c)

gravity

d)

friction

83.
During which interval is the object not moving?
a)
B to C
b)
C to D
c)
D to E
d)
only at point A
84.
During which interval is the object traveling at a constant velocity?
a)
B to C
b)
D to E
c)
F to G
d)
it traveling at a constant velocity during all of the intervals shown.
85.
Which runner stopped for a rest?
a)
Albert
b)
Bob
c)
Charlie
86.
How long did it take this object to travel back to its reference/starting point?
a)
20 s
b)
30 s
c)
60 s
d)
100 s
87.
Which layer formed first?
a)
Rock Layer W
b)
Rock Layer X
c)
Rock Layer Y
d)
Rock Layer Z
88.
Fossils give us evidence about which of the following?
a)
plants and animals that lived long ago
b)
how weathering and erosion break down rocks
c)
the other planets in our solar system
d)
the transfer of energy from one form  to another
89.
Finding the fossils of trees in an area that is currently a desert without much life might tell us that the area, millions of years ago - 
a)
was heavily eroded by strong winds
b)
received enough rain to support a forest
c)
suffered very powerful earthquakes
d)
was destroyed by the impact of meteorites
90.
Several wooly mammoth fossils have been found. Mammoths, which lived hundreds of thousands of years ago, were covered with thick fur.  Based on the evidence, mammoth fossils tell us that the area in which they are found - 
a)
has too many humans 
b)
no longer has large animals 
c)
was, at one time, very cold
d)
receives more rain that it used to 
91.
In which kind of rock do we usually find a fossil?
a)
sedimentary  rock
b)
metamorphic rock
c)
igneous rock
92.

The oldest fossils are found

a)

At the top of the rock layers

b)

Near the bottom of the rock layers

c)

In the middle of the rock layers

d)

Somewhat near the surface

93.

Which is more likely to form a fossil?

a)

a fish because it has bones

b)

a worm because it has skin

c)

a jellyfish because it has tentacles

d)

leaves on a tree because they are green

94.
Approximately 75 percent of the Earth's surface is covered in water. So why is water considered such a precious resource?
a)
The greenhouse effect is causing most of the world's freshwater to be trapped in the atmosphere
b)
Only a small fraction of the Earth's water is freshwater available for drinking and irrigation
c)
Each year, more freshwater is being trapped in icecaps located at the North and South Poles
d)
Global warming caused by greenhouse gas emissions will likely cause Earth's oceans to evaporate
95.
Many common products, such as wooden furniture, paper, and books, are made from trees. Which of the following is a likely consequence of humans cutting down a forest in order to make use of the natural resources there? 
a)
the decrease of chemical runoff into the oceans
b)
increased acid rain
c)
the increase of light pollution in cities
d)
the destruction of habitats
96.
What would Earth be like without the greenhouse effect?
a)
Too cold to be habitable
b)
A little cooler than it is now
c)
The same temperature as it is now
d)
A little warmer than it is now
97.

Humans often change ecosystems as a result of population growth, consumption, and technology. All of the following exemplify a way in which humans modify ecosystems except?

a)

factory and automotive emissions causing acid rain

b)

redirecting and storing freshwater behind dams

c)

cutting down trees to build new buildings and roads

d)

maintaining your body's homeostasis

98.
Which of the following is NOT an example of natural selection? 
a)
People selectively breeding hamsters.
b)
Insect populations developing resistance to certain pesticides.
c)
Bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics.
d)
Male birds of certain species developing colorful feathers to attract female mates.
99.
Which term refers to the process by which individuals that are better suited to the environment survive and reproduce therefore passing down their genes to their offspring? 
a)
Evolution 
b)
Variation 
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection 
100.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
101.
Which best describes the role of mutations in natural selection?
a)
Mutations help an organism to better survive in their environment
b)
An organism may acquire a helpful mutation by interacting with the environment
c)
A mutation may result in an adaptive trait that makes an organism more likely to survive and reproduce
d)
Organisms with certain traits are more likely to win competitions for mutations
102.
What are the reasons for the season?
a)
Earth's tilt & rotation
b)
Earth's tilt & revolution
c)
Earth's rotation & rovolution
d)
Earth's tilt & resolution
103.
What causes there to be longer number of hours of light during the summer
a)
Earth tilt's away from the sun in summer
b)
Earth's revolves slower in summer
c)
Earth tilts toward the sun in summer
d)
Earth is closer to the sun
104.
In winter, the axis of the earth is pointed away or toward the sun?
a)
towards
b)
up
c)
down
d)
away
105.
Why is it warmer in the summer?
a)
Closer to the sun
b)
More direct light from Earth's tilt
c)
Stronger light from the sun
d)
Earth spins slower
106.
Which season is taking place in the Southern Hemisphere in Position 1?
a)
Winter
b)
Spring
c)
Summer
d)
Fall
107.
Which season is taking place in the Northern Hemisphere in Position 1?
a)
Winter
b)
Spring
c)
Summer
d)
Fall
108.
Which season is taking place in the Northern Hemisphere in Position 2?
a)
Winter
b)
Spring
c)
Summer
d)
Fall
109.
If its ____ in the Northern hemisphere, then its fall in the Southern hemisphere. 
a)
spring
b)
summer
c)
fall
d)
winter
110.

All of these statements are part of cell theory, EXCEPT

a)

Cells are made up of atoms

b)

All living things are composed of cells

c)

Cells are the basic units of structure and function in living things

d)

All cells come from existing cells

111.

This organelle converts energy into forms that are usable by the cell.

a)

ribosome

b)

lysosome

c)

chloroplast

d)

mitochondria

112.

Which idea in cell theory supports the fact that each cell acts as a system (parts working together to achieve a complex task)?

a)

It states that all living things are made up of one or more cells.

b)

It states that they basic units of structure and function are cells.

c)

It states that cells come from previously existing cells.

d)

It states that all cells have a nucleus which divides.

113.

What is the basic unit of matter?

a)

cells

b)

atoms

c)

protons

d)

organelles

114.

What do greenhouse gases do in our atmosphere?

a)

They keep all the air within the Earth

b)

They block harmful radiation from reaching the Earth

c)

They absorb radiation given off by the Earth

d)

They make the Earth cooler

115.

Which of the following is the best conclusion that can be made from this graph?

a)

Atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have been decreasing since 1960

b)

Hawaii has a lot of carbon dioxide

c)

Humans have been working hard to decrease carbon dioxide levels

d)

Atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have increased steadily since 1960s.

116.

Which of the following is the best conclusion that can be made from this graph?

a)

Average temperatures change from year to year.

b)

Although global average temperatures fluctuate from year to year, the global average temperatures have increased as the levels of carbon dioxide have increased

c)

Green house gases have no relationship to global average temperatures. In the 1910s the temperature was very cold even though the concentrations of greenhouse gases were relatively high.

d)

Atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide have increased steadily since the 1850's

117.

Which of the following is the best description of the process shown in the image?

a)

Water and carbon dioxide plus light produce oxygen and glucose

b)

Water and oxygen plus light produce carbon dioxide and glucose.

c)

Water, oxygen and carbon dioxide plus light produce glucose.

d)

Glucose and oxygen plus light produce carbon dioxide and water.

118.

Which of the following models correctly identifies the relationship between photosynthesis and respiration

a)
b)
c)
d)
119.

A student is collecting the gas given off from a plant in bright sunlight at a temperature of 27°C. The gas being collected is probably ________.

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

ATP

c)

oxygen

d)

glucose

120.

The passing down of traits from parent to offspring is called ...

a)

environmental traits

b)

heredity

c)

behavioral traits

d)

adaptations

121.

If the body cells of an organism have 12 chromosomes, how many chromosomes do the sex cells have?

a)

36

b)

24

c)

12

d)

6

122.

What does a Punnett square show?

a)

Only the dominant alleles in a genetic cross

b)

All the possible outcomes of a genetic cross

c)

Only the recessive alleles in a genetic cross

d)

All of Mendel’s discoveries about genetic crosses

123.

Organisms that DO NOT reproduce sexually (asexual reproduction) create identical copies of themselves (clones). Which of the following diagrams would best illustrate this concept.

a)
b)
124.

In the cross between a homozygous dominant female and a homozygous recessive male (illustrated in the Punnett square), what is the probability that the offspring will show the recessive trait?

a)

75%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

0

125.

A decrease in the frog population would MOST likely lead to an increase in the population of which organisms?

a)

grasshopers

b)

snakes

c)

owls

d)

grass

126.

To reduce erosion in an area, an exotic fast-growing vine is introduced into the area without any growth control. How will the new plant most likely have an effect on the ecosystem?

a)

The vine will compete with native plants for resources

b)

The vine will provide protection for the native plants

c)

The vine will compete with native plants for resources

d)

The vine will compete with native animals for food, water, and minerals

127.

Which of these best explains why predators need plants, such as grass, in their ecosystems?

a)

Plants are a large part of their diet.

b)

Plants provide food for the animals that the predators eat.

c)

Plants provide safety for the predators.

d)

Plants break down the organisms that the predators eat.

128.

Which of the following models would be best to use when explaining how matter is conserved in the geosphere?

a)
b)
c)
d)
129.

According to the rock cycle, which of the following transitions are possible? Assume an unlimited number of steps. Check all that apply.

a)

An igneous rock becomes a sedimentary rock.

b)

A sedimentary rock becomes soil.

c)

A metamorphic rock becomes an igneous rock.

d)

Magma becomes sedimentary rock

130.

According to the theory of continental drift, why do the coastlines of Africa and South America appear to fit together so well?

a)

Africa and South America are drifting towards each other and will soon fit together perfectly.

b)

Ocean currents on either side of the Atlantic have eroded the coastlines into the same shape.

c)

Africa and South America used to be joined together, but split apart long ago.

d)

The theory does not explain why the coastlines seem to match.

131.

All of the following lines of evidence support the idea that all the continents were once joined together, EXCEPT

a)

Mountains created by colliding continents.

b)

Evidence of glaciers in unexpected places.

c)

Similar looking animals and plants can be found in almost every continent today.

d)

Similar rocks found on different continents.

e)

Fossil evidence and the fit of the continents

132.

In a closed system, what will weigh more when a chemical change is complete? The reactants before the chemical reaction, or the product after the reaction is complete?

a)

They both will weigh the same

b)

The reactants will weigh more than the products

c)

The products always weigh more than the reactants

d)

They both will loose mass after the reaction

133.

Students are performing an experiment in class where they combine 20 grams of a colorless liquid with 10 grams of a second colorless liquid. The reaction that occurs creates a white insoluble powder that settles at the bottom of the beaker. If no gas was produced, what is the expected weight of the powder AND any remaining liquid?

a)

10 grams

b)

20 grams

c)

30 grams

d)

40 grams

134.

A student asks why the ashes from a fire have a much lower mass than the wood that was burned. Which is the correct answer to the student’s question?

a)

Water in the wood reacts with the fire causing it to condense into ashes

b)

Heat causes molecules to lose mass

c)

Atoms in the wood are destroyed during the fire

d)

Matter from the wood is released into the air in the form of gases

135.

Which pair of elements will probably NOT share properties?

a)

Li and K

b)

K and Fr

c)

K and Ca

d)

Ca and Be

136.

According the law of conservation of matter, you might have a carbon atom in you that came from a dinosaur. How is this possible?

a)

the carbon became energy which you used later

b)

the carbon changed forms many times though physical and chemical changes but was never destroyed

c)

you probably ate a piece of fossil dinosaur directly

d)

It's not possible. Carbon is created "fresh" in plants as part of sugar

137.

Which of the following statements is supported by this graph?

a)

The hydrosphere is heating up at a much more rapid pace than the atmosphere and the geosphere

b)

Ocean heating is caused by an increase in carbon emissions

c)

Sea levels are going up as climate warms. This puts towns and cities near the ocean at risk of flooding

d)

There has been a decrease in snow cover because the ice caps are melting

138.

Look at the diagram below representing layers of rocks and the fossils buried in them in four different locations. Which layer would be the OLDEST?

a)

layer A

b)

layer B

c)

layer C

d)

layer D

139.

Look at the diagram below representing layers of rocks and the fossils buried in them in four different locations. What is the most logical explanation for the absence of layers B, C and D at location 3

a)

Those three layers never formed because the conditions were not conducive for supporting life.

b)

At some point in the past the three missing layers were weathered and eroded away.

c)

The person that drew the image became tired and decided not to draw them.

d)

The three missing layers suffered a catastrophic failure and evaporated into the atmosphere.

140.

Which of the following questions can be answered by studying these fossil layers?

a)

What did the fish eat?

b)

Why did dinosaurs become extinct?

c)

Which organisms lived before/after/or at the same time?

d)

Are reptiles the ancestors to birds or fish?

141.

The diagram illustrates an embryonic stage of two organisms. Which of the following can be determined by observing the embryos shown in the diagram?

a)

The organisms are native to the same geographic areas.

b)

The organisms share a common ancestry.

c)

The organisms adapted to similar environments.

d)

The organisms will grow into anatomically similar adults.

142.

How does the theory of plate tectonics support the theory of evolution?

a)

Plate tectonics does not help support the theory of evolution.

b)

Plate tectonics provides an explanation for how the plates move and transport fossils across oceans or to the tops of mountains.

c)

Plate tectonics provides an explanation for the existence of homologous structures in organisms that live in close geographical locations.

d)

Plate tectonics provides an explanation for the existence of similar species on opposite sides of impassible geographic barriers, such as oceans.

143.

Gravitational potential energy depends on the ________ and ________ of the object.

a)

mass and movement

b)

height and mass

c)

height and friction

d)

friction and movement

144.

How much potential energy is at the top of a hill on a roller coaster ride?

a)

0%

b)

20%

c)

50%

d)

100%

145.

When a pendulum swings, at which point is kinetic energy highest?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

146.

A car is travelling at a constant speed. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

The forces acting on the car are a causing it to change shape

b)

The forces acting on the car are unbalanced

c)

The direction of the net force is forward

d)

The forces acting on the car are balanced

147.

Suppose two carts, one twice as massive as the other, fly apart when the compressed spring that joins them is released. How fast does the heavier cart roll compared with the lighter cart?

a)

half as fast

b)

twice as fast

c)

the same

d)

Newton's 3rd Law

148.

You push on a tree with 20 N of force. If the tree doesn't move, the tree is pushing back on you with _____of force.

a)

0 N

b)

10 N

c)

20 N

d)

40 N

149.

When the frequency of a wave increases, what happens to the wavelength?

a)

The wavelength increases.

b)

The wavelength decreases.

c)

The wavelength is not directly affected by the frequency of a wave.

d)

More specific information is needed to form a conclusion about the wavelength.

150.

Which of the following can sound travel through?

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

d)

a vacuum (empty space)

151.
What is force?
a)
A push exerted on an object
b)
A push or pull exerted on an object
c)
A pull exerted on an object
d)
Nothing
152.
What is the net force?
a)
5000 N right
b)
4000 N right
c)
40 N left
d)
4000 N left
153.
Which of the following is an example of a contact force?
a)
A magnet picking up safety pins
b)
The moon orbiting Earth
c)
Wind blowing leaves across the yard
154.
Which statement is true about magnetic forces?
a)
Distance does not affect the strength of the force field
b)
The charge of the magnet affects the strength of the force field.
c)
There is an east pole and west pole to every magnet
d)
Distance and the strength of the magnet affect the strength of the force field
155.
Which is a factor that affects the strength of gravitational, magnetic, and electrostatic force fields?
a)
Mass
b)
Volume
c)
Distance
d)
Density
156.
Which planet has the strongest gravitational pull towards the Sun?
a)
Jupiter
b)
Neptune
c)
Mercury
d)
Earth
157.
Distance and mass are two factors that affect
a)
Gravitational Force Fields
b)
Magnetic Force Fields
c)
Electric Force Fields
d)
Electrostatic Force Fields
158.
Which is the correct diagram?
a)
Left Boat
b)
Right Boat
159.
This is a picture of a simple electromagnet. How can the electromagnet be made stronger?
a)
Add more coils of wire to the nail.
b)
Use a smaller battery.
c)
Reverse the poles of the magnet.
d)
Remove all the coils and the nail.
160.

Sound will travel slowest through which of the following forms of matter?

a)

milk

b)

desk

c)

air

d)

door

161.

Sound travels FASTEST through which of these materials?

a)

Air

b)

Empty space

c)

Metal

d)

Water

162.

Sound is caused by?

a)

force

b)

vibrations

c)

instruments

d)

medium

163.

Why is sound able to travel faster through a solid than a gas?

a)

Gas molecules are packed tightly.

b)

Sound does not travel faster through a solid than a gas.

c)

Solid molecules are packed tightly.

d)

Gas molecules move slowly.

164.

Which of the following is NOT a mechanical wave?

a)

sound

b)

light

c)

ocean

d)

seismic

165.

What kind of waves can travel through space?

a)

electromagnetic waves

b)

compressional waves

c)

longitudinal waves

d)

sound waves

166.

Amplitude is a measure of how much _________ the wave is carrying

a)

medium

b)

matter

c)

energy

d)

frequency

167.

You can't hear sounds in outer space because there is no

a)

matter

b)

energy

c)

light

d)

heat

168.

Your best course of action for a speedy rescue when trapped underground is to ...

a)

Yell at the top of your lungs.

b)

Hit the walls, preferably with something metal. Even better if you hit a metal support beam or a metal pipe.

c)

Give up. No one will ever hear you.

d)

Create soundwaves by yelling AT the wall.

169.

Sound waves move faster ...

a)

On a cold day since cold molecuels are packed together more tightly so there are more collisions between molecules.

b)

On a hot day, since hot molecules are more spread apart so there are more collisions between molecules

c)

Temperature has no effect on sound waves.

d)

in the vacum of space, where there is no matter.

170.

Which of the following is the state of matter that will carry sound faster?

a)
b)
c)

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8th Grade - University